engine test cfm

The CFM56-5B engine is a single-rotor, fixed stator, low-bypassratio turbo-fan power plant. true. false.

The power plant installation includes the engine, the engine inlet, the exhaust, and the fan cowls only. true. false.

The reverse thrust is controlled manually by the flight crew without any involvement of the ECU. true. false.

The thrust reverser uses 4 hydraulically operated pivoting blocker doors to redirect the engine fan airflow. true. false.

The FADEC alternator is located on the LH side of the gearbox. true. false.

The air starter is located on the LH side of the gearbox rear face. true. false.

The primary components of the fuel system are installed on the RH side of the fan compartment. true. false.

The lubrication unit is operated by the engine itself. true. false.

The HCU is installed on the rear part of the RH 'C' duct. true. false.

The drain system consists of a drain collector assembly, which is attached to the front side of the accessory gearbox. true. false.

A pressure valve, which is part of the manifold, opens when the A/C airspeed reaches 250 kts. true. false.

The drain mast is designed to break easily above the cowl exterior surface to prevent damage to the engine gearbox. true. false.

What is the primary function of the programming plug on the Electronic Control Unit (ECU) of the CFM56-5B engine?. To change the engine type. To adjust the fuel consumption. To change the available thrust. To monitor the engine temperature.

How is the engine attached to the pylon?. By the exhaust system. By forward and aft mounts. By the fan cowls. By the reverser assemblies.

Who manually selects the reverse thrust?. The ECU. The Engine Interface Unit (EIU). The flight crew. The Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU).

What is the primary role of the Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU) in the thrust reverser system?. To control the ECU. To supply hydraulic power to operate the thrust reverser. To control the throttle control levers. To monitor the engine's thrust.

Where is the ECU located?. On the LH side of the fan case. On the gearbox. On the RH side of the fan case. Inside the engine core.

Where is the air starter located?. On the LH side of the gearbox rear face. On the RH side of the engine core. On the RH side of the gearbox rear face. Inside the engine core.

Which component of the fuel system is operated by the gearbox?. The Hydro-Mechanical Unit (HMU). The filter. The fuel pump. The fuel nozzle.

Where is the oil tank located?. On the RH side of the fan case. On the LH side of the fan case. Inside the engine core. On the gearbox.

Where is the hydraulic shut-off valve located?. On the rear part of the pylon. On the forward part of the pylon. On the forward part of the RH 'C' duct. Inside the engine core.

What is the primary function of the drain system?. To supply fuel to the engine. To cool the engine. To collect and drain waste fluids and vapors from engine systems and accessories. To provide air to the engine.

At what airspeed does the pressure valve open?. 200 kts. 250 kts. 150 kts. 300 kts.

Why is the drain mast frangible below the cowl exterior surface?. To increase the engine's efficiency. To prevent damage to the engine gearbox. To improve the engine's aesthetics. To reduce the engine's weight.

What is the primary purpose of the engine fuel system?. To cool the engine. To supply Fuel Flow (FF) into the combustion chamber. To control the engine speed. To lubricate the engine parts.

Which component heats the fuel coming from the A/C tanks?. The LP valve. The main oil/fuel heat exchanger. The Hydromechanical Unit (HMU). The High Pressure (HP) stage of the fuel pump.

Where does the fuel flow after passing through the Fuel Metering Valve (FMV)?. Directly to the nozzles. Through the fuel nozzle filter. Through the fuel flow transmitter. Both through the fuel flow transmitter and then through a fuel nozzle filter.

At what percentage does the overspeed governor system limit the core engine speed (N2)?. 1. 1,06. 1,1. 0,95.

When the MASTER lever is set to OFF, what happens to the HPSOV shut-off solenoid?. It is de-energized. It is energized. It remains in a neutral state. It sends a signal to the EIU.

Which command has priority over the ECU command for the closure of the HP fuel SOV?. The rotary selector. The MASTER lever. The ECU. The FMV.

