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TEST BORRADO, QUIZÁS LE INTERESE: engine test C

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Título del Test: engine test C Descripción: engine test Autor: sr OTROS TESTS DEL AUTOR Fecha de Creación: 24/06/2024 Categoría: Otros Número Preguntas: 223

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The HP turbine is a ______ stage turbine single two three four. The HP turbine blades are ______ air cooled. externally internally both internally and externally not. The HP turbine blades have an external ______ coating. titanium ceramic aluminum stainless steel. The HP turbine section extracts mechanical energy from the ______ to drive the compressors. fuel flow exhaust gas oil pressure bypass air. The primary function of the HP turbine is to ______. increase air pressure decrease fuel flow extract mechanical energy increase oil pressure. The HP turbine module is an integral part of the ______ module LP compressor IP compressor HP system LP turbine . The exhaust gas goes through and turns the ______ HP turbine rotor. single-stage two-stage three-stage four-stage. The LP turbine module has a ______ stage turbine. single two four six. The LP turbine blades are ______. hollow solid and welded in pairs made of ceramic replaceable. The LP turbine module bolts to the ______ support structure. combustor tail bearing housing (TBH) IP compressor fuel pump. The LP turbine shaft attaches to the stage 5 disc with a ______ and a curvic coupling. drive arm fan disc rotor bearing . The primary function of the LP turbine is to extract mechanical energy from the ______. oil flow air pressure exhaust gas fuel flow . The LP turbine section turns in the ______ direction as its associated compressor. opposite same vertical horizontal . Before the LPT stage, a set of ______ directs the gas flow correctly into the turbine blades. fan blades compressor blades Nozzle Guide Vanes (NGV) oil pumps . The engine indicating system parameters are shown on the ______ display. Flight Control Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) Primary Flight Multi-Function . Primary engine indications include TPR, N1, and ______. N2 N3 Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) Oil Pressure. Secondary engine indications include N2, N3, and ______. Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT) Oil Pressure Thrust. The Turbofan Power Ratio (TPR) indicating subsystem includes the P20/T20 probe and ______. Pressure Transducer Turbine Gas Temperature (TGT) thermocouples Fuel Flow Sensor Oil Pressure Sensor. The components of the shaft speed indication include LPC, IPC, and ______ speed probes. Fuel Flow Oil Temperature High Pressure Compressor (HPC) Engine Vibration . The Engine Electronic Controller (EEC) calculates TPR using inputs from P20, T20, and ______. P30 P50 N2 Oil Pressure . TPR uses the temperature corrected overall compressor pressure ratio of ______ to P20. T20 P30 N2 N1 . The Turbofan Power Ratio (TPR) indication system interfaces with the ______. Fuel Control System Hydraulic System Common Core System (CCS) Environmental Control System. The EEC calculates engine TPR from inputs including TGT and ______. N2 P30 N1 Oil Pressure. TPR indications include the ______ line. Minimum TPR Average TPR Maximum TPR Intermediate TPR. One of the advantages of TPR is that it is less sensitive to ______ than EPR or N1 indications. Humidity Altitude Fuel Flow Oil Pressure . The temperature correction in TPR calculations is from TGT and ______ data. P30 N2 T20 N1. The ______ component is part of the shaft speed indication system. Oil Temperature Sensor Low Pressure Compressor (LPC) speed probe Fuel Flow Sensor Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) probe . Shaft speed indication interfaces with the EEC and ______. Aircraft Hydraulic System Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) Oil Pressure Sensor Fuel Pump. The TGT thermocouples sense the temperature of airflow downstream of the ______. Engine Exhaust Combustion System Intake Valve Fan Blades. TGT thermocouples provide EGT indications on EICAS including ______. EGT blue line EGT green band EGT red line EGT white band. The two elements in a thermocouple are nickel aluminum (alumel) and ______. Copper Nickel Chromium (chromel) Steel Brass . The TGT thermocouple is on the ______ case. High Pressure Turbine (HPT)/Intermediate Pressure Turbine (IPT) Low Pressure Compressor (LPC) High Pressure Compressor (HPC) Fuel Pump. The thermocouple elements go into the related ______. Fuel Injector Low Pressure (LP) Nozzle Guide Vane (NGV) Exhaust Pipe Air Intake . The ______ connections on the terminal block are for the alumel and chromel TGT harness