ERJ-145

1. The CPAM sends a signal to the aural warning system to alert the crew when cabin altitude is above: (A). 9,900 +/- 100ft Normal operation. (B). 14,500 +/- 500ft Normal operation. (C). 14,500 +/- 500ft HIGH ALT mode activated. (D). A and C.

2. Barometric pressure correction for the pressurization system is entered by the crew into the MFD prior to landing. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

3. Proper operation of the Pressurization System Automatic Mode requires: (A). The AUTO/MAN button should not be pressed. (B). The landing altitude entered prior to takeoff. (C). Manual Controller set to the full counterclockwise position. (D). All of the above.

4. The EICAS indication for differential pressure becomes red between 8.0 and 8.3 psi and amber for 8.4 psi and greater. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

5. When taking off without the Pack Valves open (air conditioning supply), the outflow valves will be. (A). OPEN. (B). CLOSED. (C). MODULATING. (D). PRIMARY VALVE OPEN; SECONDARY VALVE CLOSED.

6. Negative cabin differential pressure relief is at _____ psi. (A). 0.3. (B). 0.1. (C). 8.1. (D). 9.5.

7. The maximum differential pressure is _______ psi. (A). -0.3. (B). 7.8. (C). 8.1. (D). 9.2.

8. The ECUs are cooled on the ground... (A). inside the wing-to-fuselage fairing. (B). by the Air Cycle Machine fans only. (C). through the same ram air inlets that are used to cool the dual heat exchangers. (D). to prevent reverse flow if the recirculation fan is inoperative.

9. When in the Automatic Mode, rapid depressurization is commanded by the Dump Button which is located on the Digital Controller. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

10. The cockpit and cabin temperature are displayed on the. (A). MFD. (B). PFD. (C). Take Off Page. (D). None of the above.

11. The Takeoff Sequence of pressurization lasts until the Theoretical Cabin Altitude becomes greater than the actual cabin altitude or until ______ minutes has elapsed, whichever occurs first. (A). 5. (B). 8. (C). 15. (D). 20.

12. Positive cabin differential overpressure relief is at _____ psi maximum. (A). 0.3. (B). 0.1. (C). 8.2. (D). 9.5.

13. The maximum differential negative pressure is ____ psi. (A). -0.3. (B). -0.2. (C). 1.0. (D). 2.0.

14. When either the left or right temperature control is in the automatic mode, the temperature is controlled by the Digital Temperature Controller. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

15. Emergency ram air enters the aircraft via: (A). The Ram Air inlets. (B). The heat exchangers. (C). Electrically operated emergency side vents. (D). ECU Boost Vents.

16. Gasper air provides ventilation through the individual air outlets (gasper vents) and for ventilation of the.... (A). Rear electronic compartment. (B). Oxygen cylinder compartment. (C). Relay box. (D). All of the above.

17. In the Automatic Mode, the cabin is pressurized for landing. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

18. Indications of the cabin altitude, differential pressure and cabin rate of change are found on the: (A). PFD. (B). MFD. (C). EICAS. (D). NONE OF THE ABOVE.

19. Which of the following altitudes does the Digital Controller require the pilots to enter prior to takeoff?. (A). Cruise altitude. (B). Departure altitude. (C). Landing altitude. (D). Cruise altitude plus 500 ft.

20. (110). The Ground Cart connection is located on the ________ side of the aircraft. (A). RIGHT. (B). LEFT. (C). BOTTOM. (D). TOP.

21. The Flight Attendant can control the cabin air temperature at all times. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

22. There are _______ EICAS Warning written messages associated with the pressurization system. (A). 1. (B). 2. (C). 3. (D). NONE OF THE ABOVE.

23. The Forward and the Aft Electronic Bays are cooled automatically without any input from the crew. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

24. The ECUs are cooled in flight.... (A). through the Recirculation Button, located on the overhead panel. (B). through a sliding control located on the Attendant Panel. (C). by external air drawn by the Air Cycle Machine fans, supported by ram air NACA inlets. (D). by the ACM fans only.

25. If the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft (9,900ft+/-100ft), the crew will receive a: (A). Warning on the PFD. (B). Aural warning "CABIN". (C). Cabin altitude on the EICAS turns red at 10,000 feet or higher. (D). B and C above.

26. The maximum altitude for APU start is _______ feet. (A). 12,000. (B). 18,000. (C). 25,000. (D). 30,000.

27. The maximum altitude for continuous APU operation is ______ feet. (A). 12,000. (B). 18,000. (C). 37,000. (D). 30,000.

28. To initiate the APU starting cycle. (A). select cross bleed start from the #1 or #2 engine. (B). move the APU master knob to the START position. (C). you must first determine whether the APU will be started using electric power or pneumatic power and then select the appropriate source. (D). None of the above.

29. The APU will automatically shut down when the rotating parts reach. (A). 102%. (B). 105%. (C). 108%. (D). 110%.

30. During the APU start sequence (Model T-62T-40C14), the main fuel solenoid valve is energized. (A). 3% rotor speed. (B). 14% rotor speed. (C). 70% rotor speed. (D). 95% rotor speed.

31. Turning the APU master knob OFF. 31. Turning the APU master knob OFF (A). closes the APU fuel shutoff valve. (B). deenergizes the ESU or FADEC. (C). shuts off electrical power that can be supplied by the APU, but pneumatic power from the APU will still be available. (D). A and B.

32. Depressing the APU fuel shutoff button. (A). cuts off fuel to the APU. (B). after 10 seconds discharges halon into the APU compartment. (C). commands the fuel shutoff valve to open. (D). A and C.

33. The APU is started using. (A). electrical or pneumatic power. (B). electrical power only. (C). pneumatic power only. (D). electric on the ground, pneumatic in the air.

34. The APU is available to supply electrical and/or pneumatic power. (A). after reaching 95% rotor speed. (B). after reaching 100% rotor speed. (C). 7 seconds after having reached 95% rotor speed. (D). 3 seconds after having reached 100%.

35. Pushing the APU STOP button. (A). send a stop request signal to the FADEC in order to execute the shutdown procedure. (B). testes the FADEC overspeed protection. (C). A and B. (D). None of the above.

36. Turning the APU master knob ON. (A). energizes the FADEC. (B). opens the start fuel solenoid valve. (C). commands the fuel shutoff valve to open. (D). A and C.

37. The APU compartment is isolated by a. (A). fiberglass shield. (B). Dual honeycomb isolation sheet. (C). Titanium firewall. (D). Epoxy resin reinforced aluminum threshold.

38. The APU FUEL SHUTOFF BUTTON when pressed, also shuts the APU down by closing shutoff valve of the. (A). Initiates start cycle. (B). APU fuel feed-line. (C). Energizes the FADEC. (D). will automatically shutdown after the rotating parts reach 108% speed.

39. APU control is performed by the. (A). ACM-FADEC. (B). ESU-FADEC. (C). ECU-FADEC. (D). FADEC-EADI.

40. The APU fuel supply normally comes from the. (A). right wing tank. (B). left wing tank. (C). auxiliary fuel tank. (D). None of the above.

41. The APU is a source of. (A). electrical power on the ground. (B). pneumatic power on the ground or in flight. (C). electrical power in flight. (D). All of the above.

42. What is the minimum altitude (ft.) during an ILS approach with the autopilot (LR) engaged?. (A). 100. (B). 200. (C). 250. (D). 300.

43. What is the minimum engagement height (feet) for the autopilot LR?. (A). 100. (B). 200. (C). 300. (D). 500.

44. The low bank mode is automatically selected when climbing above 25,000 feet, and automatically canceled with descent below 24,750 feet. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

45. The IC-600-1 serves as the primary unit incorporating autopilot functions with the IC600-2 serving as the secondary unit (backup). (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

46. Which of the following is TRUE?. (A). Maximum descent below MDA on a non-precision approach with the autopilot engaged is 100 feet. (B). A single engine approach with the autopilot engaged is prohibited. (C). A single engine go-around with the autopilot engaged is prohibited. (D). All of the above.

47. When descending from 8,000 feet to 5,000 feet with the autopilot engaged using the FLC mode, what is the descent schedule?. (A). -1000 fpm. (B). -2000 fpm. (C). 0.56 M. (D). 240 KIAS.

48. When climbing from 5,000 feet to 8,000 feet with the autopilot engaged using the FLC mode, what is the climb schedule?. (A). +1000 fpm. (B). +2000 fpm. (C). 240 KIAS. (D). 270 KIAS.

