Exam 1

What is the purpose of the fire extinguishing DISCHARGE light?. a. to indicate thermal pressure relief. b. to indicate activation of the squib circuit. c. to indicate a pressure discharge.

The engine fire detection system uses: a. a single loop system. b. a dual loop and circuit. c. a dual loop or circuit.

How many engine fire extinguishing bottles are installed?. a. 2 per engine. b. 2 per wing. c. 1 per engine.

4) Which of following is correct?. a. in the APU detection system it requires only one loop to sense a fire to get a fire warning. b. the APU system is similar to the engines nacelle detection system.

5) The FIRE DETECTION light at the center instrument panel will illuminate: a. simultaneously with the master FIRE warning light. b. simultaneously with the FAULT light on the F/E pane!. c. when the fault detection system is useless.

6) After take-off, just after gear retraction the wheel well "fire warning" is activated. What would be the correct initial actions?. a. Read the Emergency Checklist. b. Speed max 270 kt/ M.82; Gear down; land as soon as practicable;. c. Check brake temperatures. If normal, disregard fire warning. If high, carry out procedure.

7) How is the cargo fire detection accomplished?. a. by means of smoke detectors. b. by means of fire wire. c. by means of detector elements.

9) In what manner are the cargo fire extinguishing bottles used?. a. No. 1 bottle for forward compartment; no. 2 bottle for aft compartment. b. No. 1 bottle always used first; no. 2 bottle as back up. c. Both bottle are operated simultaneously.

10) Which are all the possible air sources for the pneumatic system?. a. ground air - bleed air all engines - APU. b. bleed air engines 2 and 3 - APU. c. ground air - bleed air engines 1 and 4 - APU.

11) Which is connected to the pneumatic system?. a. forward cargo heat. b. aft cargo heat. c. static vane anti-ice.

12) For what purpose is the pneumatic system connected to the hydraulic system?. a. for air driven hydraulic pumps only. b. for air driven hydraulic pumps and hydraulic reservoir pressure. c. for air driven pumps and accumulators.

13) When a sudden low duct pressure exists: a. the power must be increased. b. the isolation valves must be closed first. c. pack valve no.2 must be closed.

14) When a bleed air OVERHEAT light comes on : a. the effected bleed air valve must be closed first. b. the thrust must be reduced. c. the pre-cooler must be opened.

15) Air used for air conditioning purpose is drawn from: a. ram air out of the air cycle machine inlets underneath the aircraft. b. engine bleed air only. c. any air source supplying pneumatic duct.

17) The recirculation fans are installed to : a. take over ACM function in cases an ACM fails. b. augment air circulation. c. supply gasper air.

19) How is the main equipment center cooled, during normal pressurized flight?. a. cooling air via a dump valve overboard. b. cooling air induced by an operating fan and directed to the aft cargo compartment. c. cooling air induced by an operating fan and directed to the forward cargo compartment.

20) In what way is the aft cargo compartment heated?. a. by main equipment center cooling air. b. by pneumatic air from the cross body duct. c. by pneumatic air from the APU pneu duct, which passes alongside the left aft cargo compartment.

21) To improve take-off performance a "pack off ‘take off may be considered. The improvement will normally affect: a. runway length/obstacle limited TOW. b. climb limited wieght. c. A and B.

22) The engine ice-protection system consists of: A. engine cowl and stator vane anti-icing. B. engine cowl anti-icing. C. PT2 probe, stator vane and engine cowl anti-icing.

23) The recommended engine RPM during nacelle and/or wing anti-ice operation is: A. min. 45% Ni RPM below 10.000 ft.; 50% N1 RPM above 10,000 ft. B. min. 45% N2 RPM below 10,000 ft.; 50% N2 RPM above 10,000 ft. C. min. 45% Ni RPM above 10.000 ft.; 50% N1 RPM below 10,000 ft.

24) The wing anti-icing system is: A. inoperative on the ground, except for testing. B. depending upon engine bleed air only. C. also taking care of stabilizer anti-icing.

