Equipment, Navigation, and Facilities

What recordshall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?. The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record. N/A.

Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearence in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and. expeditiously return to the ATC clearence in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved. N/A.

Taxiway centerline lead-off lights are coler coded to warm pilots that. they are within the runway environment or ILS critical area. N/A.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" corresponds ?. 17. N/A.

When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdaown zone elevation during a category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?. When the red terminal bar of the approach light system are in sight. N/A.

Overrinding an automatically selected sensitivy during a GPS approach will. cancel the approach mode annunciator. N/A.

During a VOR check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers a 356 with the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may. be used during IFR flight, since the error is within the limits. N/A.

Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check?. Date, place, bearing error, and signature. N/A.

The ILS critical area marking denote. where you are clear of the ILS critical area. N/A.

How long is flight deck voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?. 60 days. N/A.

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?. High altitudes close to the VORTAC. N/A.

Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CFI?. 174. N/A.

An approved minimum equipment list or FAA letter of authorization allows caertain instrument or equipment. to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. N/A.

The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intented for use by. high flight deck aircrafts. N/A.

Runway centerline lights as seen from the flight deck begin to alternate white and red in the last. 3000 feet of runway distance remaining. N/A.

Land and hold short operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: of some designated point on the runway. N/A.

What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintanence and is considered unreliable?. The identifier would be removed. N/A.

With no traffic identified by TCAS, you. must continually scan for other trafic in visual conditions. N/A.

What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?. High - pulsing white; on glidepath - stedy white; slightly below glide slope - steady red; low - pulsing red. N/A.

What does the absence of the shaded arrowhead after the VDP on a GPS approach indicate?. Obstacle obstructions between the VDP and the runway. N/A.

The "taxiway ending" marker. indicates taxiway does not continue. N/A.

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearence in response to a "TCAS II", resolution advisory (RA) is expected to. notify ATC of the deviation as sson as practicable. N/A.

A land hold short operation (LAHSO) clearence, that the pilot accepts: does not preclude a rejected landing. N/A.

Without receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived. altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a takeoff on runway 9?. 1000 feet. N/A.

Automated flight decks or cockpit. decrease the workload in terminal areas. N/A.

A runway status light (RWSL) system at an airport. allows ATC to override any RWSL false indications. N/A.

Given: pressure altitude 1000 ft true air temperature 10C from the conditions given, the approximat density altitude is. 650 feet MSL. N/A.

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?. 4 on the gound and in flight. N/A.

Which ground components are required to be operative for a category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?. All of the required ground components. N/A.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" corresponds?. 12. N/A.

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?. Continuous dots at the rte of six per second. N/A.

High density altitude can reduce turbojet aircraft performance in which of the following ways?. It reduce thrust because there is a reduce mass of gases to force out of the exhaust. N/A.

Which components associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?. Middle compass locator. N/A.

What can a pilot axpect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?. The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. N/A.

Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintanence and is considered unreliable?. Coded identification T-E-S-T. N/A.

If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?. True altitude is lower than 31.000 feet. N/A.

GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by. a sovereing country or governmental unit. N/A.

How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?. Green, yellow, and white becon light. N/A.

Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to a point on the exit. N/A.

When should transponder be operated on the gound while taxiing?. All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X. N/A.

It is important for a pilot to ask for site-specific WAAS MAY NOT BE AVBL NOTAMs for the destination airport before a flight because. Air traffic control will not advise pilots of site-specific WAAS MAY NOT BE AVBL NOTAMs. N/A.

Identify the runway distance remaining markers. Signs with increments of 1000 feet distance remaining. N/A.

Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CFI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. 354. N/A.

Within what frecuency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?. 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. N/A.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?. 16. N/A.

Over the contiguous U.S, the VOR MON assures that a MON aiport will be available within how many miles of the aircrafts position. 100 NM. N/A.

If the middle marker for a category I ILS approach is inoperative,. the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight in minimums. N/A.

How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?. Indication will drop to zero. N/A.

