EM42 A320 final ALL ATA FINAL TEST 2

How are identified the 3 reference axis?. X = Longitudinal, Y = Transversal and Z = Vertical. Y = Longitudinal and X = Transversal Z = Vertical. X = Longitudinal, Y = Vertical and Z = Transversal.

The reference 0 is set at: 254 m. 254 cm. 2540 cm.

What does FS mean?. forward spar. first spar. Front spar.

The station number is. The distance in cm of a cross section from a reference point fwd to aircraft nose. The distance in meters of a section from a reference point fwd to aircraft nose. The distance in cm of a cross section from a reference point rear to aircraft nose.

How many ribs the A320 vertical stabilizer have?. 11. 12. 10.

How many ribs the A318 vertical stabilizer have?. 11. 12. 13.

Write the name of the major zone. 100: lower fuselage 200: upper fuselage 300: stabilizer 400: engine and nacelle 500: LH wing 600: RH wing 700: landing gear. 100: fwd fuselage 200: rear fuselage 300: stabilizer 400: engine and nacelle 500: LH wing 600: RH wing 700: landing gear. 100: lower fuselage 200: upper fuselage 300: stabilizer 400: engine and nacelle 500: LH wing 600: RH wing 700: packs.

What indication is show in the cockpit after removing the safety pin from the NLG electrical box?. The message N WHEEL STEER DISC appears of the ECAM. The message N WHEEL STEER DISC dissapears of the ECAM. The message N WHEEL STEER DISCHARGE dissapears of the ECAM.

What is taxing?. Move the aircraft power off. Move the aircraft power on. Move the aircraft to maintenance.

What is towing?. Move the aircraft power on with NLG attached to special equipment. Move the aircraft power off with NLG attached to special equipment. Move the aircraft power off with MLG attached to special equipment.

What is mooring?. Attach the landing gears to ground in low winds condition. Attach wings to ground in high winds condition. Attach the landing gears to ground in high winds condition.

What is the purppose of the jacking pads?. To spread the loads of the jacking points. Do not cause damage to the AC wings. Sense the loads through the jacking points.

Each major zone of the aircraft receives : Part number. Cross number. Section number.

Wich is the reference station number for vertical stabilizer?. Y= 0. X=0. Y=-1.

What is the main content of the SRM?. identification of structural parts, allowable damage, structural repairs, materials and fasteners information. The SRM focuses exclusively on the cleaning and disinfection procedures for the aircraft's air conditioning system. The SRM contains detailed information on the operating procedures for the aircraft's navigation and communication systems.

Enter the name of the ATA chapter related to the structure: 51: STRUCTURES, 52: DOORS, 53: NACELLES/PYLONS , 54: FUSELAGE , 55: STABILIZERS, 56: WINDOWS, 57: WINGS. 51: STRUCTURES, 52: DOORS, 53: FUSELAGE, 54: ENGINES/PYLONS, 55: STABILIZERS, 56: STANDARD PRACTICES, 57: WINGS. 51: STRUCTURES, 52: DOORS, 53: FUSELAGE, 54: NACELLES/PYLONS, 55: STABILIZERS, 56: WINDOWS, 57: WINGS.

What is the name of the update to ATA spec 100?. ISPEC 2200. ISPEC 2221. ISPEC 2002.

What are the two types of structures in advanced composites?. monolithic and sandwich type. semimonocasque and sandwich. monolithic and carbon fiber.

What is the function of the Door Stop Fittings?. Cab pressure loads are absorbed and dissipated through a ventilation system that uses special filters to equalize the pressure. Loads resulting from cabin pressure are transferred by hydraulic springs that automatically adjust the internal pressure. loads resulting from cabin pressure are transferred by a stop.

In the fuselage, what are the types of joints used in manufacturing?. circumferential butt joints, longitudinal lap joints. sandwich and monolithic. longitudinal lat joints and skin joints.

What is the main material for repairing the flight control surfaces of the tailplane?. Carbon fiber. Glass fiber. Aluminium.

What type of manual is the SRM?. non-customized document that is used filtered by MSN. customized document that is used filtered by MSN. non-customized document that is used filtered by IPC.

What information is needed to assess damage?. Skin thickness and dent depth. Skin thickness and paint depth. Skin thickness and rivet depth.

Write 5 typical damages on windows. crack, delamination, bubbles, discoloration, crazing. crack, delamination, bubbles, discoloration, corrosion. crack, delamination, bubbles, gouges, crazing.

Explain the following number 51-34-12. 51: chapter , 34: section , 12: subject , 51-3:assigned by ata 100, 4-12: assigned by ata. 51: chapter, 34: section, 12: subject, 51-3: assigned by ata 100, 4-12: assigned by airbus inc. 51: chapter , 34: section , 12: main topic , 51-3: ata 100, 4- 12: airbus inc.

Which Decoder Encoder Unit is used for passenger functions?. DEUS A. DEUS B. DEUS C.

How can the passenger reading lights be adjusted?. Manually moving the light. The reading lights are not adjustable because the Light Emitting Diode (LED) light diffusion angle is sufficient. Through the FAP.

What is the function of the EPSU?. EPSUs supplies lighting in case of failure of the main lighting system or during emergency conditions. The EPSUs also monitor the correct voltage of the AC and DC buses and convert 28V DC into 6V DC to operate their associated lights. EPSUs supplies lighting in case of normal of the main lighting system or during emergency conditions. The EPSUs also monitor the correct voltage of the AC and DC buses and convert 28V DC into 6V DC to operate their associated lights. EPSUs supplies lighting in case of failure of the main lighting system or during emergency conditions. The EPSUs also monitor the correct voltage of the AC and DC buses and convert 48V DC into 6V DC to operate their associated lights.

What is the function of the ANN LT switch?. The cockpit ANN LT SW is mainly used to test all the ANN LTs in the cockpit or to dim the ANN LTs in night conditions. The cockpit ANN LT SW is mainly used to test all the ANN LTs in the exterior or to dim the ANN LTs in night conditions. The cockpit ANN LT SW is mainly used to test all the ANN LTs in the cockpit or to off the ANN LTs in night conditions.

If the engines are running and the cockpit door open, what is the condition of the entry light?. The CIDS directors signal the DEU of the left forward entry light to set the intensity to 50%. The CIDS directors signal the DEU of the left forward entry light to set the intensity to 75%. The CIDS directors signal the DEU of the left forward entry light to set the intensity to 10%.