49. The Primus 1000 (P-1000) Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) is a fully integrated, fail passive three-axis flight control system which incorporates lateral and vertical guidance, yaw damper and automatic pitch trim functions. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

50. In-flight during a normal approach, depressing the Go Around button. (A). Disconnects the autopilot. (B). Forces the flight director into either the Go around Mode or the Windshear Escape Mode, depending on the windshear signal. (C). A and B. (D). None of the above.

51. With the Autopilot engaged, how can we select the "vertical speed mode"?. (A). By pressing the VS button. (B). By rotating the pitch control wheel when descending in the SPD select mode. (C). By pressing the FLC button when the pre-selected altitude is below the current altitude. (D). A and C.

52. Approach mode selection during localizer capture is allowed ONLY when the aircraft is inbound. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

53. The two RMU provide radio frequency and mode control. Alternatively the __________ frequencies may be selected through the TBCH tuning Back up Control Head. (A). RMU # 2. (B). RMU # 1. (C). A and B are true. (D). None of the above.

54. The Radio Management System (RMS) consists of... (A). Integrated Navigation Unit (INU). (B). Radio Management Unit (RMU). (C). Tuning Backup Control Head. (D). All of the above.

55. When depressing the EMER button on the digital audio panel: (A). The Captain is connected to COMM1 and NAV1. (B). The First Officer is connected to COMM2 and NAV2. (C). The observer is connected to COMM2 and NAV2. (D). A and B.

56. Upon pushing the PAX button on the digital audio panel, the pilot may make an announcement by depressing the PTT on the glareshield panel, but not by depressing the PTT on the control wheel. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

57. The emergency mode must be selected in case of digital audio panel power loss. In this case: (A). Captain will be directly connected to the Com 1 and Nav 1. (A). Captain will be directly connected to the Com 1 and Nav 1. (B). Copilot will be directly connected to the Com 2 and Nav 2. (C). A and B are true. (D). none of the above.

58. The audio system is controlled via three individual Digital Audio Panel available for the: (A). Captain, Copilot and Flight Attendant 1. (B). Captain, observer and Flight Attendant 2. (C). Pilot, Copilot and Observer. (D). A and B are true.

59. When the airplane is energized, both RMUs are automatically turned ON, but only the COM 1 radio is available: (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

60. Any radio equipment that is not powered up when the test is initiated by the RMU will generate an error message. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

61. For VHF transmissions a continuous command of PTT switch is limited to: (A). 1 minute. (B). 3 minutes. (C). 4 minutes. (D). 2 minutes.

62. The CVR incorporates an underwater Locator Beacon (ULB). The signal is transmitted during approximately: (A). 5 days. (B). 15 days. (C). 30 days. (D). 20 days.

63. The EMB-145 navigation and communication resources are provided by: (A). Tuning back up control head (TBCH). (B). Radio Management System (RMS). (C). Digital Audio Panel (DAP). (D). None of the above.

64. The CVR storing the last ________ of recorded information in a solid state crash survivable memory unit. (A). 1 hour. (B). 2 hours. (C). 30 minutes. (D). 45 minutes.

65. What is the purpose of TBCH?. (A). It is to be used before engine start for initial communications with low power draw. (B). It offers an alternate means to select frequencies for COMM2 and NAV2 in the event you lose both RMUs. (C). No purpose. (D). None of the above.

66. A crash impact switch cuts off power to the CVR immediately after experiencing a ________ impact in order to preserve the recorded data: (A). 5 G. (B). 1 G. (C). 10 G. (D). 9 G.

67. Each RMU can cross-tune the opposite RMU. Do you have any indication that your RMU has been cross-tuned by the opposite RMU?. (A). No, other than the fact that the frequency displayed may have changed. (B). Yes, any change in frequency will be displayed in magenta. (C). Yes, any change in frequency will be displayed in yellow. (D). Yes, any change in frequency will be displayed in cyan.

68. The ERJ-145 is equipped with: (A). 4 RMUs. (B). 1 RMUs. (C). 3 RMUs. (D). 2 RMUs.

69. How do you change to Direct COM Tuning on the RMU?. (A). Push the Direct COM Tuning button on the RMU. (B). Depress the line select button (beside the COM preset frequency line) three consecutive times. (C). Depress the line select button (beside the COM preset frequency line) for approximately three seconds. (D). None of the above.

70. The CVR microphone is installed: (A). RMU # 1. (B). Digital Audio Panel. (C). Below the Stand by compass. (D). HF-230.

71. The RMU displays the following: (A). COMM and NAV. (B). ATC and TCAS. (C). ADF. (D). All of the above.

72. How will you know that some component of the Radio System has failed to respond to the commands from the RMU?. (A). The frequencies or the operating commands associated with that particular function will be removed from the RMU display and replaced with dashes. (B). The frequencies or the operating commands associated with that particular function will begin to flash amber on the RMU display. (C). An EICAS message will appear. (D). None of the above.

73. The failures that can affect the crew awareness system are associated with: (A). Electrical power. (B). Displays failures. (C). Computer malfunction. (C). Computer malfunction.

74. PIT indication displayed in the upper left corner of the PFD when pitch attitude data differs by more than. (A). +- 5º. (B). +- 6º. (C). +- 4º. (D). +- 3º.

75. The MFD present this systems pages. (A). Fuel, electrical, take off. (B). Environmental and ice protection, fire protection. (C). Hydraulic and brakes, environmental and ice protection. (D). A and C.

76. The primary pilot’s instrument is: (A). EICAS. (B). RMU. (C). PFD. (D). MFD.

77. Take off phase the inhibition logic is valid when the air plane crosses V2-15 Kt. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

78. There are two kinds of aural warnings. (A). Voice messages. (B). Tones. (C). Bells. (D). A and B.

79. The central data collection points for the EICAS are. (A). RMUs. (B). FMSs. (C). DAUs. (D). PFDs.

80. Normally IC 600 # 1 provides images to. (A). MFD 2, PFD 2, EICAS. (B). PFD 1, MFD 1, RMU 1. (C). EICAS, PFD 1, MFD 1. (D). PFD 1, EICAS, MFD 2.

81. The PFD bezel incorporates an inclinometer,. (A). RTN button. (B). A PFD test. (C). Buttons and a knob for barometric settings. (D). B and C are true.

82. LOC indication displayed in the lower left of the attitude sphere when localizer deviation differs by more than approx. (A). 1 dot below 1200ft AGL. (B). 0.5 dot below 2500ft AGL. (C). 1.5 dot below 1200ft AGL. (D). None above.

83. Both IC-600s use channel B of on-side DAU as the primary source of information. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

84. How many messages can be presented in EICAS display?. (A). 13. (B). 15. (C). 14. (D). 12.

85. Caution message DAU 1 (2) FAIL means: (A). Associated DAU channel A has failed. (B). Associated DAU channel B has failed. (C). Both channels are failed. (D). None above.

86. The EMB-145 is provided with a variety of warnings. (A). Visual. (B). Aural. (C). Sensitive. (D). All above.

87. Voice messages are normally associated with warning messages on EICAS or other warning systems. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

88. When the airplane is first energized, the system performs a self-test to Check abnormal conditions in the displays. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

89. CAS MSG, means. (A). Calibrate Air Speed FAIL. (B). A difference between both IC-600. (C). One IC-600 FAIL. (D). Channel A IC-600 # 1 FAIL.

90. GS indication displayed to the lower left of the attitude sphere when glideslope deviation differs by more than approximately 0.7 dot (below 2500ft AGL). (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

91. IAS indication displayed in the upper left corner of the airspeed tape when airspeed data differs by more than. (A). 10kt. (B). 15kt. (C). 5kt. (D). 8kt.

92. In case of any failure in the MFD, its data may be presented in other display. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

93. DAU 1 is dedicate to collect data from: (A). Forward airplane systems. (B). Left engine. (C). Aft airplane system. (D). A and B are true.

94. In approach- landing phase the inhibition logic is deactivated when airplane is on the ground for 3 seconds or more or after one minute. (A). True. (B). False.

95. One of the purpose of the EGPWS is severe windshear. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

96. (90). Visual warnings are provided through. (A). lights, displays indications. (B). EICAS messages, dome lights. (C). Illuminated buttons, EICAS messages. (D). A and c are true.

97. HDG indication displayed in the upper right corner of the HIS compass when heading data differs by more than: (A). +-7º. (B). +-6º. (C). +-5º. (D). +-4º.

98. ROL indication displayed in the upper left corner of the attitude sphere when roll attitude data differs by more than ±6º. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

99. The ice compensation is inhibited during: (A). 2 minutes after takeoff. (B). 4 minutes after takeoff. (C). 5minutes after takeoff. (D). 3 minutes after takeoff.

100. The Stall Protection System provides. (A). Sensitive and aural indications. (B). Visual and sensitive indications. (C). Aural and EICAS indications. (D). Sensitive, visual and aural indications.