What happens when there's a disagreement between control and position of the HP fuel SOV?. The engine FAULT light comes on. An ECAM warning is triggered. Both the engine FAULT light comes on and an ECAM warning is triggered. The ECU resets itself.

What controls the FMV to obtain the desired N1?. The thrust lever. The Auto Thrust System. Both the thrust lever or the Auto Thrust System. The HMU.

What is used to cool the IDG oil?. The fuel from the HMU. The fuel bypassed from the HMU and returned from servos. The servo fuel. The fuel from the LP.

Why does the ECU control the FRV to allow some hot fuel to return to the A/C tanks?. If the engine oil gets too cold. If the engine oil gets too hot. To increase the fuel pressure. To cool the engine.

What happens to the LP and HP fuel shut-off valves during a normal shutdown?. They are opened. They remain in a neutral state. They are closed. They are partially opened.

What drives the LP SOV to the closed position when the ENGine MASTER control switch is set to OFF?. The ECU. Both electrical motors. The HMU. The EIU.

What happens to the LP SOV when the ENGine FIRE P/B is released out?. It is driven to the open position. It remains in a neutral state. Both electrical motors drive it to the closed position. It sends a signal to the EIU.

What changes the available thrust in the CFM56-5B engine?. The power plant installation. The pylon. The programming plug on the Electronic Control Unit (ECU). The fan cowls.

What does the thrust reverser use to redirect the engine fan airflow?. 2 hydraulically operated pivoting blocker doors. 4 hydraulically operated pivoting blocker doors. 6 hydraulically operated pivoting blocker doors. 8 hydraulically operated pivoting blocker doors.

Which system controls the turbine clearance?. The compressor airflow control system. The transient bleed valve system. The turbine clearance control system. The FADEC system.

The engine fuel system is designed only to supply Fuel Flow (FF) into the combustion chamber. true. false.

The fuel coming from the A/C tanks is driven by the HP stage of the fuel pump. true. false.

The fuel from the fuel pump goes directly to the nozzles without passing through any filter. true. false.

The Fuel Metering Valve (FMV) is not included in the HMU. true. false.

The overspeed governor system limits the core engine speed (N2) to a maximum of 100%. true. false.

The Delta P valve decreases fuel flow to the FMV by bypassing less fuel. true. false.

The HP fuel SOV can only be controlled from the cockpit. true. false.

The MASTER lever command does not have priority over the ECU command. true. false.

The HP fuel SOV is monitored by three microswitches. true. false.

In case of disagreement between control and position, the engine FAULT light never comes on. true. false.

The FMV is controlled by the Engine Interface Unit (EIU). true. false.

Filtered fuel is delivered from a self-cleaning wash filter to the servo valves of the HMU. true. false.

The fuel bypassed from the HMU is used to heat the IDG oil. true. false.

The fuel returns to the fuel pump inter-stage and is discarded. true. false.

The FRV is mechanically controlled by the ECU. true. false.

The ECU uses the Engine Oil Temperature as its reference to control the FRV. true. false.

When the Engine Master Switch is set to 'OFF', only the LP fuel shut-off valve is closed. true. false.

The FRV remains open during a normal shutdown. true. false.

The LP SOV operation is only controlled from the engine fire panel. true. false.

When the ENGine MASTER control switch is set to OFF, one electrical motor drives the LP SOV to the closed position. true. false.

The FADEC system of each engine consists of a single channel Electronic Control Unit (ECU). true. false.

The ECU is located on the engine fan case left hand side. true. false.

The FADEC system only performs engine control functions. true. false.

The FADEC system does not control the thrust reverser. true. false.

Each ECU is powered by a three-phase permanent magnet alternator when the engine N2 > 50%. true. false.

The FADEC Control Alternator provides power to only one ECU channel. true. false.

The FADEC system only manages the engine thrust. true. false.

The ECU interfaces with the other A/C systems through the Engine Interface Unit (EIU) only. true. false.

