Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

9407. An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment. A—to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. B—to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. C—to be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without further documentation from the operator or FAA with passengers on board.

9380. What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?. A—Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B—If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary. C—Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

9381. What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?. A—Notify ATC immediately. B—Squawk 7600. C—Monitor the VOR receiver.

9386. While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?. A—No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B—Advise ATC immediately. C—Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.

9387. While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required?. A—Descend below Class A airspace. B—Advise dispatch via company frequency. C—Notify ATC immediately.

8278. If a required instrument on a multi-engine airplane becomes inoperative, which document required under 14 CFR Part 121 dictates whether the flight may continue en route?. A—A Master Minimum Equipment List for the airplane. B—Original dispatch release. C—Certificate holder’s manual.

9174. Which pressure is defined as station pressure?. A—Altimeter setting. B—Actual pressure at field elevation. C—Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.

9164. What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?. A—Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B—Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C—Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.

9099. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard. A—effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. B—corrections for static pressure systems. C—corrections for instrument error.

9173. If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?. A—They are both the same, 31,000 feet. B—True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet. C—Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.

9173-1. When the temperature is -20°C at 15,000 feet indicated, you know that. A—altimeters automatically compensate for temperature variations. B—the altimeter is indicating higher than true altitude. C—the altimeter is indicating lower than true altitude.

9172. If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?. A—Lower than pressure altitude. B—Higher than pressure altitude. C—Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.

9813. Given Pressure altitude.............................................. 1,000 ft True air temperature............................................ 10°C From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is. A—1,000 feet MSL. B—650 feet MSL. C—450 feet MSL.

9163. En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?. A—585 feet. B—1,300 feet. C—Sea level.

9080. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?. A—Increase in indicated airspeed.. B—Decrease in indicated airspeed. C—Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.

9081. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?. A—The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B—The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with. C—No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.

9082. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?. A—No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made. B—Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. C—Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.

9222. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?. A—Indication will drop to zero. B—Indication will rise to the top of the scale. C—Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.

9934. During a constant-rate climb in IMC above the freezing level, you notice that both the airspeed and altitude are increasing. This indicates the. A—aircraft is in an unusual attitude. B—gyroscopic instruments have failed. C—pitot-static system has malfunctioned.

8206. (See Figure shown below.) You see the indication in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120-knot cruise in level flight. You decide the. A—pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug. B—standby indicator is defective because there is no red ‘X’ on the speed tape display. C—airspeed means attitude is incorrect.

9769. Automated flight decks or cockpits. A—enhance basic pilot flight skills. B—decrease the workload in terminal areas. C—often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.

9769-1. Automated flight decks or cockpits. A—improve basic flight skills. B—decrease the workload in terminal areas. C—sometimes hide errors.

9769-2. When flying an aircraft with electronic flight displays (EFDs), risk increases. A—if the pilot expects the electronics to enhance flight safety and remove pilot error. B—when the pilot expects the equipment to malfunction on occasion. C—if the pilot believes the EFD will compensate for lack of skill and knowledge.

9830. Automation has been found to. A—create higher workloads in terminal areas. B—improve crew situational awareness skills. C—substitute for a lack of aviation experience.

9853. When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits. A—greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved. B—risk is increased. C—risk is decreased.

9854. Automation in aircraft has proven. A—to present new hazards in its limitations. B—that automation is basically flawless. C—effective in preventing accidents.

9855. The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation. A—are useful in decreasing flightcrew fatigue. B—have proven to increase safety in operations. C—may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.

9857. Humans are characteristically. A—disposed to appreciate the workload imposed by automation. B—disposed to expect automation to fail often. C—poor monitors of automated systems.

8711. Reliance on automation can translate to. A—decreased cockpit workload. B—increased error awareness. C—lack of manual handling skills.

9941. Risk is increased when flightcrew members. A—fail to monitor automated navigation systems. B—allocate time to verify expected performance of automated systems. C—question the performance of each other’s duties.

9410. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining. A—who was responsible for any accident or incident. B—evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. C—possible causes of accidents or incidents.

9356. For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used?. A—Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigation by the NTSB. B—Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence. C—Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting in investigation under NTSB Part 830.