How does the RW turn off sw controls the runway tum-off lights?. Controls the runway turn-off lights: - ON: Both lights are on, only if the NLG is up, - OFF: Both lights are off. Controls the runway turn-off lights: - ON: Both lights are on, only if the NLG is downlocked, - OFF: Both lights are off. Controls the runway turn-off lights: - ON: Both lights are on, only if the NLG is downlocked, - OFF: Both lights are off in cruise phase.

In emergency configuration, which light remain on in the cock pit?. Dome light RH. Dome light LH. Both dome lights.

How many beacon lights in the airplane?. Two beacon lights supply high-intensity red flashing light on the top and at the bottom of the aircraft fuselage. One beacon lights supply high-intensity red flashing light on the top and at the bottom of the aircraft fuselage. Two beacon lights supply high-intensity red flashing light on at the bottom of the aircraft fuselage.

When is the Emergency Lighting system supplied by the EPSUs integrated batteries?. If the 28V DC SHED ESS BUS voltage falls below 16V, the EPSUs internal batteries continue to supply the loads for few minutes. The batteries are still longer charged. If the 28V DC SHED ESS BUS voltage falls below 1V, the EPSUs internal batteries continue to supply the loads for few minutes. The batteries are no longer charged. If the 28V DC SHED ESS BUS voltage falls below 16V, the EPSUs internal batteries continue to supply the loads for few minutes. The batteries are no longer charged.

With the RWY TURN-OFF switch set to ON, when are the runway turn off lights on?. controls the runway turn-off lights: ON: Both lights are on, only if the NLG is up. controls the runway turn-off lights: ON: Both lights are on, only if the NLG is downlocked. controls the runway turn-off lights: ON: Both lights are on, only if the NLG is down on flight.

What is the function of CSD?. The CSD gives a constant input speed to the generator, which is required for a constant output frequency. The CSD generator is responsible for controlling the temperature inside the cabin to ensure that passengers are always at a comfortable level of warmth or coolness. The CSD is designed to provide extra lift to the aircraft during takeoff and landing.

What are the characteristics of each generator?. GEN 1 and 2: 115/200 VAC, 3 phase, 400Hz, 90 kVA APU GEN: 115/200 VAC, 3 phase, 400 Hz, 90 kVA External power: 115/200 VAC, 3 phase, 400 Hz, 90 kVA EMER GEN: 115/200 VAC, 3 phase, 400 Hz, 5 kVA. IDG ½: 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3 phases, 90 KVA APU GEN: 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3 phases, 90 kVA EMER GEN: 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3 phases 90 kVA. IDG 1: 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3 phases, 90 KVA GEN 2: 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3 phases, 90 kVA EMER GEN: 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3 phases 5 kVA.

What is the function of TR?. Convert 115V AC to 28V DC. Convert 115V AC to 28V AC. Convert 115V DC to 28 Hz.

How many ESS BUSS are included in the electrical network aircraft?. 1 ESS BUS and 3 Altern ESS BUS. 1 ESS emergency BUS. AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS.

What is the function of ESS TR?. Converts the AC ESS power to DC ESS power. Supplies the DC ESS Buss in abnormal or emergency configuration. Supplies the electrical power of the hot bus bar in normal operation.

What is the function of Static inverter?. Transform static electricity to DC electricity. Convert 28V DC into 115V AC. Convert 28V DC into 115A.

Where is located the EMER ELEC PWR?. On the middle of the glare shield. On the center pedestal on the 21VU. On the LH side of overhead panel on the 21VU.

Where is display the battery voltage?. On the ECAM and PFD. In the overhead panel. On the overhead panel and on the ECAM EDW display electrical page.

What is the function of AC ESS FEED P/B SW?. change the supply to the AC ESS bus from AC bus 1 to AC bus 2. Activate and deactivated the AC ESS FEED. Energize the A/C with electrical power.

What is the function of BUS tie P/B SW?. It lets disconnect the bus tie contactors in order to supply the AC1 and AC2 buses. Make the change of AC BUS 1 to AC BUS 2. It lets the opening or closing of the bus tie contactors in order to supply the AC1 and AC2 buses.

What is the function of IDG P/B SW?. In case of failure disconnect the IDG from the engine gearbox. In case of failure reset the IDG from the engine gearbox. Power off the IDG in case of failure.

What is the function of Galley and Cab P/B SW?. Energize the galleys and the commercial lights. Activate the galleys light in case of a emergency. Lets galleys and some sub-buses be manually power off.

What is the function of commercial P/B SW?. To isolated the commercial annunciators of the passengers seats. Turn on all the commercial system when the IDG fail. Is used for the shedding of all commercial loads including the GALY & CAB related buses.

What is the function of EMER GEN TEST P/B?. Is used on ground to test the Emergency Generator or the Static Inverter. Is used on flight to test the Emergency Generator or the Static Inverter. Is used on TOGA to test the Emergency Generator or the Static Inverter.

What is the function of GEN 1 lINE P/B?. Disconnect the electrical power network of the GEN 1 and keep energized the fuel pumps 1 of each wing. Put in line GEN 1 and 2 in case of a lost of CSD. Reconnect the line function of the IDG on ENG 1 and supplies the fuel pumps.

What is the function of the RAT?. Pressurize the blue hydraulic system which powers the APU GEN in case of emergency. Pressurize the blue hydraulic system which powers the EMER GEN in case of emergency. Pressurize the blue hydraulic system which powers the EMER GEN for test.

What is the function of the GAPCU?. Controls the APU igniters and the external power system. Controls the GCU generator and the external power system. Controls the APU generator and the external power system.

What is the function of the GCU?. Protect and control the A/C network and generators and display the AC electrical power parameters on ECAM. Controls the GEN 1 and 2 parameters for overload caution. Send the parameters of the generators to the DMC 1.

What is the function of MAINT BUS SW?. The electrical network is supplied with the ESS BUS. lets the AC and DC service buses be supplied without energizing the whole A/C electrical network. Test the electrical network on ground only with the ESS BUS energized.

What functions are combined in the GAPCU?. APU general activation procedure and control unit. Combine the functions of the APU and the module of the CSMU. APU general control module and external power system.

On the Enhanced A320, Which unit sends the electrical information to the SDAC?. FWC. FDIU. GCU.

How can the IDG be disconnected after a failure?. Manually pushing the guarded IDG push button and automatically before the temperature is increased to 200 F. Manually pushing the guarded GEN push button and automatically after the temperature is increased to 200 C. Manually pushing the guarded IDG push button and automatically after the temperature is increased to 200 C.