101. In the approach-landing phase the inhibition logic is valid from the point when airplane crosses: (A). 100 ft. radio altitude. (B). 200 ft. radio altitude. (C). 300 ft. radio altitude. (D). 400 ft. radio altitude.

102. Provides images to display units. (A). PFD. (B). MFD. (C). SG. (D). EICAS.

103. The Windshear Escape Guidance mode is used to minimize altitude and speed loss during a windshear encounter. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

104. If IC 600 # 2 fails, the RMU # 1 displays the first engine page automatically. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

105. The displays themselves are identical and interchangeable. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

106. The warning area of TCAS corresponds to an imminent conflict in the following 20 to 30 seconds. Such time is calculated by dividing distance between airplanes by their closure rate. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

107. (170). Which system is the only one with sensitive warning?. (A). Ailerons. (B). Rudder. (C). Fire protection system. (D). Stall protection system.

108. ALT indication displayed in the upper right corner of the PFD when pitch attitude data differs by more than: (A). 150ft. (B). 300ft. (C). 200ft. (D). 250ft.

(D). 250ft. 109. The stick pusher is inhibited when the airplane reaches: (A). 0.4g. (B). 1.0g. (C). 1.5g. (D). 0.5g.

110. In case of a display failure, information may be presented on the. (A). MFD. (B). FMS. (C). RMU. (D). PFD.

111. The Radio Management Unit may be used as a back-up for PFD, MFD and EICAS. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

112. How many modes has the EGPWS. (A). 5 modes. (B). 7 modes. (C). 6 modes. (D). 8 modes.

113. Minimum temperature for anti-icing operations is -32 degrees C (SAT) and maximum is 15 degrees C (SAT). (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

114. The holding configuration for holding while in icing conditions is Landing Gear _____, Flaps ____ and a minimum airspeed of ______ knots. (A). Up, Up, 250. (B). Up, Up, 200. (C). Up, Down, 200. (D). Up, Down, 250.

115. The maximum load on the engine generators and the APU generators is _______ amps. (A). 200. (B). 350. (C). 400. (D). 500.

116. The maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component is _____ knots. (A). 5. (B). 10. (C). 15. (D). 20.

117. The galley service door is hydraulically operated. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

118. The main door is normally raised by 2 hydraulic actuators powered by hydraulic system # 1 or by an accumulator with sufficient capacity for four complete door operations. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

119. The ELT is located above the toilet. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

120. ATTCS must be operative to select the ALT T/O-1 mode thrust setting and this mode must be performed with both packs off, unless packs are supplied by the APU. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

121. Both pilot seats can be adjusted using an electric actuator. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

122. Neither the nose landing light nor the taxi lights will illuminate if the nose landing gear is not down and locked. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

123. Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding the Emergency lighting?. (A). They are powered by four dedicated batteries. (B). The dedicated batteries can be charged in the ARM mode. (C). The emergency lights can always be controlled from the cockpit regardless of the mode that the attendant emergency lighting button is in. (D). Battery charge is sufficient to supply all emergency lights for approximately 15 minutes.

124. The rudder pedals can be adjusted fore and aft electrically. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

125. The maximum battery temperature is 70°C. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

126. Vfe for flaps 9° is _______ knots, for flaps 22° is _____ knots and for flaps 45° is _____ knots. (A). 320, 250, 200. (B). 320, 200, 150. (C). 200, 145, 100. (D). 250, 200, 145.

127. The height of the pilot seats can be adjusted mechanically. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

128. Approach mode selection during localizer capture is allowed only when airplane is ___________. (A). inbound. (B). outbound.

129. When the cockpit side windows are not properly locked in the closed position, you will get the following indications: (A). A single caution chime. (B). A message on the EICAS. (C). A yellow pin protruding. (D). A and B.

130. The status of the doors and hatches can be found on the Doors section of the Takeoff System Page on the MFD. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

131. In the event of a failure of all the generators, both batteries can provide _______ minutes of power for essential loads. (A). 15. (B). 40. (C). 60. (D). None of the above.

132. You will get a BATT 1 (2) OVTEMP warning message on the EICAS when the associated battery temperature exceeds ______ degrees C. (A). 70. (B). 32. (C). 500. (D). 65.

133. For the back-up battery to be charged, the system must be energized through a power source other than external power and Battery # ___ Selector must be set to the AUTO position. (A). 1. (B). 2. (C). 1 or 2. (D). None of the above.

134. Which of the following is displayed on the electrical page of the MFD?. (A). Load and voltage conditions. (B). Battery temperatures. (C). Information about system configuration. (D). All of the above.

135. The Electrical Distribution System (EDS) logic is different when the airplane is on the ground than when the airplane is in flight. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

136. Avionics Master Pushbuttons allow the disconnection of some navigation and communication equipment from the load buses while starting the APU on ground. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

137. AC system is powered by the #1 (left) and the #2 (right) inverters. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

138. The Central DC Bus primary function is to connect the APU generator or the GPU to the load busses. Its secondary function is to provide bus interconnections in case of generator failure or engine shutdown. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

139. The EICAS will present a GEN 1 (2, 3, 4) OVLD Caution Message when the generator current is above _______ amps. (A). 200. (B). 400. (C). 350. (D). None of the above.

140. The engine driven generators will come on line when the engine speed reaches: (A). 10% N2. (B). 45% N2. (C). 56.4% N2. (D). None of the above.

141. The system will automatically de-energize the ____ Buses if the only source of electrical power on the ground is the batteries. (A). DC. (B). Shed. (C). Backup. (D). Essential.

142. The external electrical power receptacle is located on the ______ side of the aircraft nose. (A). LEFT. (B). RIGHT. (C). TOP. (D). BOTTOM.

143. Which generators supply the left electrical network?. (A). Generators 1 and 2. (B). Generator 2. (C). Generator 4. (D). Generators 1 and 3.

144. Electrical System management is performed by. (A). the Electrical Distribution Logic (EDL). (B). the Generator Control Units (GCU). (C). Both A and B. (D). None of the above.

145. Which of the following is NOT powered by the Ground Service Bus?. (A). Passenger cabin lights. (B). Galley lights. (C). Navigation lights. (D). Baggage/service compartment lights.

146. The APU generator can supply electrical power on the ground but not in flight. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

147. The GPU has priority over any battery and/or generator to energize the airplane. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

148. (170). Which battery is used to start the APU?. (A). Battery #1. (B). Battery #2. (C). Back-up battery. (D). A and B.

149. During an APU start, the APU starter generator is energized through the Central Bus. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

150. What is a source of power to the EMB145?. (A). Four independent generators. (B). Two Nickle-Cadmium batteries. (C). External power source. (D). All of the above.

151. During engine starting on the ground and in flight, both ignition systems are energized. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

152. If the thrust lever is forward of the IDLE position and the START/STOP knob is placed in the STOP position, the engine will shut down. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

153. At flight idle thrust, the engine can accelerate to 95% of T/O-1 thrust in 8 seconds or less at or below 9500 feet. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

154. Each FADEC has dual redundant channels (Channel A and Channel B). (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

155. What is the engine oil tank capacity?. (A). 10 quarts. (B). 6 quarts. (C). 12 quarts. (D). 13 gallons.

156. The FADEC will select T/O-1 mode when the gear transitions from up to down and locked below 15,000 feet. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

157. Where can you find the engine's oil level?. (A). Engine page of the MFD. (B). Oil page of the MFD. (C). Takeoff page of the MFD. (D). Fluid page of the MFD.

158. If the thrust lever is inadvertently set below IDLE in flight, the FADEC will command. (A). Minimum thrust. (B). N1 minimum idle. (C). Flight idle. (D). Minimum reverse thrust.

159. If the FADEC control knob is placed in the ALTN position, the engine control is transferred to the controlling FADEC of the opposite engine. (A). TRUE. (A). TRUE.

160. CLB mode is enabled when the pressure altitude is greater than 500 ft. above takeoff altitude, there is no landing gear down and locked signal and there is no ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE signal, or when pressure altitude is greater than 1700 ft. above takeoff altitude and there is no OEI signal. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

161. Which of the following components are in the accessory gear box?. (A). Fuel pump and metering unit (FPMU). (B). Oil pump. (C). Hydraulic pump. (D). All of the above.

162. The axial flow compressor has ______ stages. (A). 2. (B). 9. (C). 14. (D). 16.

163. There are ___ FADEC units on the EMB145 by motor. (A). 2. (B). 3. (C). 4. (D). 5.

164. The Takeoff Data Settings controls are located on the overhead panel and consists of a STORE button and a SET control. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

165. The data that must be entered by the pilot for the Takeoff Data Setting. (A). T/O mode. (B). REF TO TEMP. (C). REF A-ICE. (D). All of the above.