Each EIU is located on the engine. true. false.

There are two EIUs for each engine. true. false.

The FADEC provides manual engine thrust control only. true. false.

The FADEC provides three idle mode selections. true. false.

The FADEC does not provide overspeed protection for N1. true. false.

The FADEC only monitors the EGT. true. false.

The Electronic Control Unit (ECU) is supplied from the aircraft electrical power only when the engine is shut down. true. false.

The Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) supplies the ECU when the engine is running and N2>50%. true. false.

The ENGine FADEC GrouND PoWeR P/B on the MAINTenance panel (50VU) restricts FADEC power supply on the ground. true. false.

The FADEC is not repowered when the engine start selector is selected to CRANK. true. false.

The ECU is supplied from the aircraft electrical power when N2<60%. true. false.

The Control Alternator does not supply the ECU when the engine is running above 58% of N2. tre. false.

The FADEC is automatically de-powered in the air, through the EIU, after engine shutdown. true. false.

Releasing the ENGine FIRE P/B out does not affect the ECU power. true. false.

Where is the ECU of the FADEC system located?. On the engine fan case left hand side. On the engine fan case left hand side. On the engine fan case right hand side. On the aircraft's tail.

What does the FADEC system consist of?. A single channel Electronic Control Unit (ECU). A dual channel Electronic Control Unit (ECU) without peripherals. A dual channel Electronic Control Unit (ECU) with its associated peripherals. Only its associated peripherals.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the FADEC system?. Power management control. Variable Stator Vanes (VSVs) control. Fuel tank monitoring. Transient Bleed Valve (TBV) control.

What does the FADEC system use to control thrust?. Only the thrust lever. Only the Auto Thrust System. Both the thrust lever and the Auto Thrust System. Neither the thrust lever nor the Auto Thrust System.

When does the FADEC Control Alternator provide power to both ECU channels?. When the engine N2 > 60%. When the engine N2 > 58%. When the engine N2 < 58%. Always, regardless of engine N2.

What happens to the ECU power supply when the engine N2 is below 58%?. It is supplied by the aircraft's battery. It is supplied by the aircraft's 28 VDC through the Engine Interface Unit (EIU). It is supplied by the Control Alternator. It is not supplied power.

What does the FADEC system manage?. Only the engine thrust. Only the performance optimization. Both the engine thrust and performance optimization. Neither the engine thrust nor the performance optimization.

Where does the ECU interface with the other A/C systems?. Through the Engine Interface Unit (EIU). Directly with the A/C systems. Through the Control Alternator. Through the FADEC Ground Power Panel.

Where is each EIU located?. On the engine. In the cockpit. In the avionics bay. On the aircraft's tail.

How many EIUs are there for each engine?. Two. Three. One. Four.

What does the FADEC provide in terms of power management?. Only automatic engine thrust control. Only thrust parameter limit computation. Both automatic engine thrust control and thrust parameter limit computation. Neither automatic engine thrust control nor thrust parameter limit computation.

When the aircraft is on ground and the slats are extended, what happens to the engine idle?. It goes to approach idle. It stays at minimum idle. It shuts down. It goes to maximum idle.

When is the ECU supplied from the aircraft electrical power?. When the engine is shut down. When N2<60%. When N2<58%. Always, regardless of engine N2.

What happens to the ECU power supply when the engine is running and N2 is above 58%?. It is supplied by the Control Alternator. It is supplied by the aircraft's battery. It is not supplied power. It is supplied by the aircraft's 28 VDC.

What can the ECU do in automatic mode up to 50% N2 during the start sequence?. Abort the start sequence in case of an incident. Increase the N2 beyond 50%. Override manual mode. None of the above.

Which component is fitted with a manual override handle for manual operation in case of electrical SOV failure?. Ignition exciter. Air starter. Starter Shut-Off Valve (SOV). Spark igniter.