Automatic Disconnection is only posible on enhanced A/C. When the IDG oil temperature reach 200°C below to 140 psi. When the IDG oil temperature reach 140°C or when the oil press is below to 200 psi. When the IDG oil temperature reach 185°C or when the oil press is below to 140 psi.

What does the GALLEY FAULT light indicate?. If a generator Control Unit (GCU) detects an IDG or APU generator overload. If a generator Control Unit (GCU) detects an IDG thermal disconnect. If a generator Control Unit (GCU) detects an IDG or APU detects low oil press.

When released out, what does the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton enable?. the OFF legend comes on and the supply voltage to the AUX relay is interrupted. ENG shutdown. GEN 1 is disconnected from the electrical network, only on ground.

When does the cooler bypass valve open?. In hot conditions due to high oil viscosity the oil pressure increase. In cold conditions due to low oil viscosity the oil pressure decrease. In cold conditions due to high oil viscosity the oil pressure increase.

What happens with the aircraft electrical network normally supplied, and the AC ESS FEED pushbutton released out (ALTN)?. the AC ESS BUS is supplied from AC BUS 2. The AC ESS BUS energize the AC ESS FEED. ESS TR supplies the AC ESS BUS.

With the GEN 1 and 2 on line, when does the GEN 1 FAULT light come on?. If the GEN pushbutton is in the ON position and the PRR of the GCU is not energized, the fault light on the GEN pushbutton comes ON. If the GEN pushbutton is in the OFF position and the PRR of the GCU is not energized, the fault light on the GEN pushbutton comes ON. If the GEN pushbutton is in the normal position and the PRR of the GCU is not energized, the fault light on the GEN pushbutton comes OFF.

What is the differences btw CL IDG vs ENH IDG?. The ENH IDG has an solder on the disconnected solenoid, a hydraulic servo valve and a servo valve relay. The CL IDG has an solder on the disconnected solenoid, a hydraulic servo valve and a servo valve relay. The ENH IDG has an solder on the disconnected solenoid, a hydraulic servo valve and a PRR relay.

Wich are ATA 24 computers CL A320?. GSU, EMER GCU, BCL, APU GCU, GPCU and EGIU. GCU1, GCU2, EMER GCU, BCL, APU GCU, GPCU and EGIU. GAPCU, GCU1, GCU2, EMER GCU, BCL, APU GCU, GPCU and EGIU.

Which are ATA 24 computers ENH A320?. GAPCU, BCL, GCU1, GCU2, EMER GCU, GCU APU. GAPCU, BCL, GCU1, GCU2, EMER GCU, GCU EXT. PWR. GAPCU, BCL, GCU1, GCU2, EMER GCU.

What’s computer was delete on A320 ENH?. GPCU, APU GCU and EGIU. GAPCU and EGIU. GAPCU, APU GCU and EGIU.

Which are the GAPCU functions?. Controls the APU EGIU. Controls the APU GEN and the external power sys. Controls the ENG GEN 1.

Which are the functions of the NEW COMMERCIAL P/B?. power ON the power the commercial buses and the galleys manually. power OFF the power the commercial buses and the galleys automatically. power OFF the power the commercial buses and the galleys manually.

When Comes FAULT light amber ON (Gally & Cab P/B)?. Comes ON when a generator overload is detected. Comes ON when CSM/G overload is detected. Comes ON when a electrical failure is detected.

What is the function of the Battery Charge Limiter?. The BCL monitors the charge operation of the batteries, closing and opening the battery contactor as long as GEN is in OFF position. The BCL monitors the charge operation of the batteries, closing and opening the generator contactor as long as GEN 1 LINE is in auto position. The BCL monitors the charge operation of the batteries, closing and opening the battery contactor as long as BATT PB is in AUTO position.

The battery contactor control includes the following functions: Automatic battery power to part of the network during transient configuration or on ground on normal power, ensure battery charging, protect the battery, prevent complete discharge on ground, assist the APU starting, ensure integrity of HOT BUS. Automatic battery power to part of the network during transient configuration or on ground on abnormal power, ensure battery charging, protect the battery, prevent complete discharge on ground, assist the APU starting, ensure integrity of HOT BUS. Automatic battery power to part of the network during transient configuration or on flight on normal power, ensure battery charging, protect the battery, prevent complete discharge on flight, assist the APU starting, ensure integrity of HOT BUS.

The nominal capacity of each battery is: 28V DC and 23A. 24V DC and 23A. 23V DC and 24A.

Which are The Bus Tie Logic tasks?. No parallel operation of two power sources on the transfer line or busbars. Automatic power transfer in case of a supply failure. The priority of Power Sources to supply the AC BUSES. Open or close the tie contactors in order of the emergency in flight. Ensures the CSM/G supplies the ESS BUS. Activate the bus tie contactors automatically. Monitor the IDG for overload.

When the static inverter operates?. On APU start, ENG start with battery and in emergency configuration. On APU start, ENG start in cold and normal configuration. On ENG start and in emergency configuration.

AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by?. AC ESS BUS. AC BUS 1. AC ESS BUS SHED.

DC BAT BUS can be supplied by?. Batteries. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 and batteries. APU GEN.

AC transfers enable AC buses to?. Be supplied only by GEN 1. Be supplied by the ESS TR in case of emergency. Be supplied by any generator or the external power.

What is the configuration if both BTCs are open?. In abnormal operation. On ground. In normal operation.

What is the configuration if BTC 1 is open and BTC 2 is closed?. With APU GEN and GEN 1 supplying the network. With APU GEN supplying the network. With GEN 1 supplying the network.

What is the configuration if both BTCs are closed?. GEN 1 and GEN 2 on line. With APU generator, external power generator, battery and if only one engine gen on line. GEN 1 supplying the A/C network and the APU PB SW ON.

When does the APU GEN FAULT light come on?. The FAULT legend only comes ON if the PB SW is pressed in, the APU is running (>95%) and one parameter is not correct. The FAULT legend only comes ON if the PB SW is pressed in, the APU is running (75%) and one parameter is not correct. The FAULT legend only comes ON if the PB SW is pressed in, the APU ram air is not open and one parameter is not correct.

Where is the APU generator oil outlet temperature signal sent to?. To the EGIU. To the GAPCU. To the ECB.

With the Main Landing Gear not compressed and after AC Bus 1 and 2 failures, when does the RAT and EMER GEN FAULT light come on?. When the BCL no detect ESS TR output. When the BCL no detect emergency generator ON. When the GAPCU no detect TR output.