connections. Parallel Electrical Mechanical Different-sized. There are ______ TGT thermocouples evenly positioned around the turbine case. 6 8 10 12. The analyzer system components include the Engine Monitoring Unit (EMU) and __ Fuel Pump Intermediate Case Vibration Transducer High Pressure Turbine Blade Fan Blades . The analyzer system interfaces include the EEC and ______. Engine Control Lever Engine Start Switch Common Data Network (CDN) Fuel Injectors. The ______ monitors critical engine operation. EMU PMA CCS EEC. Sensors in the analyzer system monitor temperature, vibration, and ______. Fuel Flow Pressure Oil Level Fuel Quantity. The EMU calculates engine vibration and balance solutions and sends vibration data to the ______. EICAS LPC HPC Oil Pump . The EMU consists of a single channel of electronics that connects to the ______. EEC Channel A Fuel Pump LPC HPC . EHM data is recorded by the EMU and sent to the ______. Aircraft Health Monitoring Function (AHMF) Airplane Condition Monitoring Function (ACMF) Engine Control Unit (ECU) Flight Management System (FMS). The engine fuel and control system supplies conditioned and metered fuel to the ______. Fuel pump Combustion chamber Oil cooler Air intake. The throttle lever position sends a command signal for a specified ______. Altitude level Airspeed Engine power level Hydraulic pressure. The Thrust Management Function (TMF) can set the ______ automatically. Airspeed Fuel flow Throttle lever position Oil pressure. The throttle levers connect to ______ that measure their position Resolvers Sensors Actuators Transmitters . The EEC sends a signal to the ______ to control the quantity of fuel going to the combustion chamber. Fuel pump Hydro-Mechanical Unit (HMU) Fuel nozzle Fuel tank. A fuel flow transmitter measures the quantity of fuel going to the ______. Oil cooler Combustion chamber Air intake Fuel tank. Fuel flow data goes to the EEC and ______ indications. Crew Airspeed Altitude Oil pressure . The engine fuel and control system supplies ______ and metered fuel to the combustion chamber unmetered unconditioned conditioned high-pressure . The throttle lever position sends a command signal for a specified ______. fuel flow rate engine power level EGT level N1 speed . The throttle levers connect to throttle ______ that measure the position of the throttle lever. actuators sensors resolvers controllers . The EEC sends a signal to the ______ to control the quantity of fuel going to the combustion chamber fuel pump Fuel Flow Meter Hydro-Mechanical Unit (HMU) Fuel Temperature Sensor . The only component in the power control system is the ______. Engine Control Module (ECM) Thrust Control Module (TCM) Fuel Control Module (FCM) Thrust Management System (TMS). The power control system interfaces with the EEC, CCS through RDC, and ______. spar valve start switch relays fuel pumps flight control system navigation system. The thrust control module includes components such as thrust levers and ______. fuel injectors fuel flow sensors auto throttle electronics speed sensors. The thrust levers supply thrust commands to the EEC through the ______. throttle actuators thrust lever (TL) resolvers fuel control switches throttle sensors. When a thrust lever moves, the ______ also moves and sends TRA data to the EEC and CCS. thrust lever resolver fuel control module throttle actuator. The thrust control module has redundant components in the linkage between each thrust lever, reverse thrust lever, and ______. resolvers EEC CCS RDC. The RDCs send signals from the fuel control module to the ______. engine fuel pump CCS thrust levers fuel manifold. The thrust control module controls the forward and reverse thrust of the ______. engines fuel flow thrust levers compressors. The TCM includes PCBs and an ARINC 429 interface housed in ______ enclosures. plastic aluminum steel titanium. Each fuel control switch has a ______ to permit replacement without removal of the TCM. connector cap handle cover. The T/R lever is blocked when the forward thrust lever is forward of idle by ______. 2 degrees 3 degrees 4 degrees 5 degrees. Deployment of T/R levers can only be done at the ______ position. maximum power idle power mid power reverse thrust. Each lever travel is 87 degrees from stowed to ______ movement position. minimum maximum mid reverse. The detent force for the T/R lever is ______ lb (kg). 5 (2.3) 6 (2.7) 7 (3.1) 8 (3.6). The switches on the forward thrust lever knob operate at ______ V DC. 12 24 28 32. The A/T disconnect switches are momentary pushbutton, single-pole single-throw, ______ units. single-break double-break triple-break quad-break. The fuel control switches have ______ positions. ON/OFF START/STOP RUN/CUTOFF OPEN/CLOSED. The T/R switches use ______ V DC power. 