9357. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?. A—60 days. B—90 days. C—30 days.

9428. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to. A—maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. B—request ATC clearance for the deviation. C—notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

9425. TCAS I provides. A—traffic and resolution advisories. B—proximity warning. C—recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.

9426. TCAS II provides. A—traffic and resolution advisories. B—proximity warning. C—maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

9427. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and. A—maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. B—request a new ATC clearance. C—expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

9427-1. With no traffic identified by TCAS when in 10 miles of visibility, you. A—can rest assured that no other aircraft is near. B—must continually scan for other traffic. C—must scan only for hot air balloons and gliders.

8150. If an air carrier airplane’s airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only. A—when able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route. B—in VFR conditions. C—in day VFR conditions.

8151. An air carrier airplane’s airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be. A—conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route. B—carrying passengers, but not if it is “all cargo.”. C—conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather.

8148. What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?. A—Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land. B—Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. C—Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.

8154. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?. A—All turbine powered airplanes. B—Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes only. C—Large turbine-powered airplanes only.

8140. Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines. A—may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. B—may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. C—may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.

8141. Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?. A—All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B—Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. C—All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.

8143. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated. A—from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. B—from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine shutdown. C—when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.

8142. For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system,. A—a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test. B—a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased. C—a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.

9258. ATC asks you to follow the B737 3 NM ahead of you on the approach path. ATC is responsible to ensure. A—wake turbulence avoidance. B—traffic separation only. C—wind shear avoidance.

8135. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?. A—ARINC. B—Any FSS. C—Appropriate dispatch office.

9783. When should transponders be operated on the ground while taxiing?. A—Only when ATC specifically requests that the transponder to be activated. B—Any time the airport is operating under IFR. C—All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.

9783-1. If you notice ATC is unusually quiet and one of your VHF transmit lights is illuminated, then you should suspect. A—your VHF receiver is inoperative. B—your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably have a stuck microphone. C—the radio is performing a self-test function.

9784. When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should. A—operate the transponder only when the airport is under IFR or at night during your taxi. B—operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing. C—be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC request while taxing.

9019. What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?. A—A test signal, “TESTING,” is sent every 30 seconds. B—Identifier is preceded by “M” and an intermittent “OFF” flag would appear. C—The identifier would be removed.

9020. Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?. A—Coded identification T-E-S-T. B—Identifier is preceded by “M” and an intermittent “OFF” flag might appear. C—An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.

9375. What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?. A—4° on the ground and in flight. B—6° on the ground and in flight. C—6° in flight and 4° on the ground.

9405. During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356° with the TO/ FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may. A—be used if 4° is entered on a correction card and subtracted from all VOR courses. B—be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits. C—not be used during IFR flights, since the TO/ FROM should read TO.

9406. If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is. A—plus or minus 6°. B—plus 6° or minus 4°. C—plus or minus 4°.

9376. Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check?. A—Frequency, radial and facility used, and bearing error. B—Flight hours and number of days since last check, and bearing error. C—Date, place, bearing error, and signature.

9404. What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?. A—The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of hours flown since last check, and signature in the aircraft log. B—The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record. C—The date, approval or disapproval, tach reading, and signature in the aircraft log or other permanent record.

9377. Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?. A—VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and transponder within 24 calendar months. B—ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months. C—Airspeed indicator within 24 calendar months, altimeter system within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 12 calendar months.

9408. When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight?. A—At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. B—In terminal radar service areas. C—Above 12,500 feet MSL.

9023. What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?. A—0 DME miles. B—2 DME miles. C—2.3 DME miles.

9024. Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?. A—High altitudes close to the VORTAC. B—Low altitudes close to the VORTAC. C—Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

8145. When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on “victor airways,” which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?. A—VOR. B—ADF. C—VOR and DME.

8195. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?. A—VOR. B—VOR and ILS. C—VOR and DME.

8195-1. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-thetop conditions where pilotage is not used. What radio navigation equipment is required?. A—single VOR and DME installed. B—dual approved independent navigation systems. C—dual VOR, ILS’s, and DME.