When does the CSM/G supply the DC and AC ESS buses?. On emergency configuration with airspeed below 100 KTS. On emergency configuration with airspeed above 50 KTS. On emergency configuration with airspeed above 100 KTS.

On ground, in a cold A/C configuration what does the activation of the RAT & EMER GEN MAN ON pushbutton cause?. Extends the RAT. Extends the RAT and turn on the CSM/G. The RAT can't be extent in cold A/C conditions.

How is the RAT extension system controlled?. Automatically by the emergency GCU. Manually with the RAT MAN handle. Automatically and manually.

What are the RAT solenoids supplied by?. By the GEN 1. By the batteries. By the APU GEN.

In emergency configuration with an aircraft speed below 50 kts, what is the condition of the aircraft electrical network?. In this configuration the AC ESS BUS is no longer connected to the STAT INV. The DC ESS BUS and the AC STAT INV BUS are OFF. In this configuration the AC ESS BUS is connected to the STAT INV. The DC ESS BUS and the AC STAT INV BUS remain supplied. In this configuration the AC ESS BUS is no longer connected to the STAT INV. the DC ESS BUS and the AC STAT INV BUS remain supplied.

To which component is a static inverter fault signal sent to?. To BCL. To FWC. GAPCU.

In the normal configuration, which GEN supplies the AC ESS Bus?. IDG GEN. GEN 1. GEN 1 and GEN 2.

What happens with the aircraft electrical network normally supplied and the AC ESS FEED pushbutton released out (ALTN)?. ALTN legend comes OFF white, 3XC2 is energized, the AC ESS BUS is recovered from AC BUS 2, 3XH opens, the FAULT legend on the AC ESS FEED P/BSW goes ON. ALTN legend comes on white, 3XC2 is energized, the AC ESS SHED BUS is recovered from AC BUS 2, 3XH opens, the ON legend on the AC ESS FEED P/BSW goes off. ALTN legend comes ON white, 3XC2 is energized, the AC ESS BUS is recovered from AC BUS 2, 3XH opens, the FAULT legend on the AC ESS FEED P/BSW goes OFF.

What does the EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate when lit?. Indicates that the connection to the A/C network is not in use. Indicates that the Ground Power Unit is connected correctly and available to energize the A/C network. Indicates that the Ground Power Unit connection to the A/C network fail.

What is the indication on the external power receptacle when the ground cart is connected to the aircraft network?. 2 Lights indicate the Ground Power Unit availability (AVAIL light). 1 Light indicate the Ground Power Unit availability (AVAIL light). 2 Lights indicate the Ground Power Unit ON (ON light).

What is the condition in flight in case of total loss of the main generators before the emergency generator comes on line?. Battery 1 supplies the AC ESS via Static Inverter and Battery 2 de DC ESS BUS. Battery 2 supplies the AC ESS via Static Inverter and Battery 1 de DC ESS BUS. Battery 1 supplies the AC BUS1 via Static Inverter and Battery 2 de DC BUS.

What happens with the indication lights when the parameters of the external power are not correct after a normal connection on the cockpit panel?. The NOT IN USE light in the external power receptacle is ON. The AVAILABLE light in the external power receptacle remains ON. The AVAILABLE light in the cockpit and external power receptacle are OFF.

On the Classic A320, Which unit sends the electrical information to the SDAC?. GLC. GCU. EGIU.

What are the priorities of the aircraft generators to supply the AC BUS 1 & AC BUS 2?. Onside generator, External power, APU, opposite generator. Onside generator, Batteries, External power, APU. Onside generator, External power, APU, Batteries Emergency generator.

When do the batteries supply their own Hot Bus?. The Hot Bus is energized, when the Batteries are connected to the aircraft network. The Hot Bus is always connected to the aircraft network. The Hot Bus is energized, when the Batteries are only disconnected from the aircraft network.

On the Enhanced A320, Which unit sends the electrical information to the SDAC?. GCU. EGIU. GLC.

What must be done with the IDG after a thermal disconnection?. Reset it. Replaced it. Service it.

How is the CSM/G operation monitored?. By an amber FAULT light. The FAULT light activation is controlled by either Battery Charge Limiter (BCL) 1 or 2. During transient configuration or if the generator is faulty, there is no ESS Transformer Rectifier (TR) output, thus the FAULT light comes on. By a red FAULT light. The FAULT light activation is controlled by either Battery Charge Limiter (BCL) 1 or 2. During transient configuration or if the generator is faulty, there is no ESS Transformer Rectifier (TR) output, thus the FAULT light comes on. By an red FAULT light. The FAULT light activation is controlled by either Battery Charge Limiter (BCL) 1 or 2. During transient configuration or if the generator is faulty, there is no Static Inverter output, thus the FAULT light comes.

If the temperature is >200, what indication will we have?. Thermal Disc failed. Disconect failed. Indication fault on PB SWITCH.

What is the function of the servo valve relay in the GCU?. Controls the hyd. servo-valve. Monitors the start air valve. Controls the ENG IDG RPM.

What are the 3 devices that control and protect through the GCU?. PRR, SVR and GIR. GCR, PRR and SSR. PRR, SVR and GCR.

When the PRR and GCR are tripped on an overvoltage?. if the highest individual phase at POR reaches 130 +- 1.5. if the highest individual phase at POR reaches 130 +- 2. if the highest individual phase at POR reaches 115 +- 1.5.

What are the devices that protect the GAPCU?. PRR and GCR. GCR and SVR. SVR and PTR.

What are the relays that protect the external power?. PRR and SVR. IMR and PRR. PRR and GCR.

Which P/B switch has a fault light indication only?. Commercial. Gally/Cab.

When does an automatic shed to the feed occur?. on ground APU generator overload automatically sheds all the galley power. in flight APU generator overload automatically sheds all the galley power. on ground APU generator overtemperature automatically sheds all the galley power.

How long does it take for the RAT to supply energy from the Emer generator?. 7 seconds. 5 seconds. 10 seconds.

What are the conditions for the RAT to supply the necessary power for the CSM?. speed > 150 kts, ac bus 1 and 2 off. speed > 100 kts, ac bus 1 and 2 off. speed > 100 kts, ac bus 1 off.

In the automatic activation of the RAT, which solenoid activates the RAT?. Solenoid 2. Solenoid 1. Both.

If press the P/B switch MAN ON which solenoid is working to activate the RAT?. Solenoid 2. Solenoid 1. Both.

On ground which solenoid generates the activation of the rat in manual RAT MAN ON?. Solenoid 2. Both. Solenoid 1.