12 24 28 32. The solenoid in the interlock mechanism operates with a maximum ______ lb (kg) force. 4 (1.8) 5 (2.4) 6 (2.7) 7 (3.1). The solenoid has a circuit that controls the current flow to maximize ______ pull force. motor actuator lever solenoid. Each lever operates two isolated ______ through a dual gear/linkage drive. actuators solenoids resolvers sensors. The thrust management system controls the ______ servo drive. auto-throttle fuel control EEC TCM. The servo drive system provides two-way communication with the auto-throttles on the ______ interface. ARINC 410 ARINC 420 ARINC 429 ARINC 430. Built-In Test (BIT) is included in the ______ system. fuel control auto-throttle servo drive resolver RDC. Servo motors drive the levers directly through a ______ system with a high gear ratio. worm/gear lever/gear motor/gear throttle/gear. The servo motors drive the levers through a ______ clutch that allows manual override. hydraulic pneumatic friction mechanical. The mechanism includes two Motor Control Units (MCU) and one ______. Signal Control Unit (SCU) Signal Conversion Unit (SCU) Servo Control Unit (SCU) Speed Control Unit (SCU). The MCUs and SCU are housed in an ______ enclosure. plastic aluminum steel titanium. he PCBs are housed in an aluminum housing on the ______. EEC RDC TCM CCS. The electronics box interfaces with the module through ______ connectors. three four five six. The electronics box is environmentally sealed for ______. insulation protection cooling safety. The thrust control module supplies control for forward and ______ thrust of the engines. idle maximum reverse reduced. The auto-throttle servo drive system communicates using the ______ interface. ARINC 420 ARINC 429 ARINC 430 ARINC 431. The built-in test (BIT) feature in the servo drive system is used for ______. monitoring testing controlling indicating. The engine oil is stored in a reservoir that supplies oil to the ______ and pressure filter housing. oil pump fuel pump hydraulic pump coolant pump. The scavenge pump elements remove the oil from the bearing compartments and gearboxes and return it to the ______. oil tank fuel tank coolant tank hydraulic tank. Sensors send oil pressure and temperature data to the Engine Electronic Controller (EEC) and an oil quantity transmitter sends oil quantity data to the ______. Fuel Control Module (FCM) Main Engine Data Concentrator (MEDC) Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger (FOHE) Engine Monitoring Unit (EMU. The oil tank contains the necessary quantity of engine oil and serves as the oil system servicing point with an oil fill cap at the opening in the top of the oil tank, which is the oil system ______ point. maintenance inspection servicing refilling. A graduated oil level sight glass on the side of the oil tank shows the ______ of oil in the oil tank. color quality temperature quantity. The engine oil storage system has interfaces with other engine oil system components through tubing and with the Common Core System (CCS) through the Main Engine Data Concentrator (MEDC) connection to the oil ______ transmitter. pressure temperature quantity flow. The oil pump assembly contains a pressure pump and ______ scavenge pumps. 5 8 10 12. The oil flows from the filter element to the Engine Oil Surface Coolers (EOSC) and/or the engine oil ______ to decrease the temperature of the oil before it goes to the engine bearings and gearboxes. strainers sensors filters coolers. The scavenge pump elements pull the oil from the bearing compartments and gearboxes and send it back to the oil tank through the Oil Debris Monitoring System (ODMS) and ______ scavenge filter. secondary primary dedicated common. The oil distribution system includes sections for oil pressurization, oil cooling, oil scavenge, and ______. oil filtration breather air fuel temperature oil temperature. The pressure pump pulls the oil from the oil tank and pressurizes the oil for the distribution system. A pressure pump pressure relief valve controls the maximum system pressure and opens to let oil go back into the pump ______. inlet outlet reservoir tank. The oil goes from the Engine Oil Surface Coolers (EOSC) or the surface cooler Bypass Valve (BPV) to the engine Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger (FOHE) and then through the last-chance oil ______ to the bearing compartments and gearboxes. strainers filters screens coolers. Excitation power for the high pressure oil filter differential pressure transducer comes from channel A of the Engine Electronic Controller (EEC), while channel B of the EEC gives excitation power to the scavenge oil filter differential pressure transducer. Power for the Oil Debris Signal