What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV?. 5.0 NM. N/A.

En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?. Sea level. N/A.

The rate of descent for a 3.5 degree angle of descent glideslope is. 740 ft/min at 120 knots groundspeed. N/A.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?. 4. N/A.

What is the purpose of REIL?. Identification of the runway surrounded by a prepondarance of other lighting. N/A.

To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B" correspond?. 5 and 13. N/A.

If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display. an extension of the inbound final approach course. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 1000 feet. N/A.

The "runway hold position" sigh denotes. intersecting runways. N/A.

Runway status lights (REL) are. an independent light system. N/A.

Operations at or above FL180 require the use of what onboard avionics equipment?. Traffic information serveces - broadcast and automatic dependent surveillance - broadcast. N/A.

Airport "hot spots" are. Known hazardous runway intersactions. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 2000 feet. N/A.

The ILS critical area sigh indicates. the edge of the ILS critical area. N/A.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" corresponds?. 12. N/Aa.

What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?. Notify ATC immediately. N/A.

Risk is increased when flightcrew memebers. fail to monitor automated navigation systems. N/A.

Holding positions signs have. white inscriptions on a red background. N/A.

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. N/A.

What is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?. When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. N/A.

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power change are made. N/A.

Takeoff hold lights (THL) are a part of the. automatic runway status light system. N/A.

In conducting land and hold short operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: the published available landing distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. N/A.

A pilot approaching to land a turbine powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. N/A.

When instructed by ATC to "hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.)" the pilot should stop. so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. N/A.

Detailed investigations of the runway incursions have identified. 3 major areas of contributing factors. N/A.

On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No.1 NAV?. R-345. N/A.

Which "rule of thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath?. 5 times ground speed in knots. N/A.

what is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?. Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. N/A.

While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required?. Notify ATC immediately. N/A.

You arrive at PILOC. The preflight briefer issued you an "unreliable" advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates good sighal. You. can use the LVP minimum of 368 DA and 2400RVR in your CAT B airplane. N/A.

To which position does HSI presentation "I" correspond?. 4 only. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "F" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 1000 feet. N/A.

Reliance on automation can translate to. lack of manual handling skills. N/A.

When flying an aircraft with electronic flight displays (EFDs), risk increases. if the pilot believes the EFD will compensate for lack of skill and knoledge. N/A.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?. 19. N/A.

What aural and visual inditacions should be observed over an ILS middle marker?. Alternate dots and dashes identified as an intermediate tone. N/A.

In the RNAV (RNP) RWL 26L at HNL profile, what does the shaded triangle below the DA indicate?. The visual segment is clear. N/A.

What would authorized an air carrier to conduct a Special instrument approach procedure?. Operations specifications. N/A.

What is the advantage of three-bar VASI?. A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low flight deck aircraft. N/A.

What does the precision approach path indictor (PAPI) consists of?. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. N/A.

During an en route descent in a fixed thrust and fixed pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?. Decrease in indicated airspeed. N/A.

What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. N/A.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond?. 1. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff runway 9?. 3000 feet. N/A.

This sign, visible to the pilot on the runway, indicates. a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway. N/A.

To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond?. 8 and 3. N/A.

What are the indications of precision approach path indicator (PAPI)?. High - white; on glidepath - red and white; low - red. N/A.

Which OBS selection on the No.1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. 165. N/A.

When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an isntrument flight?. Ator above 24.000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. N/A.

Automation has been found to. improve crew situational awareness skills. N/A.

Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a category I ILS approach?. Compass locator. N/A.

In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are rquired to be operative for a category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?. Each required ground component. N/A.

When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard. effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. N/A.

To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond. 9 and 6. N/A.

How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?. LDA - offset from the runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway. N/A.

Outside the western US mountainous area the VOR MON will provide nearly continous navigation signal coverage across the national airspace system an altitude of. 5000 feet AGL. N/A.