What is the aircraft configuration for an automatic start sequence?. APU running and APU BLEED off, FADEC 1 and 2 unpowered. APU off and APU BLEED on, FADEC 1 and 2 powered. APU running and APU BLEED on, FADEC 1 and 2 unpowered. APU running and APU BLEED on, FADEC 1 and 2 powered.

At what percentage of N2 does the ECU provide ignition during an automatic start?. 10%. 16%. 22%. 30%.

When is the ENGINE page called automatically during a manual start?. When IGNition START is deselected. When IGNition START is selected. When the ENGine MANual START P/B is switched ON. When the MASTER control switch is set to OFF.

At what percentage of N2, with the MASTER control switch at ON, are dual ignition and fuel flow initiated during a manual start?. 10%. 20%. 30%. 40%.

When is continuous ignition manually selected?. When the APU is off. When IGNition START is reselected with an engine running. When the aircraft is on the ground. When the ECU detects a malfunction.

What does the FADEC do when it detects an ignition delay during start?. It shuts down the engine. It provides continuous relight. It aborts the start sequence. It switches to manual mode.

What is the aircraft configuration for engine CRANK modes?. APU off and APU BLEED off, FADEC 1 and 2 unpowered. APU running and APU BLEED on, FADEC 1 and 2 powered. APU running and APU BLEED off, FADEC 1 and 2 unpowered. APU off and APU BLEED on, FADEC 1 and 2 unpowered.

What happens when CRANK is selected on the ground?. The ENGINE page disappears from the ECAM. The ECU initiates a shutdown sequence. The ECU initiates a motoring sequence after action on the MANual START P/B. The ECU cuts off the ignition.

For how long should you motor the engine with the MASTER CONTROL SWITCH in the ON position during a wet crank?. 5 seconds. 15 seconds. 30 seconds. 60 seconds.

What should you do after a wet crank of 15 seconds maximum?. Continue to dry crank the engine for 30 seconds. Set the selector back to MODE NORMal position immediately. Continue to dry crank the engine for 60 seconds. Release the MANual START P/B switch immediately.

The ECU can abort the start sequence in automatic mode up to 50% N2 in case of incidents like a hot start or engine stall. true. false.

The system does not include two ignition exciters. true. false.

The APU must be running and APU BLEED must be on for the start sequence in automatic mode. true. false.

The ECU provides ignition when N2 reaches 10%. true. false.

The ENGINE page is called automatically when the ENGine MANual START P/B is switched ON. true. false.

Dual ignition and fuel flow are initiated at 20% of N2 during a manual start. true. false.

Continuous ignition can be manually selected by deselecting IGNition START with an engine running. true. false.

The FADEC provides continuous relight when an engine flame-out is detected. true. false.

When CRANK is selected on the ground, the ENGINE page disappears from the ECAM. true. false.

Ignition is inhibited when CRANK is selected. true. false.

For a wet crank, the MASTER control switch is normally set to ON between 10 and 15% of N2. true. false.

After a wet crank of 15 seconds maximum, the engine should be dry cranked for 30 seconds. true. false.

The engine air system is responsible for turbine clearance control, transient bleed, and cooling. true. false.

The engine air system does not cover compressor airflow control. true. false.

The Variable Bleed Valve (VBV) system and the Variable Stator Vane (VSV) system are both operated by electricity. true. false.

The VBV system uses 12 valves to control airflow from the fan to the High Pressure Compressor (HPC). true. false.

The Variable Bleed Valve (VBV) system is installed outside the fan frame mid-box structure. true. false.

The ECU calculates the VBV position and the HMU provides the necessary fuel pressure to drive a fuel gear motor. true. false.

The Variable Stator Vane (VSV) system is located at the rear of the HP compressor. true. false.

The VSV system includes two hydraulic actuators and two feedback sensors. true. false.

The clearance between the blade tips and the casings is passively controlled. true. false.

The High Pressure Turbine Active Clearance Control (HPTACC) system uses stage 4 and stage 9 HPC air. true. false.

The ECU is cooled using a liquid cooling system. true. false.