8149. If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to. A—proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. B—continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation. C—proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, complete an instrument approach and land.

8147. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDs, which rule applies?. A—The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. B—The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds. C—The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and land anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.

8146. When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suitable RNAV system equipped?. A—In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. B—Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required. C—For flights at or above FL 180.

8152. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?. A—One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. B—Airborne radar. C—DME.

9352. Which publication includes information on operations in the North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA)?. A—14 CFR Part 121. B—ICAO Annex 1, Chapter 2. C—14 CFR Part 91.

9353. How may an aircraft operate in North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace with less than the minimum navigation capability required by 14 CFR Part 91, Appendix C?. A—By operating under VFR conditions only. B—By requesting a deviation from the Administrator. C—By operating only between 2400Z and 0600Z.

8196. Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the. A—Airplane Flight Manual. B—International Flight Information Manual. C—Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications.

8197. Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?. A—Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications. B—International Flight Information Manual. C—Airplane Flight Manual.

8197-1. What would authorize an air carrier to conduct a special instrument approach procedure?. A—Operations specifications. B—Compliance statement. C—Training specifications.

9811. What document(s) must be in a person’s possession for that person to act as a flight navigator?. A—Third-Class Medical Certificate and current Flight Navigator Certificate. B—Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a current Second-Class (or higher) Medical Certificate. C—Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a valid passport.

8199. A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when. A—operations are conducted IFR or VFR on Top. B—operations are conducted over water more than 50 miles from shore. C—the airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour.

8961. Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?. A—108.10 to 118.10 MHz. B—108.10 to 111.95 MHz. C—108.10 to 117.95 MHz.

8966. What functions are provided by ILS?. A—Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B—Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C—Guidance, range, and visual information.

8958. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?. A—Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B—Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C—Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

8959. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?. A—Continuous dots at the rate of six per second, identified as a high pitch tone.tone. B—Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second, identified as a low-pitched tone. C—Alternate dots and dashes identified as a lowpitched tone.

8960. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?. A—Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B—Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C—Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

8962. If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker?. A—A series of two dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light. B—Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second, and a white marker beacon light. C—A series of two dash combinations, and a white marker beacon light.

8956. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?. A—Inner marker. B—Middle compass locator. C—Outer compass locator.

9403. Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?. A—VOR/DME FIX. B—Surveillance radar. C—Compass locator.

8970. If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach is inoperative,. A—the RVR required to begin the approach in increased by 20%. B—the DA/DH is increased by 50 feet. C—the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.

8968. When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?. A—When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to fullscale right, or vice versa. B—When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C—When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to halfscale right, or vice versa.

8969. Which “rule-of-thumb” may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath?. A—5 times groundspeed in knots. B—8 times groundspeed in knots. C—10 times groundspeed in knots.

9749. The rate of descent for a 3.5º angle of descent glidescope is. A—740 ft/min at 105 knots groundspeed. B—740 ft/min at 120 knots airspeed. C—740 ft/min at 120 knots groundspeed.

8963. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are. A—DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B—DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet. C—DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.

9411. Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?. A—Radar, VOR, ADF, taxiway lead-off lights and RVR. B—RCLS and REIL. C—All of the required ground components.

9412. When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?. A—After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B—When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C—When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.

9413. In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?. A—RCLS and REIL. B—Radar, VOR, ADF, runway exit lights, and RVR. C—Each required ground component.

8967. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?. A—LDA. 6° or 12° wide, ILS – 3° to 6°. B—LDA. offset from runway plus 3°, ILS – aligned with runway. C—LDA. 15° usable off course indications, ILS – 35°.

8965. How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?. A—SDF – 6° or 12° wide, ILS – 3° to 6°. B—SDF – offset from runway plus 4°, ILS – aligned with runway. C—SDF – 15° usable off course indications, ILS – 35°.

9794. (Refer to Figure 251). You are cleared to HNL and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach. Assuming you have received the training, you. A—should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS with the radio frequency to fly this approach. B—can use the GPS and radio frequency communications to fly this approach to minimums. C—must know ahead of time whether or not your FMS/GPS has GPS and radius-to-fix capability.