What does pulsating VASI consist of?. One light projector, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slighly below glide slope, stedy white when on glide slope, stedy red for slightly below glide path. N/A.

If a visual descent point (VDP) is published on a GPS approach, it. will not be included in the sequence of waypoints. N/A.

Identify REIL. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. N/A.

The sign show is an example of. a mandatory instruction sign. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 1000 feet. N/A.

MAY NOT BE AVBL, as indicated in the following GPS NOTAMs: SFO 12/051 SFO WAAS LNAV/VNAV AND LVP MNM MAY NOT BE AVBL WEF0512182025-0512182049 means. within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support LPV approaches. N/A.

If you notice ATC is unusually quiet and one of your VHF transmit lights is illuminated, then you should suspect. your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably have a stuck microphone. N/A.

ATC asks you to follow the B737 3 NM ahead of you on the approach path. ATC is responsible to ensure. traffic separation only. N/A.

REL is the acronym for. Runway entrance lights. N/A.

You see the indication in the figure on you PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120 knot cruise in level flight. your decide the. pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug. N/A.

A pilot employed by an air carrier and/or commercil operator may conduct GPS/WAAS instrument approaches. only if approved in their air carrier/commercial operator specifications. N/A.

Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting system. Alternate red and white lights from 3000 feet to 1000 feet, then red lights to the end. N/A.

What is the pupose of no entry sign?. Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering. N/A.

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?. VOR within 30 days and altimeter system and transponder within 24 calendar months. N/A.

Hold line marking at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two dashes) that exted across the width of the taxiway. These lines are. yellow in color and the dashes lines are nearest the runway. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 3000 feet. N/A.

Automation in aircraft has proven. to present new hazards in its limitations. N/A.

When you see this pavement marking from the flight deck, you. may not cross the line until ATC allows you to "enter" or "cross" by instruction. N/A.

The most important marking on an airport are. hold marking. N/A.

What does the outbound destination sign identify?. Identifies direction to takeoff runways. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 3000 feet. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. 2000 feet. N/A.

TCAS II provides. traffic and resolution advisories. N/A.

In advance avionincs aircraft, proper automation management requires. a thorough understanding ofhow the autopilot interacts with other systems. N/A.

Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. black inscription on a yellow background. N/A.

To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "G" correspond?. 4 only. N/A.

All runway hold marking consist of. 2 dashes and 2 solid yellow lines. N/A.

The lighter workload associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation. may lead to complacency by the flightcrew. N/A.

With no traffic identified by TCAS when in 10 miles of visibility, you. must continually scan for other traffic. N/A.

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compoared to a VFR runway?. Amber lights replace white on the last 2000 feet of runway for a caution zone. N/A.

Information obtained from flight data and flight deck voice recorders shall be used only for determining. possible causes of accidents or incidents. N/A.

If flying a puslished GPS departure,. the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course deviation indicator sesitivity. N/A.

While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the twon VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot in command follow?. Advise ATC immediately. N/A.

Flight operations conducted in class A airspace require the aircraft be equipped with a. Extended squitter ADS-B operating on radio frecuency 1090 MHz. N/A.

If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIMS) is not available when setting up for GPS approach, the pilot should. select another type of approach using another type of navigation aid. N/A.

TCAS I provides. proximity warning. N/A.

Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL). Two rows of transverse ligh bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline. N/A.

During a constant-rate climb in IMC above the freezing level, you notice that both the airspeed and altitude are inclrising.This indicates the. pitot static system has malfunctioned. N/A.

This is an example of. an ILS critical area boundary sign. N/A.

When the temperature is -20C at 15000 feet indicated, you know that. the altimeter is indicating higher than true altitude. N/A.

Missed approach routing in which the first track is via a course rather than directr to the next waypoint requires. additional action by the operator to set the course. N/A.

You are cleared to HNL and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach. Assuming you have received the training, you. must know ahead of time weather or not your FMS/GPS has GPS and radius to fix capability. N/A.