A flush inlet scoop on the inlet cowl outer barrel supplies ram air to the ECU. true. false.

The fan case and accessories are cooled by air entering one flush inlet scoop on the inlet cowl outer barrel. true. false.

The core compartment is cooled by fan air entering flush inlets located at the rear section of the core cowl. true. false.

The engine provides sources to feed only the Active Clearance Control subsystems. true. false.

The engine bleed system is supplied by the 5th and 9th compressor stages. true. false.

The Transient Bleed Valve (TBV) system improves the HPC stall margin only during engine starting. true. false.

The TBV system consists of the TBV, the 9th stage air IN and OUT pipes, and a dual channel LVDT. true. false.

The LPTCC system uses fan discharge air to cool the LPT case during engine operation. true. false.

The LPTCC system is an open loop system. true. false.

The HPTACC system optimizes HPT efficiency through passive clearance control between the turbine rotor and shroud. true. false.

The HPTACC valve is located on the engine core section. true. false.

Engine CRANK modes include dry CRANK and wet CRANK. true. false.

For dry crank, the C/B 1KC1(2) must be closed. true. false.

How is the core compartment cooled and ventilated?. By fan air entering flush inlets located at the forward section of the core cowl. By using engine oil. By using coolant fluid. By using air from the fan compartment.

After a wet crank of 15 seconds maximum, the fuel is cut off and the starter SOV closes following the reset of the ECU. true. false.

Continuous ignition is manually selected or automatically controlled by the FADEC. true. false.

The automatic selection for continuous relight is provided by the FADEC only when engine flame-out is detected. true. false.

What is the primary purpose of the Transient Bleed Valve (TBV) system?. To improve the HPC stall margin during transient and start conditions. To cool the engine during high-speed operations. To regulate airflow from the fan to the HPC. To provide continuous ignition during engine operation.

Where is the TBV located on the HPC case?. Between the 5 and 6 o'clock positions. At the top of the HPC case. Between the 7 and 8 o'clock positions. At the bottom of the HPC case.

What is the primary function of the LPTCC system?. To control the LPT rotor to stator clearances. To provide continuous ignition to the engine. To cool the engine during high-speed operations. To regulate airflow from the fan to the HPC.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the LPTCC system?. A dual RVDT sensor. A butterfly valve. A feedback rod. A manifold.

What does the HPTACC system use to heat or cool the High Pressure Turbine (HPT) shroud support structure?. Stage 4 and stage 9 HPC air. Fan air. Stage 1 and stage 2 HPC air. Engine oil.

Which sensor does the ECU use to monitor the shroud support structure temperature?. T case sensor. EGT sensor. N2 sensor. RVDT sensor.

Which of the following is NOT a mode of Engine CRANK?. Dry CRANK. Wet CRANK. Cold CRANK. Hot CRANK.

What is the primary purpose of the Engine CRANK mode?. To start the engine. To cool the engine. To regulate airflow in the engine. To provide continuous ignition to the engine.

At what percentage of N2 is the MASTER control switch normally set to ON during a wet crank?. Between 10% and 15%. Between 15% and 20%. Between 20% and 25%. Between 25% and 30%.

What should be done after a wet crank of 15 seconds maximum?. The MASTER control switch is set to the OFF position, and the starter SOV closes following the reset of the ECU. The engine should be shut down immediately. The MASTER control switch should be kept in the ON position for another 15 seconds. The ECU should be reset.

When is continuous ignition manually selected or automatically controlled by the FADEC?. Only during engine start. Only during high-speed operations. Only during engine shutdown. With an engine running.

Which of the following is NOT a condition for the automatic selection of continuous relight provided by the FADEC?. Engine flame-out detected. Ignition delay sensed during start. Engine reaches maximum speed. In-flight restart.

How is the fan case and its accessories cooled?. By air entering two flush inlet scoops located on the inlet cowl outer barrel. By using engine oil. By using coolant fluid. By using fan air from the core compartment.