Which are the relays that energize the computer of CSM/G control unit?. K1, K2 and K3. K2, K3 and K15. K1, K2 and GCR.

What are the conditions that can lead to fault light on battery?. short circuit and over speed. Over temperature and over speed. Thermal runaway and short circuit.

What are characteristics of the Engine and APU generators?. 115/200 volts three phase, 400 hz, 5 kva. 115/200 volts three phase, 400 hz, 90 kva. 115/200 volts single phase, 400 hz, 90 kva.

What does the IDG basically contain?. The integrated drive generator (IDG) consists of a constant speed drive (CSD) and DC generator mounted side by side in a common housing, the CSD controls the speed of the generator. The integrated drive generator (IDG) consists of a constant speed drive (CSD) and AC generator mounted side by side in a common housing, the CSD controls the speed of the generator. The integrated drive generator (IDG) consists of a constant speed drive (CSD) and AC generator mounted side by side in a common housing, the CSD controls the speed of the GCU.

Which tanks are the main supply tanks?. Center tank. Outer tank. Left tank.

The Fuel Quantity Indicating System comprises: The FQIC, probes, capacitance index, compensator, candensicons, FLSCU, refuel/defuel panel and MTI. The FQIC, FLSCU, FWC, tanks, drain valve and fuel pumps. Magnetic indication probes, candensicons, refuel panel and lower ECAM fuel page.

What is the maximum total fuel capacity?. A320 is 40100 lbs (18010 kg) A321 is 41010 lbs (18605 kg). On A321 is 41290 lbs (18728 kg) On A320 is 41010 lbs (18605 kg). A320 is 41290 lbs (18728 kg) A321 is 41010 lbs (18605 kg).

When the engine LP valve closes?. When the A/C is refueling. The related engine is shut down or when the fire P/B is released. When the engine is in normal configuration or in flight.

When there is a low level in one inner cell?. The transfer valves open manually and are latched until the next refueling. The transfer valves open automatically and are latched until the next refueling. The transfer valves shutdown and are latched on ground.

What happens on ground, slats extended, in AUTO MODE with fuel in the center tank, and one minute after engines start?. The center tank pumps supplies the ENG regardless the position of the slats until the A/C is in flight. The center tanks pumps run regardless of the slat position, this pumps have priority over wing tank pumps, after this delay (2 min.) center tank pumps stop until the ENG is off. The center tank pump runs regardless of the slat position, this pumps have priority over wing tank pumps, after this delay (2 min.) center tank pumps stop because slat are still extended.

When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, center tank pumps: Stop automatically 5 min. after the center tank Fuel Low Level has been reached. Stop manually 5 min. after the center tank Fuel Low Level has been reached. Stop automatically 10 min. after the center tank Fuel Low Level has been reached.

An excess pressure in the inner cell is relieved via an overpressure protector: Installed on the tank wing. Installed on center tank access panel. Installed on a tank access panel.

What is the function of the vent float valves?. Prevents fuel from passing in the vent lines during A/C bank maneuvers. Prevents fuel from passing from LH tank to RH tank during A/C bank maneuvers. Prevents fuel from passing in the vent lines during A/C towing.

To which tank does the recirculated fuel return?. To the outer cell tank of each wing. To the inner cell tank of each wing. To the outer cell and inner cell tank of each wing.

What happens if the fuel level in the inner cell drops to the low level sensor?. The fuel diverter and return valve close at 2800 Kg (6200 lbs). The fuel diverter and return valve open at 280 Kg (620 lbs). The fuel diverter and return valve close at 280 Kg (620 lbs).

In normal operation, which tank will be empty first?. Center tank. Wing tank. Outer tank.

When the bypass suction valve is in operation?. It's a complete main pump failure. Let fuel be sucked from the wing tank by the EDP. The supply is done by gravity. The main pump is in normal configuration. Let fuel be sucked from the wing tank by the EDP. The supply is done by gravity. It's a complete main pump failure. Let fuel be sucked from the wing tank by the EDP. The supply is done by gravity only on ground.

The function of the APU fuel pump pressure switch is?. Control pump operation. Stop the fuel pump if pressure reaches 32.3 psi and restart at 12.7 psi. Control pump operation. Stop the fuel pump if pressure reaches 23.3 psi and restart at 21.7 psi. Control pump operation. Let flow the fuel pump if pressure reaches 23.3 psi and restart at 21.7 psi.

How many motors does the APU LP valve have?. One DC motor. Two DC motors. Two AC motors.

What is the type of fuel used for A320?. Jet A. Kerosene. Jet A and kerosene.

Explain the items Critical Design Configuration Control Limitations (CDCCL): An item that can be the source of a possible fuel tank ignition. An item that can be the source of a possible flame. An item that can be the source of a possible fuel tank implosion.

What is the ignition point?. Temperature at which the combustion is done and can continue. Temperature at which the combustion is started and can continue. Temperature at which the ignition is started and can continue.

During gravity feed, which tank fuel is used?. Wing tanks. Center tank. ACT.

Which are the fuel JET A characteristics?. Colorless to yellow, freeze temperature <-47°C, density from 0.775 to 0.840, flash point minimum 38°C at sea level 7°C at 12000 m, self ignition temperature >230°C. Colorless to red, freeze temperature <-47°C, density from 0.775 to 0.840, flash point minimum 38°C at sea level 7°C at 12000 m, self ignition temperature >230°C. Colorless to yellow, freeze temperature <47°C, density from 0.775 to 0.840, flash point minimum -38°C at sea level 7°C at 12000 m, self ignition temperature >230°C.

How will you know that center tanks are supplying engines?. With the position indication of the valves on ECAM fuel page. With the position indication of the valves on ECAM fuel page. With the position indication of the valves on ECAM cruise page.

Each wing tank collector has?. One fuel pumps contained in their related canister, One fuel strainer, a suction valve, and two check valves. Two fuel pumps contained in their related canisters, two fuel strainers, a suction valve, and four check valves. Two fuel pumps contained in their related canisters, two fuel strainers, a suction valve, and two check valves.

What is the flash point?. Is the temperature at which the liquid supplies enough vapors mixed with ambient air, to make a gas that will ignite with the contact of a electrical component. Is the lowest temperature at which the liquid supplies enough vapors mixed with ambient air to make a gas that will ignite with the contact of a thermal source, also called flame. Is the hight temperature at which the liquid supplies enough vapors mixed with ambient air, to make a gas that will ignite with the contact of a thermal source, also called flame.