25) The purpose of the heating of the no.2 and 3 window is: A. defogging only. B. depending upon engine bleed air only. C. defogging and increasing impact resistance.

26) Pushing the window heat POWER TEST button will: A. Check all the power lights. B. Apply power to window N0.1. C. Check the overheat system.

27) An overheat no.1 window causes: A. only the WINDOW 1 OVHT light to illuminate. B. the WINDOW 1 OVHT light to illuminate and deactivation of the system until after rest.

28) To prevent possible window damage the following button should not be pushed during flight: A. POWER TEST button. B. POWER LIGHTS button. C. OVHT TEST button.

29) Selecting the window heat switch to the OVRD position: A. applies reduce heat to the window for defogging only. B. overrides the normal control, in case of an overheat condition. C. overrides the defogging feature.

30) Switching the probe heaters on during ground operation: A. is not allowed. B. will influence TAT and SAT indications. C. will not influence TAT and SAT indicators.

31) Which of the four hydraulic supply systems are basically identical?. A. all 4 systems. B. system 1 and 4. C. all 4 systems (except for AC hydraulic pump no.4).

32) Except for the brake system, accumulators are not required in the hydraulic systems because: A. the EDP's have a high output. B. the ADP acts as a standby pressure source. C . the lengthy tubing acts as accumulators.

33) The AC hydraulic pump is provided for: A. brake pressure during ground operation without engine power. B. emergency break use. C. back-up no.4 hydraulic system.

34) The AC.hydraulic pump is: A. always available. B. only available with AUX ELECTRICAL POWER. C. c. available during approach with flaps in landing configuration AND on the ground with AUX ELECTRIC POWER.

35) When is the HYD SYS PRESS warning on the center instrument panel activated during flight?. A. when either ADP or EDP fail. B when associated system pressure is low. C. when either pump fails or is switched off.

36) When does ADP pump operation start with control switch in AUTO position (during normal operation?). A. immediately. B. when EDP pressure is below 2600 psi. C. immediately when EDP control switch is placed in OFF position.

37) When does ADP operation start with control switch in CONTINUOUS position?. A. immediately. B. As soon as pneumatic press is Available.

38) When operating the AC hydraulic pump, the HYD SYS PRESS 4 warning light on pilot’s center panel is: A. on and no pressure indication. B. on with pressure indication. C. out with pressure indication.

39) When the fire handle is pulled or the EDP control switch is in SUPPLY OFF position: A. all hydraulic fluid supply is shut-off. B. EDP supply is shut-off but pump cooling still available. C. only EDP supply is shut-off (ADP supply still available).

40) During take-off just before gear retraction phase the HYD SYS PRESS light on the center enunciator panel illuminates. What could be expected if the normal gear and flap retraction procedure would be carried out?. A. part of the gear and flap would retract and airplane pitch change tendency would occur. B. gear and flaps retract normally by means of the other 3 systems. C. only the wing gear will remain extended.

41) Which action must be taken when a fluid loss occurs in any hydraulic system?. A. ADP off - EDP supply off - AP off. B. AP off - ADP off - EDP depr. C. If fluid loss continues, EDP supply off. D. AP off - ADP depr. - EDP off.

42) Why must the main gear trucks be tilted?. A. to fit the gear in the wheel wells. B. to activate the inflight breaks.

44) How are the gear up locks released in case of malfunctioning?. A. mechanically. B. electrically. C. hydraulically.

45) The nose gear up lock can be released by: A. hydraulic power - electrical power - manual power. B. hydraulic power - electrical power - alternate hydraulic power. C. manual power - electrical power - alternate hydraulic power.

46) When is the landing gear lever lock removed?. A. when all trucks are tilted and body and nose gear are centered. B. when all trucks are tilted and the nose gear is centered. C. when all trucks are tilted and the body gear steering is centered.