Where does the air exit after cooling the fan compartment?. Through an outlet port located in the lower aft section of the right-hand fan cowl door. Through the engine exhaust. Through the core compartment. Through the engine intake.

Where does the air exit after cooling the core compartment?. Through the annular vent located at the interface between the core cowl and the primary nozzle. Through the engine exhaust. Through the fan compartment. Through the engine intake.

What does the engine provide sources for?. To feed the Active Clearance Control subsystems and to supply the inlet cowl anti-ice and the engine bleed system. To cool the engine. To provide continuous ignition to the engine. To regulate airflow in the engine.

From which compressor stages does the engine provide sources for the inlet cowl anti-ice and the engine bleed system?. 1st and 3rd compressor stages. 5th and 9th compressor stages. 2nd and 4th compressor stages. 6th and 8th compressor stages.

The Rolls-Royce RB-211Trent 772 series engine powers the A330 aircraft and produces __________ pounds of Thrust. 61. 65. 69. 71.

How many hinges attach each thrust reverser half (C-duct) to the aircraft pylon?. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Which component helps to form a smooth bypass duct from the LP compressor (fan) into the Common Nozzle Assembly (CNA)?. Thrust reverser assembly. Inlet cowl. Nacelle access doors. Fan cowl doors.

How is each thrust reverser half secured open once fully extended?. Locking mechanisms. Hold open rods. Actuators. Hinges.

At what wind speed should the thrust reverser cowls not be opened?. 40 MPH (64 KMH). 46 MPH (73 KMH). 52 MPH (84 KMH). 58 MPH (93 KMH).

The Rolls-Royce RB-211Trent 772 series engine powers the A320 aircraft and produces 71,000 lbs Thrust. true. false.

The inlet cowl is composed of an inner and outer barrel, a rear bulkhead, and an intake cowl leading edge assembly. true. false.

The fan cowls can only be opened during flight operations for access to the components installed on the case and gearbox. true. false.

Each fan cowl door has only one hold open position at 55 degrees. true. false.

The left fan cowl includes access doors for the starter control valve, thrust reverser ground safety switch, and anti-ice valve. true. false.

The Common Nozzle Assembly (CNA) is interchangeable and attached directly onto the HP turbine module of the engine. true. false.

The various access doors around the engine provide access for maintenance and servicing purposes. true. false.

The C-duct opening mechanism uses hydraulic pressure to extend the actuators and keep the C-ducts open with hold open rods. true. false.

The thrust reverser cowls should not be opened if wind speed exceeds 46 MPH (73 KMH). true. false.

What type of engine powers the A330 aircraft?. Turbojet. Turbofan. Turboprop. Piston.

Which components make up the inlet cowl assembly?. Inner and outer barrel. Rear bulkhead. Intake cowl leading edge assembly. Thermal anti-ice air outlet. all.

How many hold open positions are there for each fan cowl door, and what are their respective angles?. One at 55 degrees and one at 44 degrees. One at 50 degrees and one at 45 degrees. One at 60 degrees and one at 40 degrees. One at 45 degrees and one at 35 degrees.

What features are included in the left fan cowl?. Starter control valve, thrust reverser ground safety switch access door. Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) oil fill-sight glass and reset lever access door. IDG oil cooler air outlet. Hydraulic filter contamination indicator and master Magnetic Chip Detector (MCD) access door. all.

What mechanism secures the thrust reverser halves open?. Hydraulic actuators. Spring-loaded pins. Electric motors. Pneumatic cylinders.

Which components make up each C-duct?. Front frame, Inner fixed structure, Outer fixed structure, Two pivoting doors. Front frame, Inner fixed structure. Outer fixed structure. Two pivoting doors.

What is the function of the Common Nozzle Assembly (CNA)?. To mix the core engine exhaust with the LP compressor (fan) air. To provide access to maintenance and servicing purposes. To house the hydraulic pump for the actuators. To provide additional storage space.