166. The CON mode can be selected on the ground provided thrust levers are advanced beyond the Thrust Set position. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

167. Which of the following is required in order for an engine to be ATTCS. (A). Alt T/O-1 mode selected. (B). Airplane on ground. (C). Engine running. (D). All of the above.

168. All engine information displayed by the EICAS comes from the FADECs. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

169. The ignition system and the fuel solenoid valve are activated during a start at about ______ % N2 if the ignition selector knob is not in the OFF position. (A). 10. (B). 14. (C). 28. (D). 53.

170. The maximum available thrust for each selected thrust setting is calculated by the. (A). DAU. (B). IC-600. (C). FADEC. (D). B and C.

171. Bleed air tapings are located at the 9th stage and the 14th stage of the high pressure compressor. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

172. The Alternate Takeoff Mode (ALT T/O-1) is selected through the Takeoff Data settings procedure. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

173. Which of the following displays will show engine oil pressure?. (A). EICAS. (B). MFD. (C). RMU. (D). A and C.

174. The Thrust Reversers are _______ actuated. (A). Electrically. (B). Pneumatically. (C). Hydraulically. (D). Via a spring.

175. CRZ mode can be selected when over 1700 feet above the takeoff altitude and with one or both engines operating. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

176. Engine start ITT limitations are automatically managed by the associated FADEC during engine starting. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

177. The engine oil level indication will turn amber when the oil level is below _______ quarts. (A). 2. (B). 5. (C). 6. (D). 8.

178. An indication of thrust reverser deployment is presented on the. (A). MFD. (B). PFD. (C). EICAS. (D). NONE OF THE ABOVE.

179. The FPMU operates under the authority of the. (A). Fuel control unit. (B). Central engine computer. (C). Variable geometry input. (D). FADEC.

180. The takeoff data is on the Takeoff page of the MFD. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

181. The display unit on the instrument panel that indicates which FADEC is in control is the. (A). RMU. (B). PFD. (C). MFD. (D). EICAS.

182. The four thrust rating modes which can be selected through the buttons located on the control pedestal are: T/O, CON, CLB and CRZ. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

183. The primary electrical power source for engine control and the ignition system is the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) which is driven by the accessory. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

184. ________ crew members must be in the cockpit during all flight phases. If one of the pilots leaves the flight deck, he must be replaced in the cockpit by another ________. (A). 1 - Person. (B). 2 - Crewmember. (C). 3 - Crewmember. (D). 2 - Passenger.

185. The airstair main door is operated by HYD SYS 1 or by an accumulator and powered by two actuators. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

186. How much time does the main door alternative opening valve should be actuated. (A). 30 sec. (B). 45 sec. (C). 90 sec. (D). 2 min.

187. The security door must be keep closed and locked at all times during flight except to permit access and egress according to Satena procedures. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

188. Message ACCES DOOR OPN means main door is open or not properly locked. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

189. The accumulator has sufficient capacity for _____ complete door operation cycle. (A). 2. (B). 3. (C). 4. (D). 5.

190. How many persons should be standing on the doors step simultaneously?. (A). 1. (B). 2. (C). 3. (D). None of above.

191. The Passenger Service Unit provides the following services: (A). Reading Light. (B). Passenger information Sign. (C). Pushbutton and indicator for attendant call. (D). Air gasper. (E). All of above.

192. If a fire detection system fails, the pilots will be notified with which type of EICAS message?. (A). WARNING. (B). CAUTION. (C). ADVAISORY. (D). INFORMATIONAL.

193. Each engine fire bottle and the APU fire bottle contains two discharge nozzles. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

194. There are ______ smoke detectors in the baggage compartment. (A). 2. (B). 3. (C). 4. (D). 7.

195. The class C baggage compartment is provided with: (A). Smoke detection system. (B). Fire extinguishing system. (C). Smoke detection and Fire extinguishing system. (D). None of the above.

196. The EICAS messages that associated bottle has been discharged or is inoperative: (A). E 1 (2) EXT BTL A INOP. (B). E 1 (2) EXT BTL B INOP. (C). APU EXT BTL INOP. (D). All of the above.

197. The lavatory waste container is provided with a fire extinguishing bottle. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

198. If fire detection test button is held for less than 2 seconds the BAG EXTG button may remain illuminated, in this case, repeat the test wait at least 6 seconds to press the test button again. (A). FALSE. (B). TRUE.

199. Fire detection system test button on the ground, when pressed approximately for more than 10 seconds. (A). Discharge a bottle of the APU. (B). The APU is shut down if it is running. (C). Activate the LAV SMOKE message. (D). None of the above.

200. A lavatory smoke detector signals smoke by activating a: (A). red alarm. (B). horn on the Smoke Detector panel. (C). Warning Message on the EICAS. (D). All of the above.

201. The warning LAV SMOKE is provided in the cockpit when the waste container extinguisher bottle is discharged. (A). FALSE. (B). TRUE.

202. APU fire extinguishing button (guarded) when pressed only discharges the APU fire extinguishing bottle. (A). FALSE. (B). TRUE.

203. The engine fire extinguishing handle when pulled, it closes: (A). The fuel, hydraulic, oil and bleed air shut-off valves of the associated engine. (B). The fuel, hydraulic and bleed air shut off valves of the associated engine. (C). The hydraulic, oil, bleed air and lip anti-icing shut off valves of the associated engine. (D). The fuel, hydraulic, bleed air and lip anti-icing shut off valves of the associated engine.

204. The lavatory smoke detector control panel is located directly in front of the forward flight attendant seat. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

205. The cartridges located in the discharge valves are electrically actuated. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

206. Fire extinguishing system consist of three fire extinguishing bottles for the engines and one for the APU. (A). FALSE. (B). TRUE.

207. If the Engine Fire Handle is pulled and then rotated counter-clockwise, which bottle will be discharged?. (A). A. (B). B.

208. When an Engine Fire Handle is pulled, the following shutoff valves are closed: (A). Fuel. (B). Hydraulic. (C). Lip anti-icing. (D). All of the above.

209. When the guarded APU Fire Extinguishing Button is pressed, the APU Fire Extinguishing Bottle is discharged and the APU fuel shutoff valve is closed. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

210. The fire protection system consist of: (A). Overheat detection and extinguishing for the engines. (B). Fire/overheat detection and extinguishing for the engines. (C). Extinguishing for the engines and APU. (D). Fire/overheat detection and extinguishing for the engines and APU.

211. In the event of an engine fire or overheat, the pilots can cancel the aural warnings. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

212. In the event of an engine fire or overheat, the pilots can cancel the visual warnings. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

213. Which of the following must occur to indicate the Fire Detection System Test is successful?. (A). The EICAS fire detection messages are displayed. (B). WARNING/CAUTION lights flash. (C). Aural warning sounds. (D). All of the above.

214. Which of the following will cause a Takeoff Configuration warning. (A). Flaps are not in takeoff position. (B). Parking brake is applied. (C). Pitch trim is out of green range. (D). All of the above.

215. When the stick shaker is activated, the autopilot will disengage all vertical modes but not the lateral modes. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

216. Each IC-600 has an A channel and a standby B channel. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

217. The windshear detection system can detect an increasing performance and a decreasing performance windshear. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

218. Weather radar returns can be displayed on the PFDs and the MFDs. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

219. The MFD may operate as a backup display for the PFD but not for the EICAS. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

220. The EICAS test can be commanded from both the captain's and First Officer's side. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

221. The GPWS sends a message signal to the AWU and also to the IC-600s. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

222. The primary component of the Avionics Integration system is the. (A). IC-600. (B). DAU. (C). ADC. (D). FADEC.

223. DAU1 and DAU2 each supply both IC-600s with engine and airplane systems information. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

224. The AWU is powered by one DC bus and one Essential DC bus. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

225. A WINDSHEAR voice is generated for a decreasing performance windshear. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

226. The three levels of EICAS messages are Caution, Advisory and Warning. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

227. Advisory messages will automatically stop blinking after _____ seconds. (A). 3. (B). 5. (C). 10. (D). 30.

228. During approach, the inhibition begins when the aircraft descends below a radio altitude of _____ feet and ends when the aircraft is on the ground for ______ seconds or more. (A). 200, 3. (B). 150, 4. (C). 200, 4. (D). 150, 3.

229. The RMUs can be used as a backup to the main display panels. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

230. The new TCAS II system provides both vertical and horizontal maneuvers to the pilots. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

231. The SPS test button is illuminated. (A). On power up. (B). If system is not tested. (C). After an unsuccessful test. (D). All of the above.