9795. (Refer to Figure 253.) You are cleared to LXV in your helicopter and expect to be given the GPS RWY 16 approach. Your helicopter is equipped with an IFR certified WAAS GPS. Your approach minimums will be. A—11,360' MDA and 3/4 mi. B—11,360' MDA and 1-1/4 mi. C—11,360' MDA and 6,600 RVR, or 1-1/2 mi.

9796. (Refer to Figure 250.) You arrive at DUMBB for the RNAV (GPS) at CHA. The preflight briefer issued an unreliable advisory before takeoff. Your avionics are good and you have full GPS service. You. A—can descend to the LNAV MDA of 1,200 feet and 2,400 RVR due to the FSS advisory. B—descend to the LPV minima of 882 feet and 2,400 RVR in your CAT B aircraft. C—can descend to the LNAV MDA of 518 feet due to the FSS advisory.

9796-1. (Refer to Figure 249.) You arrive at PILOC. The preflight briefer issued you an “unreliable” advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates good signal. You. A—know you can only fly the approach down to LNAV DA minimum of 459 ft. because of the FSS advisory. B—can use the LPV minimum of 368'DA and 2400 RVR in your CAT B airplane. C—can only fly the approach down to the LNAV MDA of 560'.

8703. (Refer to Figure 251.) In the RNAV (RNP) RWL 26L at HNL profile, what does the shaded triangle below the DA indicate?. A—The visual segment below the DA is not clear of obstacles. B—The approach does not have a visual glide slope landing aid. C—The visual segment is clear.

9429. If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach, the pilot should. A—continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured. B—proceed as cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory. C—select another type of approach using another type of navigation aid.

9430. Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived. A—altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B—position is not affected. C—velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed.

9431. Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will. A—cancel the approach mode annunciation. B—require flying point-to-point on the approach to comply with the published approach procedure. C—have no affect if the approach is flown manually.

9432. If a visual descent point (VDP) is published on a GPS approach, it. A—will be coded in the waypoint sequence and identified using ATD. B—will not be included in the sequence of waypoints. C—must be included in the normal waypoints.

9722. GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by. A—the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement. B—a sovereign country or governmental unit. C—the FAA Administrator only.

9723. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. A—the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a. B—the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular GPS receiver. C—air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications.

9812. What does the absence of the shaded arrowhead after the VDP on a GPS approach indicate?. A—Obstacle obstructions between the VDP and the runway. B—A 20:1 glideslope. C—A 60:1 glideslope.

9812-1. (Refer to Figure 252.) In reviewing the RNAV/ GPS procedure RWY 4 LEW, the lack of shaded fan from the 1.6 NM point to the runway indicates. A—the visual segment below the MDA/DA is not clear of obstacles on a 34-to-1 slope. B—it does not have VASI. C—you can descend on a 20-to-1 slope and remain clear of all obstacles.

9742. A pilot employed by an air carrier and/or commercial operator may conduct GPS/WAAS instrument approaches. A—if they are not prohibited by the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual and the flight manual supplement. B—only if approved in their air carrier/commercial operator operations specifications. C—only if the pilot was evaluated on GPS/WAAS approach procedures during their most recent proficiency check.

9724. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. A—the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular GPS receiver. B—air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications. C—the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a.

9725. When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, a required alternate airport must have. A—an approved instrument approach procedure, besides GPS, that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA. B—a GPS approach that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA. C—authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics.

9727. A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver. A—over the MAWP. B—after the MAWP. C—just prior to the MAWP.

9728. If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display. A—an extension of the outbound final approach course, and the ATD will increase from the MAWP. B—an extension of the outbound final approach course. C—an extension of the inbound final approach course.

9739. “Unreliable,” as indicated in the following GPS NOTAMS: SFO 12/051 SFO WAAS LNAV/VNAV AND LPV MNM UNRELBL WEF0512182025-0512182049 means. A—within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support LPV approaches. B—satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches. C—within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support RNAV and MLS approaches.