49) The DOOR OPEN light remain on with the gear lever in up. What initial action should be taken?. A. recycle the gear. B. continue normal flight. C. maintain gear level up, complete departure procedure, max speed 250 kts.

50) The GEAR NOT CENTERED light on the center panel will illuminate: A. when either prim. Or alt. Sensors detect unlocked gear condition. B. only when prim. And alt. Sensors detect unlocked gear condition. C. only when body gear not centered and PL no.3 beyond 50% for T/O.

51) A body gear UNLOCKED warning (prim. And alt.) in T/O results in: A. T/O warning only. B. T/O warning and LG lever latch engaged. C. T/O warning and automatic centering of body gear via electronic control module.

54) With the normal brake source selected, and the hydraulic system 4 electric pump operating, the brake source LOW PRESS light on captain’s panel: A. remains on. B. is out. C. is flashing.

57) When do the AUTO BRAKE lights illuminate?. A. any time the auto brake selector is in the DISARM position. B. when the auto brake selector is switched to OFF. C. after landing when the auto brake selector is still in OFF.

58) The ANTI SKID HYD warning light is installed to indicate: A. the parking brake valve is in the closed position. B. the parking brake valve is not in the full open position. C. hydraulic failure in the anti-skid system.

60) After releasing the parking brakes, the ANTI-SKID HYD light on the center annunciator panel remains on. This means: A. the anti-skid system is not affected. B. the anti-skid system should always be considered inoperative. C. the anti-skid system must be considered inoperative when the ANTI-SKID light also illuminates.

61) Anti-skid protection for the normal brake system utilizes: A. individual anti-skid valves for each wheel. B. One anti-skid valve for paired wheel. C. One anti-skid valve for each truck.

63) During landing the anti-skid system shuts off brake pressure (touch down protection) until: A. all trucks are not tilted. B. main wheel spin up occurs. C. One truck on each side is not tilted.

64) No anti-skid protection is available when the speed is below: A. 10 kts. B. 20 kts. C. 30 Kts.

69) Are all ailerons always operative?. A. yes. B. yes, but outboard aileron deflection depends on airspeed. C. no, outboard ailerons are locked out, when TE flaps are retracted to less than 1.

74) OPRN OF SPD BRAKES WITH T.E FALP EXTEND: A. prevented. B. not allowed. C. allowed.

77) Illumination of the AUTO SPOIL light, on center panel, when the spoiler, when the spoiler lever is moved to armed indicates: A. the system is armed for auto operation. B. the auto spoilers system is inoperative. C. auto spoiler operation is taking place.

78) Illumination of the AUTO SPOIL light indicates: A. spoilers should be operated manually. B. One or more spoiler panel not fully retracted. C. the spoilers are operating automatically on touch down.

80) If during an attempted take-off with the spoilers selected fully up, the P/L's no. 1 and 3 moved beyond 50% of their travel, the first Result will be: A. T/O warning horn sounds momentarily and spoilers retract automatically. B. Spoiler lever moves down and no warning occurs. C. T/O warning horn sounds and spoilers remain up.

82) Illumination of the ELEV FEEL light on the center panel annunciator indicates. A. the feel system is on basic spring force. B. unbalance in the feel hydraulic systems and/or failure in the feel computer. C. stabilizer control is overriding the elevator control.

85) With the power levers in take-off range the take-off warning horn will sound: A. when the stabilizer setting is within the illuminated area but the amber GREEN BAND light is on. B. any time the amber GREEN BAND light is on. C. when the stabilizer setting is outside the illuminated area.

86) What is indicated by illumination of the amber GREEN BAND light?. A. the selected green band area, either APL NOSE UP or APL NOSE DOWN, is in disagreement with the existing C of G. B. the stabilizer setting is outside the illuminated area. C. the setting of stabilizer and flaps are in disagreement.

87) What action should initially be taken when the stabilizer is jammed?. A. stabilizer trim hydraulic shut-off switches CUT-OUT. B. stabilizer maintenance shut-off switches CUT-OUT. C. autopilot OFF.