232. The IC-600 test can be conducted either on the ground or in flight. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

233. The stick pusher can be disconnected via a push-button on the QDB. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

234. The following pages can be displayed on the MFD: (A). ECS. (B). Electrical. (C). Takeoff. (D). All of the above.

235. Upon powering up the aircraft, the MFD will show the Takeoff page. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

236. The Stall Protection Computer has _____ channels. (A). 1. (B). 2. (C). 3. (D). 4.

237. An amber ALT will be displayed on the PFD (comparison monitor) with a difference of _____ feet between the altitude indicators. (A). 150. (B). 200. (C). 100. (D). 50.

238. An amber colored ADC1 and/or ADC2 appears on the PFD when. (A). Only one ADC is supplying both sides (Captain's and First Officer's). (B). ADC1 is supplying the First Officer's instruments and ADC2 is supplying the Captain's instruments. (C). ADC1 and / or ADC2 has failed. (D). A and B.

239. A PIT comparison monitor will be displayed when there is a deviation of more than _____ degrees. (A). 4. (B). 5. (C). 6. (D). 7.

240. The airspeed trend vector represents the airspeed which the airplane would attain in ___ seconds and is disabled during takeoff. (A). 3. (B). 6. (C). 10. (D). 15.

241. You will lose both AHRS during an electrical emergency. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

242. The reference speed bugs V1, Vr, and V2 are displayed in the button portion of the airspeed tape below 40 KIAS and is removed altogether at. (A). 240 KIAS. (B). 200 KIAS. (C). V2+40. (D). V2+42.

243. Which of the following is true concerning the "low airspeed awareness"?. (A). The stick pusher will be activated in the red range. (B). The stick shaker may be activated in the amber range. (C). A and B. (D). None of the above.

244. The radio altimeter ranges from -20 to ______ feet. (A). 2,500. (B). 3,000. (C). 3,500. (D). None of the above.

245. If the acceleration trend vector exceeds Vmo or Mmo, the digits in the airspeed window and the digital Mach readout are displayed in. (A). Red. (B). Amber. (C). Magenta. (D). Cyan.

246. The pitot/static tube 3 provides static pressure to the. (A). CPAM, ADC 1, ADC 2. (B). CPAM, FADEC 1A, FADEC 2B. (C). Standby airspeed indicator, standby altimeter, standby ADC. (D). Standby airspeed indicator, standby altimeter, CPAM. (Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module).

247. The AHRS-900 OPERATING MODES ARE: (A). Navigation mode, Alignment mode. (B). Power-up mode, Inertial mode. (C). Attitude mode, Power-down mode. (D). A and C.

248. The magenta altitude trend vector will display the altitude the aircraft will attain in _____ seconds if the current vertical speed is maintained. (A). 5. (B). 6. (C). 8. (D). 10.

249. An amber IAS will be displayed on the PFD (comparison monitor) with a difference of _____ KIAS between the airspeed indicators. (A). 3. (B). 5. (C). 7. (D). 9.

250. An ROL comparison monitor will be displayed when there is a deviation of more than ______ degrees. (A). 4. (B). 5. (C). 6. (D). 7.

251. The DG (Directional Gyro) mode of the is a component of AHRS-900. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

252. In case of an electrical emergency, the ISIS will operate solely on the airplane batteries for approximately ____ minutes. (A). 35. (B). 9. (C). 40. (D). 15.

253. The aircraft must not be moved until all attitude and heading information presented on the PFD is valid. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

254. The purpose of the ejector pump is to. (A). boost system fuel pressure. (B). help keep the collector box filled. (C). to dump (eject). (D). none of the above.

255. Engine-driven fuel pumps will provide suction feed if the electrical fuel operation is not available limited up to a ceiling altitude of. (A). 15000ft. (B). 20000tf. (C). 24750ft. (D). 25000ft.

256. Total usable fuel quantity (both tanks) is ______ lbs. (LR). (A). 5,346. (B). 7,856. (C). 11,434. (D). 15,224.

257. The EICAS message "FUEL IMBALANCE" will be displayed if one tank differs by _____ lbs. from the other tank. The message will disappear when the difference decreases below ______ lbs. (A). 1000; 500. (B). 800; 800. (C). 800; 500. (D). 800; 100.

258. The maximum fuel imbalance on the EMB145 is _____ lbs. (A). 200. (B). 500. (C). 800. (D). 1000.

259. How many electric pumps for each wing the airplane has: (A). 4. (B). 3. (C). 6. (D). 9.

260. By turning the XFEED selector knob to LOW2. (A). the crossfeed valve opens and the right selected electric pump turns off. (B). the crossfeed valve opens and the left selected electric pump turns off. (C). only the crossfeed valve opens and nothing else. (D). None of the above.

261. The cross feed operation allow fuel transfer between tanks. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

262. Which is the fuel capacity both tanks ERJ-145 LR. (A). 10538 lbs. (B). 11434 lbs. (C). 12320 lbs. (D). None of the above.

263. The fuel flows from the wing tip to the wing root by: (A). Electric pumps. (B). Transfer pumps. (C). Gravity. (D). None of the above.

264. Which is the purpose of the flap valves: (A). Supply fuel to the engines. (B). Ensure adequate fuel quantity in the collector all times. (C). Ensure adequate fuel quantity in the engine all times. (D). Increase the fuel press to the system.

265. The EMB-145 fuel feed system consist of ______ independent system. (A). 2. (B). 1. (C). 3. (D). 6.

266. During take-off and go-around, the XFEED Selector Knob must be set at the OFF position. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

267. To prevent pumps cavitation an ejector pump and flaps valve ensure enough fuel in the __________ at all condition. (A). collector box. (B). wing stub. (C). central tank. (D). tips.

268. Caution message fuel imbalance is removed of the EICAS when difference between tanks decreases below: (A). 800 lbs. (B). 200 lbs. (C). 50 lbs. (D). 100 lbs.

269. Only the Captain's MFD can be used to reset the fuel quantity. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

270. (220). Which of the following is TRUE?. (A). During takeoff and go-around, one electric pump is required for each engine and the APU. (B). During all phases of flight, one pump is capable of supplying both engines plus APU, by opening the crossfeed valve. (C). A and B. (D). None of the above.

271. To prevent pumps cavitation, a/an ___________ and flap valves ensure enough fuel in the collector box at all conditions. (A). ejector pump. (B). collector box. (C). electric pump. (D). shutoff valve.

272. The XFEED shall be OFF during takeoff and landing during normal operations. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

273. What are the fuel temperature limits for the EMB145?. (A). -54 degrees C to 52 degrees C. (B). -52 degrees C to 54 degrees C. (C). -50 degrees C to 52 degrees C. (D). -50 degrees C to 54 degrees C.

274. There is a fuel low temperature sensor located in each tank. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

275. How many knobs on the overhead panel controls the electric pumps and cross feed operation?. (A). 6. (B). 3. (C). 4. (D). 5.

276. How many direct measuring sticks are available to measure fuel quantity on the EMB 145 equipped with Stub Tanks?. (A). 2. (B). 3. (C). 4. (D). 6.

277. When defueling by suction to defuel the LH tank, the cross-fed switch must be set to the LOW 2 position. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

278. Selecting the cross feed knob to LOW 1 acts over _________ electric pumps. (A). right side. (B). left side. (C). both. (D). none of the above.

279. The unusable fuel quantity in each tank is ____ lbs. (LR). (A). 22. (B). 39. (C). 62. (D). 74.

280. The cross feed selector switch in the LOW 2 position open the cross feed valve and: (A). Turns off the right electric fuel pumps. (B). Turns off the left electric fuel pumps. (C). Turns off both fuel pumps. (D). None of the above.

281. The hydraulic shutoff valve can be closed by the engine fire extinguishing handle, a button on the overhead panel and the hydraulic over-ride rotary knob. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

282. EMB145 has ________ hydraulic systems. (A). One. (B). Two. (C). Two in parallel. (D). B and C.

283. Which display indicates that an electric motor-driven pump is turned on?. (A). EICAS. (B). PFD. (C). MFD (hydraulic page). (D). None of the above.

284. Signals from the hydraulic pressure transducer are sent to the EICAS. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

285. The roll trim actuator and the artificial feel unit of the aileron system are located on the left side of the disconnection device. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

286. The elevator spring tabs only work at low speeds. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

287. The rudder PCU is a dual hydraulic unit and is powered by both hydraulic systems. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

288. The roll trim servo and the artificial feel unit are installed on the right side of the torque tube. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

289. A continuous command of any trim switch is limited to _____ seconds. (A). 6. (B). 2. (C). 3. (D). 5.

290. Which conditions must be met in order to open the speed brakes?. (A). Thrust lever angle of both engines set to below 50°. (B). Flaps at 0° or 9°. (C). Airplane on ground. (D). Both A and B.