9743. What does “UNREL” indicate in the following GPS and WAAS NOTAM: BOS WAAS LPV AND LNAV/ VNAV MNM UNREL WEF 0305231700 -0305231815?. A—Satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches to the Boston airport. B—The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, may not support LPV approaches. C—The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, will not support LNAV/ VNAV and MLS approaches.

9917. It is important for a pilot to ask for site-specific WAAS UNRELIABLE NOTAMS for your destination airport before a flight because. A—Air Traffic Control will not advise pilots of sitespecific WAAS UNRELIABLE NOTAMS. B—Air Traffic Control will confirm that you have sitespecific information from a pre-flight briefing. C—this provides for a second level of safety in the National Airspace System.

9729. If flying a published GPS departure,. A—the data base will contain all of the transition or departures from all runways. B—and if RAIM is available, manual intervention by the pilot should not be required. C—the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course deviation indicator sensitivity.

9729-1. To use a substitute means of guidance on departure procedures, pilots of aircraft with RNAV systems using DME/DME/IRU without GPS input must. A—ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet at the start point of takeoff roll. B—ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 2,000 feet of the initialization point. C—ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet of pushback.

9730. Missed approach routing in which the first track is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint requires. A—that the GPS receiver be sequenced to the missed approach portion of the procedure. B—manual intervention by the pilot, but will not be required, if RAIM is available. C—additional action by the operator to set the course.

9721. Obstacles in most areas where “Copter GPS” instrument approaches are needed, require the approach speed must be limited to. A—80 knots on initial and final segments. B—60 knots on all segments except the missed approach. C—70 knots on final and missed approach segments.

9726. The maximum speed and obstacle clearance surface (OCS) that a “Copter GPS” standard instrument departure (SID) or departure procedure (DP) is based upon is. A—70 knots and 20:1 OCS. B—70 knots and 10:1 OCS. C—60 knots and 20:1 OCS.

8905. How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?. A—Green, yellow, and white beacon light. B—White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. C—Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

8906. How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?. A—Green, yellow, and white beacon light. B—White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. C—Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

9421. Holding position signs have. A—white inscriptions on a red background. B—red inscriptions on a white background. C—yellow inscriptions on a red background.

9421-1. The most important markings on an airport are. A—ILS critical area. B—hold markings. C—taxiway identification markings.

9421-2. In the United States, there is an average of. A—2 runway incursions every week. B—3 runway incursions every day. C—4 runway incursions every month.

9421-3. Detailed investigations of runway incursions have identified. A—2 major areas of contributing factors. B—3 major areas of contributing factors. C—4 major areas of contributing factors.

9422. Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. A—yellow inscriptions on a black background. B—white inscriptions on a black background. C—black inscriptions on a yellow background.

9735. (Refer to Figure 223.) The “runway hold position” sign denotes. A—an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway. B—an entrance to runway from a taxiway. C—intersecting runways.

9735-1. (Refer to Figure 228.) What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?. A—Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. B—Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. C—Denotes intersecting runways.

9735-2. (Refer to Figure 225.) What is the purpose of No Entry sign?. A—Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering. B—Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection. C—Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

9735-3. (Refer to Figure 226.) What does the outbound destination sign identify?. A—Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. B—Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. C—Identifies direction to take-off runways.

8901. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?. A—Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights. B—Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone. C—Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution zone.

8902. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL). A—Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline. B—Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone. C—Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone.

8722. When approaching a holding position sign for a runway approach area you must. A—obtain ATC clearance prior to crossing. B—hold only when specifically instructed by ATC. C—hold only when the weather is below 800 feet and 2 miles visibility.

8903. Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems. A—Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end. B—Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end. C—Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway.

8904. Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system. A—Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the centerline of the taxiway. B—Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the edge of the taxiway. C—Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to a point on the exit.

8907. Identify the runway distance remaining markers. A—Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining. B—Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3,000 feet from the end. C—Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end.

8914. What is the purpose of REIL?. A—Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B—Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C—Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.

8915. Identify REIL. A—Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B—Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C—Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.

9731. Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A—of an intersecting taxiway only. B—of some designated point on the runway. C—only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

9732. A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: A—must result in a landing. B—does not preclude a rejected landing. C—precludes a rejected landing.

9733. In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A—the published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B—the published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C—the landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds.