The fuel pumps in each wing tank are located in?. The pumps in each wing tank are located in the lowest area of the outter cell in a collector cell. The pumps in each wing tank are located in the lowest area of the inner cell in a collector cell. The pumps in each wing tank are located in the upper area of the inner cell in a collector cell.

What is the content of E/WD?. ENG main parameters. Navigation parameters. ENG secondary parameters.

What is the content of lower area of E/WD?. Warning and status page. Warning cautions and memo message. N1, N2, EPR, EGT and FF.

What is the content of upper area of ECAM E/WD. Warning and cautions. Synoptic pages. N1, N2, EGT, FF, EPR (IAE ONLY).

How is divide the SD?. Upper area (status page) and lower area (permanent data). Left area (status page) and right area (Permanent data). Upper area (permanent data) and lower area (status page).

Wich pages are displayed in the SD?. 11 synoptic page, door page and cruise page. 11 synoptic page, status page and cruise page. 10 synoptics page, status page and cruise page.

Which is the information displayed in cruise?. The main ENG parameter to monitor during flight. Air speed. The main parameters to monitor during flight.

What include the status page?. Limitation, approach procedure, information, cancelled cautions, inop. sys. and any class 2 system failure. Limitation, approach procedure, information, cancelled cautions, inop. sys. Limitation, approach procedure, information, cancelled cautions, inop. sys. and cabin press.

What are the four mode of ECAM?. Standard and automatic. Manual, automatic and general. Manual, automatic, advisory and failure.

In EIS 2 (enhanced A/C) what display are controlled by DMC 1?. Capt. PFD, Capt. ND, E/WD and SD. Capt. EFIS, E/WD. F.O. PFD and F.O. ND.

In EIS 2 (enhanced A/C) what display are controlled by DMC 2?. Capt. PFD and F.O. ND. F.O. PFD and F.O. ND. F.O. EFIS and ECAM.

Which inputs are directly sent to DMC to elaborate information on the system pages?. Engines, air conditioning, navigation. Engines, fuel, navigation. Engines, fuel, doors status.

When is the ADV indication presented on the E/WD?. Appears in single display configuration on the status page area when a parameter drifts from its normal value. Appears in normal display configuration on the lower memo area when a parameter drifts from its normal value. Appears in single display configuration on the lower memo area when a parameter drifts from its normal value.

Which type of warning generates the alert 1?. Master caution ON. Warning on ECAM. Caution on ECAM.

Which type of alerts generates the alerts 2?. Single chime (SC), master caution ON and caution on ECAM. Constan repetitive chime (CRC) and caution on ECAM. Single chime (SC), master warning ON and caution on ECAM.

Which type of warnings generates the alerts 3?. Constan repetitive chime (CRC), master warning ON and warning message on ECAM. Constan repetitive chime (CRC), master caution ON and warning message on ECAM. Single chime (SC), master warning ON and warning message on ECAM.

What indicates the STS reminder on the E/WD?. A parameter has drifted on the STS page. Status memo messages is present on the E/W display info. That the status message (info) is present on the SD STS page.

What is indicated to the captain when a primary failure is occurring in the aircraft?. A primary failure is displayed with a title underlined. A primary failure is displayed with an asterisk. A primary failure is displayed with a box around the failure.

What are the functions of the ECAM system?. Data acquisition and concentration, Data warning computation and Warning announcement and data display SDAC, CFDIU and DMC. Data acquisition and concentration, Data warning computation and Warning announcement and data display SDAC, FWC and DMC. Data acquisition and concentration, Data warning computation and Warning announcement and data display SDAC, FWC and BSCU.

What kind of display are installed on A320 enhanced (EIS 2). LCD. Plasma. CRT.

What kind of display are installed on A320 classic (EIS 1). CRT. LCD. Led.

For EIS 1, in case of display failure, what is the indication?. Display in blank. Display in black. Invalid data.

For EIS 2, in case of display failure, what is the indication?. Display in blank. Invalid display unit is show in the display. The display blink.

What is a indication of DMC failure on the EIS 1 (classic A320). A diagonal line is show on the display. A horizontal line is show on the display. Warning message on ECAM.

What is a indication of DMC failure on the EIS 2 (enhanced A320). Invalid data is show on the display. Invalid unit is show on the display. Master caution ON.

Which computers process the warnings?. SDACS. FWC. DMC.

Where does a warning message appear?. Upper area of E/WD. Lower area SD. Lower area of E/WD.

Which ECAM page is displayed in cruise phase?. Navigation page. Cruise page. Eng page.

Wich ECAM pages is displayed when landing gear is down on flight phase 6?. Wheel page. Landing gear page. Door page.

In case of an advisory what is display on on the E/WD?. The symbol ADV is displayed on door page. ADV in single display configuration. The symbol STS is displayed on the memo area.

What happens if the recall (RCL) key is pressed?. Call to attendants. Generates a message in the memo message. Let the crew reactivate the LCD presentation of an alert inhibit.

Which computer generates the audio signals?. FWC. VHF. Audio management computer.

What is the status (STS) page?. Is a summary of the flight phases. Is an operational summary of the current A/C condition. Is the status of the flight.

What key can be used in case of loss of ECAM control panel?. All key, clear key, status key, recall key and Emergency cancel. All key, test key, doors key and recall key. All key, clear key, status key, recall key and Emergency generator key.

Choose the correct statement about the computers type and their characteristics. TYPE 1: CAN MEMORIZE FAILURES WHICH OCURRED IN THE LAST 60 FLIGHT LEG, TYPE 2: MEMORIZE ONLY THE FAILURES FROM THE LAST FLIGHT LEG, TYPE 3: ARE SIMPLE LINKED TO THE CFDS, CANNOT BE MEMORIZE FAILURES MESSAGES. TYPE 1: CAN MEMORIZE FAILURES WHICH OCURRED IN THE LAST 64 FLIGHT LEG, TYPE 2: MEMORIZE ONLY THE FAILURES FROM THE LAST FLIGHT LEG, TYPE 3: ARE SIMPLE LINKED TO THE CFDS, CANNOT BE MEMORIZE FAILURES MESSAGES. TYPE 1: MEMORIZE ONLY THE FAILURES FROM THE LAST FLIGHT LEG, TYPE 2: CAN MEMORIZE FAILURES WHICH OCURRED IN THE LAST 64 FLIGHT LEG, TYPE 3: ARE SIMPLE LINKED TO THE CFDS, CANNOT BE MEMORIZE FAILURES MESSAGES.