Conditioner (ODSC) and the Oil Debris Sensor (ODS) comes from channel A of the ______. HMU MEDC EEC. The oil pump and pressure filter housing pull engine oil from the engine oil tank, and the maximum pressure before the oil starts to go back to the pump inlet is ______ psi. 500 535 600 635. The maximum pressure relief valve opens to let some of the oil flow back to the pump inlet during ______ conditions. cold start high pressure low pressure normal operating. The oil goes through the pressure oil filter to remove particle contamination, and this filter is monitored for ______. flow rate temperature pressure differential pressure. The scavenge air/oil mixture goes through the oil debris separator and the scavenge filter before it goes back to the ______. oil pump oil tank oil cooler oil filter. he core flow is used for combustion, driving the turbine sections, making some forward thrust, turbine cooling and sealing, Engine Section Stator (ESS) anti-icing, and High Pressure Compressor (HPC) servo air for valve control muscle pressure. The internal engine cooling and sealing gets air from IPC stage 8 - IP8, HPC stage 3 - HP3, and HPC stage 6 - ______. HP6 HP5 HP4 HP7. A Secondary Air System (SAS) gets air from the compressor section. When selected, it uses this air to cool the engine (turbine) internally and seal and pressurize the main bearing ______. shaft compartments casings chambers. An airflow control system maintains stable airflow through the IPC and HPC over a wide range of speeds by changing the guide vane airflow angle of the IPC inlet air and opening compressor ______ valves at low speed and when airflow is disrupted. bypass bleed relief exhaust. The engine anti-icing system is designed to prevent any ice accretion that may occur, particularly in and around the areas of the ESS vanes at the inlet to the Intermediate Pressure Compressor (IPC), and the Variable Inlet Guide Vanes (VIGVs) that guide the airflow into the ______. ESS IPC HPC fan. Zone 1 is ventilated by ram air through an inlet in the inlet cowl and goes out through a vent that is combined with the right VFSG access door. Zone 2 fan air goes into the zone through inlets at the front edge of the core fairings and returns to the fan stream through outlets at the 3:00 and 9:00 positions near the A frame root. Zone 3 fan air goes into the zone through tubes on the thrust reverser inner wall and goes out between the aft edge of the thrust reverser inner wall and the ______. nacelle exhaust sleeve thrust reverser fan stream. 1.The EICAS display only functions as a primary data screen. True False. 2. Before START is selected on the P5 panel, all engine indications are visible on the EICAS display. True False. 3. The EEC sends start parameter data to the EICAS during the start sequence. True False. 4. The EICAS Start mode indications include AUTORESTART. True False. 5. The stable idle green tick mark disappears after the start sequence is complete. True False. 6. AUTOSTART is displayed above the N2 display during the engine start sequence. True False. 7. Monitoring oil pressure increase is unnecessary during the engine start sequence. True False. 8. Fuel flow should be monitored during the engine start sequence. True False. 9. EGT increase and maximum should be monitored during the engine start sequence. True False. 10. N1 and N3 increase should not be monitored during the engine start sequence. True False. The ignition system for each engine contains these components: Exciter box, High tension ignition lead, and ______. Ignition coil Spark plug Igniter plug Starter motor. Each ignition lead supplies the electrical output from the related ignition exciter to its ______. ignition coil spark plug igniter plug starter motor. The electrical output from the ignition exciter causes sparks at the tip of the related igniter plug, resulting in the ignition of the fuel and air mixture in the ______. fuel manifold compressor combustion section turbine. Electrical power from thermal circuit breakers on the P300 and P400 panels provide the power to the ignition system when the fuel control switch is set to ______. ON OFF RUN START. The EEC sends a signal for a high-energy output voltage from the exciter when necessary. One of the two ignition systems operates at each ground start to prevent one plug from becoming more worn than the other and to ensure no ______. engine flooding fuel leakage system faults performance issues. The EEC uses igniter 1 and 2 alternately during ground starts and both igniters for in-flight starts or auto-relight, ensuring ______. balanced wear optimal performance redundancy cost-effectiveness. The engine exhaust system consists of four main subsystems: Turbine Exhaust (Collector/Nozzle System), Thrust Reverser (T/R) System, T/R Actuation and Control System, and ______. Exhaust Manifold System Exhaust Gas Recirculation (EGR) System Exhaust Aftertreatment System T/R Proximity Sensors. The collector/nozzle system comprises the exhaust nozzle and the ______. fan blade centerbody turbine thrust reverser. The exhaust nozzle, forming the outer contour of the exhaust system, attaches to the outer flange of the Low Pressure Turbine (LPT), providing protection to the aft pylon with a ______. heat shield fire seal thermal barrier insulation layer. The forward and aft centerbody sections, part of the primary exhaust system, attach to each other and to the LPT case, forming the inner annulus of the exhaust system to streamline the gas flow from the LPT away from the engine, thus contributing to the generation of ______. reverse thrust forward thrust engine cooling exhaust gases. The T/R system controls the direction of the fan exhaust airflow, supplementing the brakes to decelerate the airplane on the ground, and is commanded by the ______. autothrottle reverse thrust lever engine electronic controller fuel control switch. The Thrust Reverser Actuation and Control System (TRACS) includes various components such as the Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU) with Isolation Valve (IV) and Directional Control Valve (DCV), track lock, hydraulic linear actuators, synchronization mechanism, feedback units, and ______. throttle lever manual drive units fuel flow transmitter engine oil filter. The TRACS ensures proper deployment and stowage of the translating sleeves, synchronization of their operation, and enables both ______ and ______ for maintenance purposes. hydraulic drive, manual drive electrical drive, hydraulic drive manual drive, electrical drive pneumatic drive, manual drive. Electrical power for the left thrust reverser functions is supplied from the ______ panel, while the right thrust reverser functions receive power from the ______ panel. P100, P200 P200, P300 P300, P400 P400, P500. The CCS controls the T/R translation based on inputs from the reverse thrust lever switch, ensuring proper deployment and stowage of the thrust reverser, thus contributing to aircraft ______. fuel efficiency aerodynamic performance structural integrity safety. The fuel storage system includes __ and the fuel vent system. fuel tanks fuel lines fuel pumps fuel injectors. The __ provide access to the fuel tanks for inspection and maintenance. tank end ribs tank access panels vent channels baffle ribs. __ valves are used to remove fuel and water from the fuel tanks. Fuel vent float Fuel sump drain Surge tank pressure relief Baffle rib check. The __ prevent large pressure differences between the tanks and the external air pressure. fuel vent crossflow check valves surge tank pressure relief valves baffle rib check valves vent tubes. __ are used in the vent scoops to ensure a flame does not enter the fuel tanks through the vent system. Flame arrestors Fuel sump drain valves Check valves Vent tubes. Each of the main tanks has a capacity of __ gallons (21,085 L). 4000 5570 6000 7500. __ valves on the vent tubes open to let the tank vent or close to prevent fuel in the vent tubes. Surge tank drain check Fuel vent float Baffle rib check Fuel sump drain. The __ decrease the flow of vent air into the vent system. fuel vent crossflow check valves baffle rib check valves vent tubes surge tank pressure relief valves. __ in the surge tanks provide a small positive pressure to the tanks when the airplane has forward airspeed. Vent scoops Check valves Vent tubes Fuel sump drain valves. The pressure refueling system includes the __. Refueling Control Panel (RCP) Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS) Engine Fuel Feed System (EFFS) Refuel door proximity sensor. The __ gives a signal that the RCP door is open. Refuel adapter Refuel valve body Refuel valve actuator Refuel door proximity sensor. The __ controls the pressure refueling system. Fuel Control Panel (FCP) Refueling Control Panel (RCP) Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS) Engine Fuel Feed System (EFFS). The __ give a mechanical connection between the refuel valve actuators and the refuel valve body and driveshaft. Refuel valve adapters Refuel adapters Refuel door proximity sensors Refuel/jettison manifold components. The refuel/jettison manifold drain valves are used to __. Let the fuel drain from the manifold to the center tank Transfer fuel from one tank to another Control the refuel valve actuators Provide pressure to the refuel valve body and driveshaft. The __ sends data to open and close the refuel valve body and driveshaft with the refuel valve actuators. RCP FQMS