How does the C-duct opening mechanism work?. By using pneumatic pressure to extend the actuators and lock the hold open rods. By using hydraulic pressure to extend the actuators and lock the hold open rods. By using electric power to extend the actuators and lock the hold open rods. By using mechanical force to extend the actuators and lock the hold open rods.

The LP compressor rotor of the engine has axial dovetail slots for installing the rotor blades. true. false.

The LP compressor shaft connects to the fan disk through a spline coupling. true. false.

The IP compressor rotor is made of 6 titanium rotor disks welded together as one drum. true. false.

The HP compressor case is assembled using 3 flanged cylindrical casings bolted together. true. false.

The combustion chamber of the engine has an outer combustion liner only. true. false.

The HP turbine is a single-stage disk attached to the rear of the compressor drum with bolts. true. false.

Roller bearings are used to support the LP and IP rotor assemblies. true. false.

The front bearing chamber includes the LP and HP roller bearings. true. false.

Bearing chambers are sealed using HP and IP air and are isolated from other engine parts by labyrinth seals. true. false.

The LP compressor rotor has ___ wide-chord type blades. 24. 26. 28. 30.

The LP turbine has ___ disks bolted together to make a drum. Two. Three. Four. Five.

The LP compressor shaft connects the fan disk through a ___ coupling. Spline. Curvic. Taper. Firtree.

The IP compressor rotor is made of ___ titanium rotor disks welded together as one drum. 6. 7. 8. 9.

The HP compressor case is assembled using ___ flanged cylindrical casings bolted together. 2. 3. 4. 5.

The combustion chamber of the engine includes an inner and an outer combustion ___. Liner. Plate. Frame. Rod.

The HP turbine is a single-stage ___ attached to the rear of the compressor drum with bolts. Disk. Rotor. Blade. Shaft.

Roller bearings are used to support the LP and ___ rotor assemblies. HP. IP. LP. LP and IP.

The front bearing chamber includes the LP and IP ___ bearings. Roller. Thrust ball. Roller and HP. Roller and IP.

Bearing chambers are sealed using ___ air and are isolated from other engine parts by labyrinth seals. HP. IP. LP. HP and IP.

The accessory drive section transmits mechanical power from the ___ rotor to the accessory units. LP. IP. HP. LP and IP.

The external gearbox module is made of ___ alloy casting. Steel. Iron. Aluminum. Titanium.

During starting, the external gearbox module also transmits power from the air starter motor to the ___. LP compressor. HP rotor. LP turbine. IDG.

The components installed on the forward face of the external gearbox module include a pneumatic starter, EEC dedicated alternator, centrifugal breather assembly, and ___ pump. Hydraulic number 2. Fuel. Hydraulic number 1. Oil.

The drains system removes unwanted fluids from the pylon primary structure, from the area behind the core fairings, and from the ___ turbine area. LP. IP. HP. LP and IP.

The drains mast has ___ outlets for the routing of drained fluids overboard. Four. Five. Six. Seven.

The drains collector tank / ejector assembly collects excessive and unused fuel that drains from the ___ when the engine is shut down or after an engine start abort. LP fuel manifold. HP fuel manifold. Combustion chamber. Internal gearbox.

The Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) is measured at station ___ of the engine. 30. 40. 49.5. 160.

How many borescope access ports are there on the IP compressor case?. 2. 3. 4. 5.

The borescope access ports on the HP compressor case are located on the ___ side. Left. Right. Top. Bottom.

How many access ports are available to view the HP turbine?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

The front access port on the LP turbine allows viewing the ___ of the IP turbine. Leading edge. Trailing edge. Inner edge. Outer edge.

At which station of the engine is the exit from the HP compressor located?. 20. 25. 30. 40.

How many thermocouples are installed approximately around the LP1 turbine nozzle guide vanes?. 7. 9. 11. 13.

There are ___ access ports on the LP turbine case to view the LP turbine assembly. 2. 3. 5. 4.