Which are the main functions of clock?. UTC, DATE, CHRONOMETER and FLIGHT HOURS. UTC, DATE , CHRONOMETER and ELAPSE HOUR. UTC, DATE, CHRONOMETER and ELAPSE TIME.

What is the current Leg Report?. SHOWS FAILURE INFORMATION DELIVERED BY BITE OF THE AIRCRAFT SYSTEM IN FLIGHT. DISPLAYS FAULT INFORMATION DELIVERED BY AIRCRAFT SYSTEM BITE ON GROUND. DISPLAYS FAULT INFORMATION DELIVERED BY STING OF THE AIRCRAFT SYSTEM IN FLIGHT.

What is the Last leg Report?. SHOWS FAILURE INFORMATION DELIVERED BY BITE OF THE AIRCRAFT SYSTEM ON GROUND. DISPLAYS FAULT INFORMATION DELIVERED BY AIRCRAFT SYSTEM BITE IN FLIGHT. DISPLAYS FAULT INFORMATION DELIVERED BY STING OF THE AIRCRAFT SYSTEM IN FLIGHT.

Gravity failures are: CLASS 1 : OPERATIONAL CONSEQUENCE ON THE FLIGHT,CLASS 2: NO HAVE IMMEDIATE OPERATIONAL CONSEQUENCE, CLASS 3: NO OPERATIONAL CONSEQUENCE. CLASS 1: IMPACTS FLIGHT OPERATIONS, CLASS 2: NO IMMEDIATE EFFECTS ON OPERATION, CLASS 3: NON-OPERATIONAL OUTCOME. CLASS 1: AFFECTS FLIGHT OPERABILITY, CLASS 2: LACKS IMMEDIATE IMPACT ON OPERATIONS, CLASS 3: LACKS OPERATIONAL IMPACT.

Write the type 1, 2 and 3 system. SINGLE COMPUTER,MULTI COMPUTER,DUPLICATED SYSTEM. DOUBLE COMPUTER , MULTI COMPUTER, DUPLICATED SYSTEM. SINGLE COMPUTER, MULTIPURPOSE COMPUTER, DUPLICATED COMPUTER.

What is the content of Avionic Status?. PRESENTS A SECTIONS OF SYSTEM WHICH ARE CURRENTLY AFFECTED BY A FAILURES INCLUDE CLASSE 2 FAILURES. PRESENTS THE LIST OF SYSTEM WHICH ARE CURRENTLY AFFECTED BY A FAILURES INCLUDE CLASS 3 FAILURES. PRESENTS THE LIST OF COMPUTERS WHICH ARE CURRENTLY AFFECTED BY A FAILURES INCLUDE CLASS 2 FAILURES.

What is the function of Ground Scanning?. PRESENTS THE INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL FAILURES CONCERNING THIS SYSTEM, THE REQUEST IS MADE ON FLIGHT ONLY, FORCING OPERATION BITE SYSTEM NORMAL MODE. PRESENTS ON EXTERNAL FAILURES CONCERNING THIS SYSTEM, THE REQUEST IS MADE ON GROUND ONLY, BY PASSING OPERATION BITE SYSTEM NORMAL MODE. PRESENTS THE INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL FAILURES CONCERNING THIS SYSTEM, THE REQUEST IS MADE ON GROUND ONLY, FORCING OPERATION BITE SYSTEM NORMAL MODE.

What is the purpose of filtering?. IS TO IMPROVE THE OPERATIONAL USE OF THE CVR, CURRENT/ LAST LEG ECAM REPORT AND LAST LEG REPORT BY FILTERIN ALL THE SPURIOUS FAILURES MESSAGES. IS TO IMPROVE THE OPERATIONAL USE OF THE PFR, CURRENT/ LAST LETG ECAM REPORT AND LAST LEG REPORT BY FILTERIN ALL THE SPURIOUS FAILURES MESSAGES. IS TO IMPROVE THE OPERATIONAL USE OF THE PFR, CURRENT/ LAST LEG ECAM REPORT AND LAST LEG REPORT BY FILTERIN ALL THE WARNING MESSAGES.

In troubleshooting process Fault symptom are divided in. ECAM, EFIS,LOCAL WARNINGS, CREW AND MAINTENANCE OBS, CFDS,PATTERN SEARCH. ECAM AND PILOT EFIS,LOCAL ALERTS, CREW AND MAINTENANCE OBS, CFDS and PATTERN. ECAM, EFIS, LOCAL WARNINGS, CREW AND MAINTENANCE OBS.

What does IDENT mean in PFR?. NAME OF THE SYSTEM AFFECTED BY EXTERNAL FAILURES OR THE SYSTEM THAT DETECT THE FAILURE. NAME OF THE SYSTEM AFFECTED BY EXTERNAL FAILURES. NAME OF THE SYSTEM AFFECTED BY INTERNAL FAILURES OR THE SYSTEM THAT DETECT THE FAILURE.

What does SOURCE mean?. NAME OF THE SYSTEM AFFECTED BY COMPUTERS. NAME OF THE SYSTEM AFFECTED BY FAILURE. NAME OF THE SYSTEM AFFECTED BY AC POWER.

In accordance with CFDS, what is the level of failure gravity and their effect?. CLASS 1: ARE THE MOST SERIOUS REQUIRED IMMEDIATE MAINTENANCE SUBJET TO MEL, CLASS 2: MAY HAVE CONSEQUENCE IF A SECOND FAILURE OCCURS. MUST BE REPAIRED WITHIN 10 DAYS, CLASS 3: CAN BE LEFT UNCORRECTED UNTIL THE NEX SHEDULED MAINTENANCE CHECK. CLASS 1: ARE THE MOST SERIOUS REQUIRED IMMEDIATE MAINTENANCE SUBJET TO MEL, CLASS 2: MAY HAVE CONSEQUENCE IF A SECOND FAILURE OCCURS. MUST BE REPAIRED WITHIN 3 DAYS, CLASS 3: CAN BE LEFT UNCORRECTED UNTIL THE NEX SHEDULED MAINTENANCE CHECK. CLASS 1: ARE THE MOST SERIOUS REQUIRED IMMEDIATE MAINTENANCE SUBJET TO MEL, CLASS 2: MAY HAVE CONSEQUENCE IF A SECOND FAILURE OCCURS. MUST BE REPAIRED WITHIN 120 DAYS, CLASS 3: CAN BE LEFT UNCORRECTED UNTIL THE NEX SHEDULED MAINTENANCE CHECK.

Which ECP keys are connected to FWS?. CLR, RCL, ATS, EMERG. CANCEL. CLR, RCL, STS, EMERG. CALL. CLR, RCL, STS, EMERG. CANCEL.