FCP EFFS. Fuel from the refuel/jettison manifold tubes goes to the __. Refuel valve body and driveshaft Refuel adapters Refuel valve actuators Refuel door proximity sensor. To transfer fuel from one tank to a different tank, you use the __. Refuel door proximity sensor Refueling Control Panel (RCP) and the Fuel Control Panel (FCP) Refuel adapters and refuel valve actuators Surge tank and center tank. The engine fuel shutoff valves close when the __. Fuel control switch is set to RUN Fuel control switch is set to CUTOFF Engine fire control switch is set to NORMAL Engine start switch is set to START. The __ open the engine fuel shutoff valves. Fuel control switch set to RUN Engine fire control switch set to NORMAL Engine start switch set to START and released to NORM, when on the ground All of the above. When the fire handle is set to the FIRE position, the __. Fuel control switch is set to RUN Engine fuel shutoff valve closes Engine start switch is set to START Refuel/jettison manifold opens. APU fuel feed is not controlled by the APU Controller (APUC) and the Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS) function. True False. The left aft boost pump comes on regardless of the APU switch position when AC power is available. True False. The APU DC pump can supply fuel to both the left and right engines. True False. How does the NGS air conditioning system increase pressure and regulate temperature of the cabin air supply? By increasing pressure/temperature using MDC By regulating temperature of MDC discharge air with HX and ram air control valve By utilizing HX to get air through ground cooling valve on ground By allowing ram air flow from right air conditioning ram air duct through ram duct check valve. What is the purpose of the software monitoring the NEA generated by the ASM for oxygen content? To detect a degraded ASM condition To control flow control valve position when NGS operates in O2 concentration mode To modulate position of ram air control valve to ensure correct temperature for ASM efficiency To regulate the flow rate of NEA to fuel tanks. 2. NGS components are controlled by RPDUs and RDCs. True False. 3. The ground cooling valve closes at startup. True False. 4. The Motor cooling SOV opens after MDC starts. True False. How is the fire protection system categorized? Fire detection and fire extinguishing Smoke detection and fire extinguishing Fire detection and smoke extinguishing Smoke detection and smoke extinguishing. Which areas does the fire detection system monitor for smoke, overheat, or fire conditions? Engines, APU, Cargo Compartments, MLG, Lavatories, Crew Rests Cockpit, Wings, Fuselage, Galley Fuel Tanks, Wingtips, Cabin, Cargo doors Engines, APU, Wings, Cargo Compartments. How many fire detection channels does each engine have? One Two Three Four. What sends signals to the main engine data concentrator (MEDC)? Remote data concentrator (RDC) Fire detector elements Flight control system Engine control module. How does overheat detection differ from fire detection in terms of cockpit indications? Master caution shows instead of master warning Master warning shows instead of master caution Caution aural warning bell instead of fire bell Caution aural warning bell instead of fire bell. What does the cargo fire detection system (CFDS) provide capability for within each lower cargo compartment? Fire detection, Overheat detection Smoke detection, Fire detection Overheat detection, Smoke suppression Fire suppression, Overheat detection. What indication occurs when the pressure in the APU fire extinguishing bottle is low? EICAS messages and indicator lights Master caution light Master warning light Fire bell aural warning. Where is the remote APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch located? On the P40 panel on the NLG strut On the flight deck On the cargo fire/engine control panel On the APU compartment. What action is required to arm the APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE switch? Pushing in the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch Pulling the fire switch out Turning the fire switch left or right Pushing the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch. How is the APU fire extinguishing bottle discharged manually? By turning the fire switch left or right By pressing the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch By pulling the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch By pushing the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch. Where is the APU compartment located in the aircraft? In the aft fuselage In the nose cone In the wings In the main cabin. What are the APU flight deck controls? APU selector, APU maintenance switch, APU fire