291. The Gust Lock blocks movement of the. (A). Elevators. (B). Rudder. (C). Ailerons. (D). All of the above.

292. Speed brakes also act as spoilers on the ground. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

293. The flaps are electrically operated, consisting of _____ double-slotted flap panels installed to each wing. The Flap Selector Lever provides _____ detent settings. (A). 2, 5. (B). 4, 4. (C). 2, 4. (D). 3, 5.

294. There are _____ tabs, _____ on each elevator panel, located near the elevator root. The outer tabs are servo tabs and the inner tabs are spring tabs. (A). 2, 1. (B). 4, 2. (C). 6, 3. (D). None of the above.

295. The ailerons and rudder are __________ actuated. (A). Hydraulically. (B). Mechanically. (C). A and B. (D). None of the above.

296. On which side of the elevator disconnect device is the autopilot elevator servo and the stick pusher servo located?. (A). LEFT. (B). RIGHT.

297. The autopilot elevator servo and the stick pusher servo are connected on the right side of the disconnection device. Once disconnection is actuated, the stick pusher will actuate only on the right side and autopilot must not be used. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

298. For the ground spoilers to open, what conditions must be met?. (A). Airplane on ground. (B). Main landing gear wheels running above 25 kt. (C). Thrust lever angle of both engines set to below 30° or N2 below 56.4%. (D). All of the above.

299. Rudder System #1 is automatically shut above: (A). 135 KIAS. (B). 150 KIAS. (C). 180 KIAS. (D). 200 KIAS.

300. The Horizontal Stabilizer Control Unit (HSCU) has _____ control channels. (A). 2. (B). 3. (C). 4. (D). 5.

301. In the process to unlock the gust lock system, when the locking pins are commanded to open, the elevators will be unlocked after approximately _____ seconds. The indication lights will illuminate during the unlocking cycle, remaining off after that. (A). 10. (B). 8. (C). 6. (D). 2.

302. Spoiler system consists of speed brake and ground spoiler subsystems. Speed brakes allow increased descent rate and assist in decelerating the airplane. Ground spoilers destroy lift, thus providing better braking effectiveness. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

303. Both rudder systems can be shut off manually. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

304. Related to the pitch trim indication, a green band is provided on the analog scale from _____ to _____ nose up to indicate the allowable takeoff position range for the horizontal stabilizer. (A). 4, 10°. (B). 5, 8°. (C). 3.5, 10°. (D). 4, 8°.

305. Priority of the pitch trim channels is in order: (A). Lh switch, Rh switch, autopilot. (B). Rh switch, autopilot, Lh switch. (C). Autopilot, Lh switch, Rh switch. (D). Lh switch, autopilot, Rh switch.

306. The elevators, ailerons and rudder all have servo tabs to help in their movement. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

307. During normal operation both systems are powered at speeds below _____KIAS. Above _____ KIAS, Rudder System 1 is automatically shut off. (A). 170. (B). 145. (C). 160. (D). 135.

308. The airplanes under CTA and FAA certification the rudder's main control primary stops, limit rudder deflection at ± _____ on ground or in flight. (A). 15°. (B). 10°. (C). 5°. (D). 71°.

309. (290). Elevators are __________ actuated. (A). Mechanically. (B). Hydraulically. (C). a and b. (D). None of the above.

310. The Flap Power and Drive Unit (FPDU) has two electric motors but one is capable of driving the flaps. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

311. The rudder systems are automatically shut off when: (A). Rudder deflected above 5°±1°. (B). Force above 59 kg (130lb) on the pedal to counteract rudder deflection. (C). Both engines running above 56% N2. (D). All of the above.

312. What are the three conditions which must occur simultaneously in order for the Rudder Electronic Circuit to shut off both rudder hydraulic systems for Rudder Hardover Protection?. (A). Force on any pedal above 59 kg (130 lb). (B). Rudder deflected above 5° to opposite side. (C). Both engines running above 56.4% N2. (D). All of the above.

313. When manually actuating the pitch trim, it is necessary to release the switch to its neutral position after a ______ second actuation. (A). 3. (B). 6. (C). 15. (D). 30.

314. The deflection of the servo tabs is proportional to the elevator deflection. Since the servo tabs proportionally deflects in the opposite direction to the elevators, it promotes a reduction in the forces required. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

315. The pilots can find the flap positions indicated on the ________ display and also on the ________ trailing edge (9 and 22 degrees only). (A). FECU, wings. (B). EICAS, tail's. (C). EICAS, wings. (D). none of the above.

316. The elevators, ailerons and rudder can all be mechanically actuated. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

317. Flaps are _________ operated. (A). Mechanically. (B). Hydraulically. (C). Electrically. (D). None of the above.

318. The flaps consists of _____ panels with _____ flap actuators per panel. (A). 2, 8. (B). 4. 2. (C). 6. 2. (D). 4, 6.

319. The gust lock system provides a mechanical lock for the rudder and elevators. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

320. Flap Power and Drive Unit (FPDU) drive the flap panels. The FPDU is a gearbox with _____ electric motors connected to that unit. Each motor is controlled by the FECU through one independent channel. (A). 4. (B). 3. (C). 2. (D). None of the above.

321. The ailerons and rudder are hydraulically powered and may also be mechanically actuated in case of loss of both hydraulic systems?. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

322. Above 250 KIAS, the HSCU is constantly adjusting the trimming rates of the Horizontal Stabilizer. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

323. Which of the following are clock functions?. (A). Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). (A). Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). (C). Flight number. (D). All of the above.

324. You are in Bogotá with an Outside Temperature of 10°C and the indicated oxygen pressure on MFD is 1450PSI. ¿Can you dispatch the aircraft with 3 crew members?. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

325. If you lose the #2 hydraulic system, you will not be able to extend the gear normally. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

326. The striped bar in the guarded Engine Pump Shutoff Button will illuminate when the button is released. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

327. The engine driven pump is driven by the engine driven accessory box. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

328. If you lose either #1, #2 or both hydraulic systems, you must restrict the airspeed to below: (A). 200 KIAS. (B). 300 KIAS. (C). 250 KIAS. (D). 180 KIAS.

329. When in the AUTO mode, the electric motor-driven pump will turn on anytime the associated hydraulic pressure drops below _____ PSI. (A). 1700. (B). 1600. (C). 2600. (D). 1800.

330. The electric motor-driven pump can be manually turned on by the pilots and will generate 3000 PSI. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

331. The engine driven pump normally supplies hydraulic fluid to the hydraulic system at: (A). 2900 PSI. (B). 2800 PSI. (C). 3300 PSI. (D). 3000 PSI.

332. Which of the following aircraft components are powered by the hydraulic system?. (A). Landing gear. (B). Thrust reversers. (C). Steering. (D). All of the above.

333. With the Ice Detection Override Knob in AUTO during the takeoff roll, the wing and horizontal stabilizer anti-icing subsystems are turned on if an ice condition is detected only after the aircraft is airborne. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

334. The wing inspection lights must be operative prior to flight in icing conditions at night. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

335. With the Ice Detection Override Knob in ENG during the takeoff roll the wing and horizontal stabilizer anti-icing subsystems are turned on if an ice condition is detected with a wheel speed equal to or greater than 25 knots. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

336. When the ice detectors detect ice: (A). the bleed air anti-icing is activated when operated in AUTO. (B). a caution message is presented on the EICAS. (C). the SPS set values for angle of attack are reduced. (D). A and C.

337. The horizontal stabilizer and wing anti-icing subsystems are automatically inhibited: (A). with wheels on ground OR ground speed below 25 knots. (B). with wheels on ground AND ground speed below 25 knots. (C). with wheels on ground AND airspeed below 25 knots. (D). with wheels on ground OR airspeed below 25 knots.

338. Piccolo tube integrity is monitored by the following: (A). A differential pressure switch comparing the left and right tube pressures in the horizontal stabilizer. (B). A differential pressure switch comparing the left root and right root tube pressures in the wings. (C). A differential pressure switch in each wing comparing the tube pressure between wing root to wing tip. (D). A and C.

339. Caution messages presented on the EICAS associated with inoperative sensor heating are inhibited during the takeoff and approach phases. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

340. The ice protection system heats certain areas of the aircraft using either hot bleed air or electrical power. Which of the following areas are heated by electrical power?. (A). Engine air inlet lips. (B). Wing leading edges. (C). Horizontal stabilizer leading edges. (D). None of the above.

341. TAT at 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form, indicates that icing conditions may exists. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

342. After detection of ice by the ice detectors, how long does the icing signal remain active?. (A). 25 seconds. (B). 30 seconds. (C). 45 seconds. (D). 60 seconds.