Which fails are included in EIS abnormal operations?. SINGLE O MULTIPLE EWD FAILURES,SINGLE O MULTIPLE DMC FAILURES,EXTERNAL SOURCE FAILURES. SINGLE O MULTIPLE DU FAILURES,SINGLE O MULTIPLE DMC FAILURES,EXTERNAL SOURCE FAILURES. SINGLE O MULTIPLE DU FAILURES,SINGLE O MULTIPLE DMC FAILURES,EXTERNAL DISPLAYS FAILURES.

When type 1 and 3 systems do the transition of flight/ground?. BELOW 80 KNOTS + 13 minutes. BELOW 80 KNOTS + 30 seconds. BELOW 60 KNOTS + 3 minutes.

When type 2 system does the transition of flight/ground?. TAKE OFF. TOUCH DOWN. CRUISE.

Using the info of PFR above in question #2 explain troubleshooting process (step by step). LOG BOOK, FAULT CONFIRMATION- FAULT ISOLATION, REPLACE COMPONENT + TEST IAW AMM and TSM- FAULT CONFIRMATION. LOG BOOK, AIRN@V- TS TOOL- FAULT SYMPTOMS, TSM- FAULT CONFIRMATION- FAULT ISOLATION, REPLACE COMPONENT + TEST IAW AMM and TSM- FAULT CONFIRMATION. LOG BOOK, AIRN@V- TS TOOL- FAULT SYMPTOMS, TSM- FAULT ISOLATION, REPLACE COMPONENT + TEST IAW AMM an TSM.

What are the system users of the printer?. AIDS, ATSU, FMGS, EVMU and ELAC. AIDS, ATSU, FMGS, EVMU and CFDIU. AIDS, ATSU, FMGS, EVMU and SDAC.

In flight phase 2, DOOR page in SD can be replaced by Wich page?. APU page. Air condition page. Wheel page.

Where is display ISA?. SD lower area (Permanent data). E/WD permanent area. PFD.

Who Generates the Flight phases?. FWC. EVMU. SDAC.

What are the functions of the FDIMU (Flight Data Interface and Management Unit)?. Flight Data Interface Unit (FDIU) and Data Management Unit (DMU). Flight Data Interface Unit (FDIU) and Data. EVMU AND FDIMU.

What is the function of AIDS?. Helps monitor the reliability of the aircraft engine and APU through the SDAC. Helps monitor the reliability of the aircraft engine and flight controls through the DMU. Helps monitor the reliability of the aircraft engine and APU through the DMU.

What class of failures has operational consequences and needs to be Refer to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL):"GO", 'GO IF" or "NO GO"?. Class 2. Class 1. Class 3.

What are the primary parameters of the engine CFM 56?. N1, EGT, N2, FF. N1, EGT, N2, EPR, FF. N1, HP, N2, FF, EGT.

What are the primary parameters of the engine V2500?. N1, EGT, N2, FF. N1,EPR, EGT, N2, FF. EPR, IP, N2, N1 , FF.

what is the difference between internal failure and external failure?. The main difference is, the two failures are the same and internal failure it hasn’t failure out of its system. The main difference is, Whether or not the failed component is part of the system, If it is part of the system, internal failure. If it is not part of the system, external failure. The main difference is, Whether or not the failed component is part of the system. If it is part of the system, internal system If it is not part of the system, external system.

In normal operation, which displays are controlled by the DMC 1?. Captain PFD and ND, E/W display and SD are controlled by DMC 1, in case of fail are transferred automatically to DMC 2 and a manual switching has to be done to DMC 3. Captain PFD and ND ,E/W display and SD are controlled by DMC 1, in case of fail are transferred automatically to DMC 3 and a manual switching has to be done to DMC 2. Captain PFD and ND, E/W display and SD are controlled by DMC 1, in case of fail are transferred manually to DMC 2 and a switching is automatically done to DMC 3.

Which type of warning generates the alerts 3 and 2?. Alert 1 master warning + CRC, Alert 2 master caution +SC. Alert 2 master warning + CRC, Alert 3 master caution + SC. Alert 3 master warning + CRC, Alert 2 master caution +SC.

When the type 2 systems are considered in flight?. From 30 seconds after lift off up to touch down. From 30 seconds after touch down up to lift off. From 30 seconds after touch down up to lift off.

Which statement is correct about The Post Flight Report (PFR)?. The Post Flight Report (PFR) is the sum of the CURRENT LEG REPORT and of the LAST LEG ECAM REPORT. The PFR can only be printed on ground. The Post Flight Report (PFR) is the sum of the LAST LEG REPORT and of the CURRENT LEG ECAM REPORT. The PFR can only be printed on ground. The Post Flight Report (PFR) is the sum of the LAST LEG REPORT and of the LAST LEG ECAM REPORT. The PFR can only be printed on ground.

How is Display Management Computer DMC 3 selected to replace DMC 1 or DMC 2?. Manually through the switching panel (8VU). Automatically through the switching panel (8VU). Automatically by the computer.

Which screen will be shown on the lower ECAM display if there is a failure of the upper ECAM display?. SD. EWD. PFD.

Which panel controls the range display for the Navigation Display?. F/O and Captain lightin/loudspeaker control panel (301 VU). F/O lightin/loudspeaker control panel (301 VU). Captain lightin/loudspeaker control panel (301 VU).

How can you change the system pages (system Synoptics) on the SD?. Through FAP. Through MCDU. Through ECP.

Which indications are shown in the cockpit if a Level 1 Alert occurs?. Caution on ECAM without attention getters. Warning on ECAM with attention getters. Warning on ECAM without attention getters.

Which information can be shown on the Status page in the left column and the right column?. Limitation approach procedures, information and cancelled caution on the left side and inoperative systems, class 2 system failure in the right column. Limitation approach procedures, information and cancelled caution on the right side and inoperative systems, class 2 system failure in the left column. Limitation approach procedures, information and cancelled caution on the left side and inoperative systems, class 3 system failure in the right column.

What is the function of the Event P/B on the center pedestal?. Pressing the DFDR Event P/B will send the data to a ground station. Pressing the DFDR Event P/B will make a point in time in this recorded data to easily find a specific point in time. Pressing the DFDR Event P/B will erased the memory of the recorder.

What is the function of the AIDS PRINT P/B on the center pedestal?. Print a PFR in a specific flight phase. Print a Status report in a specific flight phase. Print a last leg report in a specific flight phase.