switch Engine start switch, Engine shutdown switch, APU fire switch APU start button, APU stop button, APU reset button Engine control switch, Engine reset switch, APU fire switch. What components make up the APU oil indicating system? APU oil level sensor APU oil temperature sensor APU oil level sight glass Gearbox sump. Which interface does the APU oil level sensor communicate with? Gearbox sump APU controller (APUC) APU oil level sight glass APU oil temperature sensor. What is the function of the oil temperature sensor in the APU oil indicating system? It measures the level of the oil It shows the oil level It senses the temperature of the oil It provides an indication of the oil quantity to maintenance personnel. What is the function of the duplex fuel nozzles in the APU fuel system? To supply fuel for APU start and continued operation To control the fuel flow from the fuel module To filter the fuel before it enters the fuel module To provide electrical power to the APU fuel system. Which component of the fuel system controls the operation of the fuel pump? Fuel pump motor controller DC electric motor Fuel filter Primary and secondary fuel solenoid valves. Backup power is from the ________ or FCE battery. APU HBB EFB FCC. If the mode master AFF finds a fault and causes the A/P to disengage, the MCP selects a different ________. AFF FCM MCP PFD. he A/P disengage logic is in the ________ in the FCEs. MCP AFF PFD ND. If the three AFF partitions fail, the autopilot will ________. Engage Remain engaged Disconnect Switch to manual. In FD mode, the AFF sends command data to the ________. FMF DCAF IRS CDU. The BDA servo drive sends the commands to the ________. ACEs BDAs RVDTs PFCF. The AFDS operates in two modes: autopilot and ________. Manual FD LNAV VNAV. In autopilot mode, the AFF sends commands to the ________. PFCF DCAF CDU IRS. The PFCF sends autopilot commands to the BDA servo drive in the ________ ACE. C1 C2 C3 C4. At 80 knots during takeoff, the autothrottle mode changes to ________. OFF ARM HOLD THR REF. To start the takeoff mode, one of the two ________ switches on the thrust levers should be pushed. A/P TO/GA FD LNAV. The takeoff pitch commands include pitch attitude, combination of airspeed and pitch attitude, and target ________. Altitude Speed Thrust Roll. Mode master makes the selection of automatic mode transitions, while the non-master FCE A/P channels operate in the same modes as the ________. FD PFCF AFF DCAF. A/P disengage logic is located in the ________ in the FCEs. PFD FMC AFF IRS. The AFF calculates AFF pitch, roll, and ________ commands. Thrust Speed Yaw Altitude. The MCP gets 28V DC from which sources? Capt inst bus through RPDU 71 F/O inst bus through RPDU 72 Both None. The heading/track commands are calculated for heading select, heading hold, track select, and ________. Track hold Approach hold LNAV hold Navigation hold. The AFF uses localizer deviation, localizer deviation rate, and ILS course inputs to calculate ________ commands. Roll Pitch Thrust Altitude. During runway alignment, the AFF uses ________ course and airplane heading inputs to calculate commands. GPS IRS ILS FMF. The yaw command for the rollout mode is calculated using localizer deviation, localizer deviation rate, and ________ position. Elevator Rudder Aileron Flap. 8. The primary components of the pneumatic system are installed in the cockpit. True False. 9. The Engine BLEED PRV regulates temperature in the pneumatic system. True False. 10. Both Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) exchange data via a CAN bus for wing double loop detection. True False. How is the engine air bleed pressure pneumatically regulated in the Airbus A320 family of aircraft? High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV) Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI) Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV) Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs). When does the HP VLV pneumatically regulate the air supply, and within what pressure range does it operate? At low engine speed, 8 to 36 psi At high engine speed, 44 to 85 psi At idle, 110 to 240 psi At high altitude, 15,000 ft to 35,000 ft. What is the primary function of the IP check valve, and when does it come into play? Protects the IP stage from reverse flow when HP VLV is open Regulates the pressure downstream from the PRV Monitors engine fire at 450°C Controls bleed pressure at high altitude. Describe the two operating modes of the PRV control solenoid and the conditions under which each is used. Pneumatic mode for reverse flow protection, electrical mode for ENGine BLEED P/B OFF Pneumatic mode for overpressure, electrical mode for engine fire Pneumatic mode for engine