9734. The airport markings, signage and lighting associated with Land and Hold Short (LAHSO) consists of: A—yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage, and in-pavement lights. B—red and white signage, yellow hold-short markings, and at some airports, in-pavement lights. C—red and black signage, in-pavement lights, and yellow hold-short markings.

9416-1. (Refer to Figure 224.) The ILS critical area markings denote. A—where you are clear of the runway. B—where you must be to start your ILS procedure. C—where you are clear of the ILS critical area.

9416-2. The ILS critical area sign indicates. A—where aircraft are prohibited. B—the edge of the ILS critical area. C—the exit boundary.

9423-1. (Refer to Figure 227.) The “taxiway ending” marker. A—identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. B—indicates taxiway does not continue. C—provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

9423. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are. A—white in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. B—yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. C—yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

8203. All runway hold markings consist of. A—2 dashed and 1 solid yellow line. B—2 dashed and 2 solid yellow lines. C—1 dashed and 1 solid yellow line.

9436. (Refer to Figure 156.) This sign, which is visible to the pilot on the runway, indicates. A—a point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by the tower. B—a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway. C—the point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.

9417. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when. A—the aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign. B—the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. C—all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.

9764. Taxiway Centerline Lead-Off Lights are color coded to warn pilots that. A—they are within the runway environment or run-up danger critical area. B—they are within the runway environment or ILS critical area. C—they are within the taxiway end environment or ILS critical area.

9785. THL is the acronym for. A—Takeoff hold lights. B—Taxi holding lights. C—Terminal holding lights.

9785-1. Takeoff hold lights (THL) are a part of the. A—automatic runway status light system. B—tower operated runway stop light system. C—ground controller operated ramp status holding light system.

9786. REL is the acronym for. A—Runway exit lights. B—Runway entrance lights. C—Ramp entry lights.

9786-1. Runway Status Lights (REL) are. A—an independent light system. B—automatically activated. C—ATC tower controlled.

9786-2. A runway status light (RWSL) system at an airport. A—relies on ASDE-X/airport surface surveillance capability (ASSC). B—allows ATC to override any RWSL false indications. C—does not require pilots to tell ATC when executing a go-around.

9787. (Refer to Figure 241). Hot Spots are depicted on airport diagrams as. A—squares or rectangles around “HS” and a number. B—circles or polygons around “HS” and a number. C—triangles or blocks filled with “HS” and a number.

9416. When instructed by ATC to “Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),” the pilot should stop. A—with the nose gear on the hold line. B—so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. C—so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

9798. When you see this pavement marking from the cockpit, you. A—can taxi past this point at your own risk. B—must hold short until “cleared” to taxi onto or past the runway. C—may not cross the line until ATC allows you to “enter” or “cross” by instruction.

9799. The sign shown is an example of. A—a mandatory instruction sign. B—runway heading notification signage. C—an airport directional sign.

8701. Airport “hot spots” are. A—reserved for contaminated aircraft. B—parking spots for military aircraft. C—known hazardous runway intersections.

9378. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall. A—not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B—use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C—maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

8912. A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in. A—a hard landing. B—increased landing rollout. C—landing short of the runway threshold.

8911. What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?. A—Pilots have a choice of glide angles. B—A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C—The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height.

8913. The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by. A—high performance aircraft. B—helicopters. C—high cockpit aircraft.

8921. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?. A—Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B—Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C—One light projector with two colors; red and white.

8908. What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?. A—High – white, on glidepath – red and white; low – red. B—High – white, on glidepath – green; low – red. C—High – white and green, on glidepath – green; low – red.

8909. What does the pulsating VASI consist of?. A—Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B—Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C—One-light projector, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.

8910. What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?. A—High – pulsing white, on glidepath – green, low – pulsing red. B—High – pulsing white, on glidepath – steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low – pulsing red. C—High – pulsing white, on course and on glidepath – steady white, off course but on glidepath – pulsing white and red; low – pulsing red.

8705. Lights which indicate the runway is occupied are. A—strobe lights located next to the PAPIs. B—flashing PAPIs. C—yellow flashing lights located below the PAPIs.