What does "MAY NOT BE AVBL" indicate in the following GPS and WAAS NOTAM: BOS WAAS LPV AND LNAV/VNAV MNM MAY NOT BE AVBL WEF 0305231700-0305231815?. The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, may not support LPV approaches. N/A.

Which pressure is defined as station pressure?. Actual pressure at field elevation. N/A.

An aircraft not equipped with DME/DME experiences a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) disruption while enroute. The flight crew will need to navigate using. VOR MON. N/A.

Each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B out must operate it in the transmit mode. at all times unless otherwise authorized by the FAA or directed by ATC. N/A.

Lights which indicate the runway is occupied are. RWSL. N/A.

When does the national weather service release an avioation notification watch massage (SAW). Unsheduled and issued as required. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. 2000 feet. N/A.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond?. 2. N/A.

Why does the FAA maintain a VOR minimum operational network (MON). To support navigation of non DME/DME equippemt RNAV aircraft in the event of GPS outage. N/A.

Atomated flight decks or cockpits. sometimes hide errors. N/A.

The lowest ILS category II minimums are. DH 100 feet and RVR 1000 feet. N/A.

If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?. Higher than pressure altitude. N/A.

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, a required alternate airport must have. an approved instrument approach procedure, beside GPS, that is expected to be operational ana available at the ETA. N/A.

You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when. all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line. N/A.

THL is the acronym for. Takeoff hold lights. N/A.

When a pilot belives advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environment limits,. risk is increased. N/A.

How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?. SDF- 6° or 12° wide, ILS- 3° to 6°. N/A.

requests for deviations for inoperable ADS-B equipment may be made to. the ATC facility jurisdiction over the airspace at any time. N/A.

To use a substitute means of guidance on departure procedures, pilots of aircraft with RNAV systems using DME/DME/IRU without GPS input must. ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1000 feet at the start point of takeoff roll. N/A.

Hot spots are depicted on airport diagrams as. circle, ellipse or cylinder. N/A.

When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should. operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing. N/A.

Which component associated with the ILS is adentified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?. Outer compass locator. N/A.

Humans are characteristically. poor monitors of automated system. N/A.

If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker?. A series of two dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light. N/A.

To which HSI presentation does aircraft 8 correspond, if on a back course to runway 9 apporoach?. Figure E. N/A.

You arrive at DUMBB for the RNAV (GPS) at CHA. Before takeoff, the preflight briefer states WAAS mat be unreliable. Your avionics are good and you have full GPS service. You. descend to the LPV minima of 882 feet and 2400 RVR in your CAT B aircraft. N/A.

The airport marking, signage and lighting associated with land and hold short (LAHSO) consists of: red and white signage, yellow holdshort marking, and at some airports, in-pavement lights. N/A.

A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver. after the MAWP. N/A.

In reviewing the RNAV/GPS procedure RWY 4 LEW, the lack of shaded fan from the 1.6 NM point to the runway indicates. the visual segment below the MDA/DA is not clear of obstacles on a 34 to 1 slope. N/A.

What functions are provided by ILS?. Guidance, range and visual information. N/A.

What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9. 2000 feet. N/A.

What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No.2 NAV?. 4°. N/A.

How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?. Green and white beacon light with dual flash on the white. N/A.

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position?. denotes intersecting runways. N/A.

A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper than normal VASI glide slope angle may result in. increased landing rollout. N/A.

Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur. N/A.

For what purpose may flight deck voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used?. determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence. N/A.

In the United States, there is an average of. 3 runway incursions every day. N/A.

The moving map below reflects a loss of. position information. N/A.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "E" correspond?. 6. N/A.

Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. air carrier and commercial operators must meet the apropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications. N/A.

When approaching a holding position sign for a runway approach area you must. obtain ATC clearence prior to crossing. N/A.

If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permisable is. plus or minus 6°. N/A.

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on a VFR runway as compared to an IFR runway?. runway edge lights are white. N/A.

What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over VORTAC site at 12000 feet?. 2 DME miles. N/A.