fire, electrical mode for altitude > 15,000 ft Pneumatic mode for delta pressure, electrical mode for precooler temperature. How does the Overpressure Valve (OPV) operate, and at what pressure levels does it open and close? Normally open, closes pneumatically at 75 psi, fully closed at 85 psi Normally closed, opens pneumatically at 75 psi, fully open at 85 psi Normally open, closes pneumatically at 44 psi, fully closed at 36 psi Normally closed, opens pneumatically at 44 psi, fully open at 36 psi. What does the transducer connected to both BMCs measure, and where is this pressure indicated? Regulated pressure downstream from the PRV, indicated on ECAM Transferred pressure downstream from the HPV, indicated on MCDU Fan airflow to the precooler, indicated on ECAM Bleed air temperature, indicated on ECAM. What does the transducer connected to the related BMC measure, and which components does this pressure monitor? Transferred pressure downstream from the HP Valve (HPV), monitors PRV and HPV Fan airflow to the precooler, monitors precooler temperature Regulated temperature downstream from the precooler, monitors system Heat exchanger outlet temperature, monitors precooler. What is the function of the Fan Air Valve (FAV), and how is it controlled? Pneumatically regulates fan airflow for bleed air temperature, controlled by FAV control thermostat (CTL THERMST) Electrically regulates fan airflow for engine bleed pressure, controlled by ECAM Pneumatically regulates precooler temperature, controlled by heat exchanger sensor Electrically regulates precooler airflow, controlled by BMC. What does the heat exchanger outlet temperature sensor measure, and what message is generated if it reaches a certain temperature? Regulated temperature downstream from the precooler, generates a class 2 maintenance message "AIR BLEED" on ECAM Engine fire temperature, generates a class 1 maintenance message "ENGINE FIRE" on ECAM Fan airflow temperature, generates an alert on MCDU PRV closure temperature, generates a class 3 maintenance message on ECAM. The engine air bleed pressure is pneumatically regulated by the __________ when air is supplied by the HP stage, or by the __________ when the air is supplied by the Intermediate Pressure (IP) stage. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV) Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI) Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV) Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs. What controls the APU Bleed Control Valve for the APIC APU? Electrically and pneumatically Manually by the crew Electronically by the BMC Automatically by air pressure. In the absence of fuel pressure or electrical power, what happens to the APU Bleed Control Valve for the APIC APU? It remains in its last position It springs open automatically It springs closed automatically It moves to the cross-bleed position. What controls the primary motor of the X-BLEED valve? The BMC Manual operation Electrical DC motors Engine bleed air. In which position is the X-BLEED selector used to confirm automatic closure during bleed leak detection? OPEN AUTO SHUT OFF. Which bleed system is supplied when the X-BLEED selector is in the OPEN position for ground air supply? Both LH and RH systems Only the RH system Only the LH system Neither LH nor RH system. When can the ground air supply be used for Engine 2 start? OPEN position AUTO mode SHUT position OFF mode. Which areas have a double loop for monitoring in the leak detection system? RH wing, pack 2 LH and RH pylons LH wing, pack 1, and mid fuselage APU duct AFT fuselage APU duct. What does each loop in the leak detection system consist of? Sensing elements connected in series Isolated sensors Redundant sensors Multiple loops. The crossbleed (X-BLEED) valve is an electrically controlled shut-off valve operated by two electrical DC motors. The primary motor is used for AUTOmatic mode, and the secondary motor is used for ____________ operation. electrical hydraulic manual pneumatic. The X-BLEED selector on the overhead panel controls the position of the valve. In the OPEN position, it is used for various purposes, including left and right pack supply using single engine bleed and Engine crossbleed start using opposite engine bleed. In the SHUT position, it is used to confirm automatic closure during ____________. bleed leak detection engine start system shutdown emergency procedures. A ground cart may supply the pneumatic system, and the supply duct is located on the left-hand side of the cross bleed valve. Only the LH bleed system is supplied when the X-BLEED selector is in the ____________ position for ground air supply. OFF AUTO OPEN SHUT.

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