343. With the Ice Detection Override Knob in ALL during the takeoff roll, the wings and horizontal stabilizer anti-icing subsystems are turned on if an ice condition is detected and the thrust levers have reached the "thrust set" position. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

344. The ice protection system heats certain areas of the aircraft using either hot bleed air or electrical power. Which of the following areas are heated by hot air?. (A). Windshields. (B). TAT probes. (C). Lavatory water drain. (D). None of the above.

345. The windshield temperature controller keeps the windshield temperature somewhere between: (A). 38 and 45 degrees C. (B). 40 and 45 degrees C. (C). 38 and 55 degrees C. (D). None of the above.

346. The bleed air thermal anti-icing system can be turned on: (A). automatically through any ice detector activation. (B). manually by activating the OVERRIDE knob. (C). EICAS decided when to turn it off. (D). A and B.

347. The horizontal stabilizer anti-ice subsystem is supplied from: (A). the right side of the pneumatic system. (B). the left side of the pneumatic system. (C). both sides of the pneumatic system when the crossbleed selector is operated in AUTO. (D). always both sides of the pneumatic system unless the crossbleed selector is CLOSED.

348. What heating elements does the Sensor Heating System automatically operate?. (A). Pitot tubes 1 and 2. (B). TAT sensors 1 and 2. (C). AOA vanes 1 and 2. (D). All of the above.

349. What is the minimum and maximum temperatures for Anti-Icing Operation?. (A). -40 to 10 degrees C. (B). -50 to 10 degrees C. (C). -54 to 10 degrees C. (D). -40 to 15 degrees C.

350. Use of the autopilot is recommended when visual cues exist that suggest severe icing conditions. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

351. The passenger oxygen system is of the _________ type. (A). chemical generation. (B). gaseous. (C). continuous flow. (D). none of the above.

352. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding the PBE?. (A). The PBE must first be donned and then the straps pulled forward to begin the oxygen flow. (B). There are 3 PBEs on board. (C). Both Captain and First Officer are provided with PBEs in the cockpit. (D). A and B.

353. The Captain, First officer and Observer oxygen masks are all identical. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

354. The portable oxygen cylinder is to be used for first aid purposes only. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

355. Which of the following is FALSE?. (A). Selecting 100% provides pure oxygen at all altitudes. (B). When using the smoke goggles, the emergency selector knob must be rotated fully clockwise to receive 100% oxygen under positive pressure. (C). The OXY ON flag (white) appears when the box shutoff valve is open and oxygen is being supplied to the mask. (D). Selecting Normal provides an oxygen/air mixture where the mixture ratio depends upon cabin altitude, but will never reach pure oxygen.

356. Each oxygen mask in the passenger compartment has its own separate chemical oxygen generator. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

357. The oxygen servicing panel is located on the. (A). left side of front fuselage. (B). right side of front fuselage. (C). left side of rear fuselage. (D). right side of rear fuselage.

358. The crew oxygen system is of the _________ type. (A). chemical generation. (B). gaseous. (C). continuous flow. (D). None of the above.

359. The OXYGEN LO PRESS message will be displayed on the EICAS when the system pressure drops below ______ psi and will be sufficient for about ______ minutes of oxygen remaining. (A). 800, 20. (B). 850, 15. (C). 400, 15. (D). 400, 12.

360. The minimum flight crew oxygen system pressure for dispatch (without consulting an oxygen pressure chart) is ______ PSI for 3 crew members. (A). 1100. (B). 1400. (C). 1495. (D). 1500.

361. With the passenger Oxygen Selector Knob set to the AUTO position, the system will automatically be activated when the cabin pressure altitude is above: (A). 10500 ± 500ft. (B). 15500 ± 500ft. (C). 14500 ± 500ft. (D). 12500 ± 500ft.

362. The ________ compressor stage provides air to the low pressure system. (A). 9th. (B). 14th. (C). 2nd. (D). 4th.

363. Where can the crew find the temperature indication of the Bleed Air downstream of the Pre-Cooler?. (A). EICAS display. (B). RMUs. (C). ECS page of the MFD. (D). None of the above.

364. The High Pressure Shutoff valve is called the High Stage valve. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

365. Which of the following aircraft systems use pneumatic air?. (A). Ice protection. (B). Pressurization systems. (C). Air conditioning. (D). All of the above.

366. The APU can supply bleed air either on the ground or in flight. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

367. What is a source of air to pneumatic system prior to engine start?. (A). APU. (B). External pneumatic source. (C). A or B. (D). None of the above.

368. The ground air connection for engine starting is located on the ______ side of the aircraft. (A). RIGHT. (B). LEFT. (C). BOTH A AND B. (D). NONE OF THE ABOVE.

369. What is a source of air to pneumatic system after engine start?. (A). APU. (B). ENGINES. (C). A and B. (D). NONE OF THE ABOVE.

370. Which of the following use high pressure air?. (A). Anti-icing. (B). Engine cross starting. (C). A and B. (D). None of the above.

371. Both the low and high pressure stages have a shutoff valve. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

372. The Engine Air Inlet Anti-Icing System uses. (A). High Pressure bleed air. (B). Low Pressure bleed air. (C). Both High and Low Pressure Bleed Air. (D). None of the above.

373. APU Bleed Air is connected to the ____ side of the Pneumatic System. (A). Right. (B). Left. (C). Both A and B. (d). None of the above.

374. The Pneumatic System gives priority to the APU Bleed Air over the Engine Bleed Air. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

375. Cooling for rear and forward electronic compartments is provided by the ventilation system. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

376. The ________ compressor stage provides air to the high pressure system. (A). 9th. (B). 14th. (C). 2nd. (D). 4th.

377. The Engine Bleed Valves (EBVs), the APU Bleed valve (ABV) and the Cross Bleed Valve (CBV) are all electrically controlled and pneumatically actuated. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

378. Pulling the landing gear free-fall lever: (A). depressurizes the landing gear hydraulic line and releases all the gear uplocks. (B). depressurizes the accumulator associated with the passenger door actuators. (C). A and B. (D). None of the above.

379. Differential braking follows one cardinal rule: simply apply more brake pressure towards the side that you would like to turn (Ex: to turn right, simply increase the pressure on the right brake pedal). (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

380. Braking capabilities exists on the nose and main landing gear. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

381. Once the landing gear is fully retracted, the nose landing gear door actuators are kept pressurized, but the gear actuator lines are connected to the return (depressurized). (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

382. Landing gear position can only be found on the EICAS display or the MFD display. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

383. The engine is considered cold if it has been shutdown for more than ____ min.

384. Holding configuration in icing conditions: GEAR____, FLAPS____, SPEED_____.

385. Maximum Flap Extended Speed, FLAP 45: _____.

386. Maximum recommended crosswind, runway dry _____.

387. Power Plant A1p Limits N2 Max _____ RPM.

388. To increase N2 above 83%, the engine oil temp must be at _____ minimum.

389. Maximum recommended crosswind, runway with water _____.

390. Maximum Load on APU Generator Up To 30.000 Ft: _____.

391. Power Plant A1P limits N1 MAX: ____ RPM.

392. Power Plant A1P limits OIL PRESS above 88% N2 MIN_____ / MAX_____.

393. Hydroplaning Speed LR_________.

394. Altitude for APU start _______.

395. Fuel Tank Temperature MIN _____ / MAX _____.

396. Power Plant A1P limits FUEL TEMP MIN _____ / MAX _____.

397. Minimum Temperature for Manual Anti-Icing Operation ___.

398. Start Limits, Starting Cycle First to Fourth Cycles ________, ________, following cycles ________, ________.

399. Maximum Flap Extended Speed, FLAP 22_____.

400. MTOW (Max. takeoff weight) LR _______.

401. Turbulent Air Penetration Speed At or Below 10.000ft ______.

402. Operational APU altitude _______.

403. Engine Cold down at least ______ at idle or taxi thrust before shutdown.

404. APU Rotor speed _____. The APU automatically shuts down at _____ Rotor speed.

405. Load Factor limit with flaps down _____ / _____.

406. Maximum load on APU generator above 30.000 FT _______.

407. Maximum Flap Extended Speed, FLAP 18 _______.

408. Power Plant A1P limits OIL TEMP MIN _____ / MAX _____.

409. Maximum differential overpressure _____.

410. Maximum Battery Temperature _____.

411. APU EGT start _____.

412. Maximum Flap Extended Speed, FLAP 9 _______.

413. VA maneuvering speed _______.

414. APU STARTER LIMITS. Cooling period between each starting attempt: Between 3 consecutive attempts _______. Between 2 series of 3 consecutive attempts _______.

415. VLO for gear retraction _______.

416. Which of the following is FALSE?. (A). The normal braking system is supplied by hydraulic systems 1 and 2. (B). There are brake system protections for both the normal and emergency/parking brake systems through the Brake Control Unit (BCU). (C). Brake temperature is presented on the Hydraulic Page, on the MFD. (D). Normal braking is applied through the pedals and commanded and monitored by the Brake Control Unit (BCU).

417. The anti-skid system provides. (A). maximum allowable braking effort for the runway surface in use. (B). minimum tire wear. (C). optimum braking distance. (D). All of the above.

418. In the case of radio altimeter loss, the LG WRN CUTOUT allows the flight crew to cancel the LANDING GEAR voice message with flaps selected lower than 22°. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

419. The maximum landing gear retraction speed (VLR) is _____ KIAS. (A). 200. (B). 250. (C). 300. (D). 350.

420. The dedicated accumulator associated for the Emergency/Parking brake system will allow _____ complete actuations or at least 24 hours of parking brake actuation. (A). 4. (B). 5. (C). 6. (D). 8.

421. The purpose of the Touchdown Protection is to prevent brake actuation before the main wheels spin up. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

422. Pulling the free-fall extension handle sends a signal to the Landing Gear Electronic Unit (LGEU) to electrically deenergize the uplock solenoids for the landing gear allowing it to free-fall. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

423. In case of normal gear extension failure: (A). the gear can be extended through an electrical override system. (B). the gear can be extended through a free-fall system. (C). A and B. (D). None of the above.

424. Locked Wheel Protection is activated at wheel speeds above. (A). 10 KNOTS. (B). 20 KNOTS. (C). 30 KNOTS. (D). 35 KNOTS.

425. The nose wheel displacement is ____ degrees through the steering handle and _______ degrees through the rudder pedals for a total of ____ degrees of displacement. (A). 50, 7, 57. (B). 50, 5, 55. (C). 70, 8, 78. (D). 71, 5, 76.

426. How many proximity switches are used to detect whether the landing gear struts are compressed?. (A). 3. (B). 4. (C). 5. (D). 6.

427. The maximum landing gear extended speed (VLE) is _____ KIAS. (A). 300. (B). 350. (C). 200. (D). 250.

428. After takeoff and gear retraction, both the main wheels and nose wheel are brought to a stop via a brake skid located within the wheel wells themselves. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

429. The nose landing gear weight on wheel signal is provided to the logic of the. (A). thrust reverser and steering control. (B). Brake Control Unit (BCU) for brake pressure. (C). Ground Spoilers. (D). All of the above.

430. The nose wheel steering system can be manually disengaged through switches located on the pilot's control wheel. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

431. The sterile light when lit indicates. (A). that entry into the cockpit is allowed. (B). that emergency lights are illuminated. (C). that entry into the cockpit is not allowed. (D). None of the above.

432. The courtesy and stair light consist of the main door light, service door light, stairway lights and cockpit step light. (A). FALSE. (B). TRUE.

433. The navigation lights in case a green or red light become inoperative, the standby wing tip lamps are activated through a switch located on the cockpit maintenance panel: (A). FALSE. (B). TRUE.

434. The external lights necessary to a proper and safe operation of the aircraft are: (A). Chart, landing, taxi, logotype lights. (B). Reading, landing, taxi, wing inspection, logotype lights. (C). Landing, taxi, navigation, anti-collision, wing inspection and logotype lights. (D). Landing, taxi, navigation and logotype lights.

435. The caution related with emergency lighting system is: (A). EMERG LT ARM. (B). EMERG LT ON. (C). EMERG LT OFF. (D). EMERG LT NOT ARM.

436. The positions of emergency lighting switch are: (A). OFF, ARM, ON. (B). OFF, ON. (C). OFF, ARM. (D). ON, ARM.

437. The emergency lighting consist of internal and external lights that provide proper illumination for emergency cabin evacuation: (A). FALSE. (B). TRUE.

438. Batteries power is sufficient to supply all internal and external emergency lights for approximately: (A). 5 MINUTES. (B). 45 MINUTES. (C). 60 MINUTES. (D). 15 MINUTES.

439. The lighting system inside the cockpit is composed of five different types of lights which are as follow: (A). Dome, reading, emergency, chart and instruments lights. (B). Dome, reading, chart, fluorescent flood/storm, instruments and panel lights. (C). Dome, reading, navigation, chart and instruments lights. (D). None of the above.

440. Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind Component ______.

441. Runway Slope _____ to _____.

442. Load Factor Limit with Flaps UP _____ / _____.

443. Power Plant A1P limits vibration LP Spool ____ MAX.

444. ENGINE WARM-UP. Cold Engine _____. Warm Engine _____.

445. APU EGT ON FLIGHT ____ / _______.

446. (440). Power Plant A1P limits ITT TAKEOFF x 5 MIN_____ MAX.

447. VLO for gear extension.

448. Autopilot minimum engagement height _____.

449. Maximum differential pressure _____.

450. Power Plant A1P limits vibration HP Spool ­­­­_____ MAX.

451. Maximum permitted imbalance _____.

452. VLE gear extended and locked _______.

453. Maximum Temperature for Manual Anti-Icing Operation ___.

454. Maximum Differential Negative Pressure _______.

455. Power Plant A1P limits ITT CONTINUOS _____ MAX.

456. Unusable quantity per tank any electric fuel pumps inoperative LR ______.

457. Maximum load on main generator _______.

458. Autopilot minimum altitude during ILS approach _______.

459. Maximum airspeed for windshield wiper operation _______.

460. Power Plant A1P Limits Oil Press below 88% N2 MIN _____ / MAX _____.

462. Maximum Usable FUEL LR _______.

463. Power Plant A1P limits ITT START ______ MAX.

464. Turbulent Air Penetration Speed above 10.000 FT __________ whichever is lower.

465. (280). Unusable Fuel Quantity per Tank LR _____.

466. APU EGT continuous _______.

467. Maximum altitude for flap extension _______.

468. MRW (max. ramp weight) LR _______.

469. (520). Power Plant A1P limits, vibration in the amber range below _____ psi is time limited to ____ minutes during the takeoff or go around phases or ____ seconds during the remainder phases of flight.

470. Single engine or singled bleed maximum altitude operation in icing conditions _______.

471. Maximum recommended crosswind, runway wet _____.

472. MZFW (max. zero fuel weight) LR _______.

473. MLW (max. landing weight) LR ______.

474. The NAV MEMORY function on the page menu of the RMU Bezel Panel. (A). provides a backup navigation display. (B). displays preset VOR NAV frequencies. (C). causes a temporary NAV pre-select frequency to be stored in the memory. (D). all of the above.

475. The AHRS is responsible for sensing changes in airplane heading and attitude. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

478. Navigation data is displayed on the. (A). EICAS. (B). RMU. (C). PDF. (D). B AND C.

476. The NAV Backup Page of the RMU displays _____ and _____ information. (A). DME, ADF. (B). MB, HSI. (C). ALL OF THE ABOVE. (D). NONE OF THE ABOVE.

477. How many Integrated Navigation Units has the RMS?. (A). 1. (B). 2. (C). 3. (D). 4.

479. NAV operation controls are accomplished by actuation of the ____. (A). Frequency Transfer Button. (B). Line Select Button. (C). Both A and B. (D). None of the above.

480. The NAVIGATION function on the page menu of the RMU Bezel Panel. (A). provides a backup navigation display. (B). displays preset VOR NAV frequencies. (C). causes a temporary NAV pre-select frequency to be stored in the memory. (D). All of the above.

481. (130). Which modules are provided by the Integrated Navigation Unit?. (A). VHF NAV Receiver Module. (B). ADF Receiver Module. (C). DME Transceiver Module. (D). ALL OF THE ABOVE.

482. The Terrain Awareness Display on the EGPWS can be used for navigation. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

483. The navigation and communication data are displayed on the RMU, PFD and MFD displays: (A). FALSE. (B). TRUE.

484. The type of AHRS Attitude and Heading Reference System ERJ-145 LR: (A). AH-800. (B). AH-900. (C). AH-700. (D). AH-550.

485. How many AHRS does the ERJ-145 LR have?. (A). 2 AHRS. (B). 3 AHRS. (C). 4 AHRS. (D). 1 AHRS.

486. The aircraft must remain stationary during alignment (AHRS 1 (2) ALN advisory message presented on the EICAS). (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

487. The Compass Card Display on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indication has a range of 180 degrees. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.

488. Navigation information presented on the Navigation Backup Page is operationally identical to that normally presented on the PFD. (A). TRUE. (B). FALSE.