88) What is the first action to be taken when a runaway stabilizer trim occurs?. A. stabilizer trim hydraulic shut-off switches CUT-OUT. B. counteract runaway by stabilizer trim lever use. C. autopilot off.

90) Illumination of the RUDDER RATIO light indicates that: A. rudder travel availability may be incorrect for the phase of flight. B. no rudder trimming is available. C. either one or both yaw dampers are unserviceable.

91) The flaps asymmetry protection compares the following flaps sections: A. all flap sections during electric or hydraulic operation. B. all flap sections during hydraulic operation. C. symmetric flap sections during hydraulic operation.

92) Asymmetry protection is available with alternate TE flap operation. A. True. B. False.

94) The TE flap alternate extension arming switch has the following functions: A. only arms the directional switches. B. disarms the flap load relief system and arms the directional switches. C. arms the directional switches and bypasses the hydraulic motors.

97) Flap load relief action can occur during: A. alternate operation only. B. hydraulic operation only. C. hydraulic and alternate operation.

98) Illumination of the FLAP LD RELIFE light indicated that due to airspeed. A. the flaps retract initially towards 25 with flaps selected 30. B. the flaps retract until the load has been reduced sufficiently. C. the flaps retract to 20 immediately.

99) Operation of the LE flaps is accomplished by means of either: A. hydraulic or electrical power. B. pneumatic or electrical power. C. pneumatic or hydraulic power.

100) The LE flap position lights are indicating flap position in case of: A. normal operation only. B. alternate operation only. C. normal and alternate operation.

103) The LE alternate extension ARM switch has the following function: A. only arms the directional switches. B. arms the directional switches and shuts off air supply to pneumatic motors. C. arms the directional switches and disables dependency on TE flap position.

105) which of the following control surface position indications give the correct position of the relevant flight controls during cruise?. A. ailerons, elevators and rudders. B. speed brakes (left and right wing), elevators and rudder. C. flight spoilers (left and right wing), elevators and rudders.

106) the horizontal stabilizer is powered by: A. One hydraulic systems only. B. Two hydraulic systems only. C. Two hydraulic systems and a third hydraulic system as a back up.

107) which statement is correct/. A. Crew and pass oxygen systems are two completely separate systems. B. The crew system can be supplied by the pass system in case of emergency. C. Crew and pass systems are normally interconnected.

108) after the passenger oxygen system has been used, resetting the system can be accomplished by: A. switching the passenger oxygen switch on F/E panel to reset. B. using the reset handle in the main equipment center. C. decreasing the cabin altitude to less than 14,000 ft.

109) where can passenger and crew oxygen cylinder pressure normally be read?. A. at the cylinder pressure indicators only. B. at the oxygen pressure indicators on the F/E panel. C. crew system cylinder pressure on the indicators above second observer seat; passenger cylinder pressure on the indicator on the F/E panel.

110) at what cabin altitude will passenger mask container doors open automatically?. A. any altitude," it depends on the rate of cabin depressurization. B. 10,000 ft. C. 14,000 ft.

111) is it possible to pressurize the passenger oxygen system at any altitude if necessary?. A. yes, by operating the oxygen switch on the F/E panel. B. only above 14,000 ft. with above mentioned switch. C. only above 10,000 ft. with above mentioned switch.

112) during a normal flight a passenger needs oxygen. The oxygen will be obtained from: A. A cabin Portable any both. B. the aircraft system. C. the cockpit portable oxygen bottle.

113) Oxygen supply to the cabin is shut-off when: A. the cabin has descended below H.OOO ft. B. the cabin has descended below 10,000 ft. C. the flow control units are reset.

114) which electrical power sources can be paralleled?. A. the engine driven generation. B. the two APU generators. C. the two external power units.

115) is it possible to use the APU when the BATTERY switch is in OFF?. A. yes. B. no.

117) The ESS BUS OFF light (center panel) illuminates. What does it mean exactly?. A. no power on the essential DC bus. B. no power on the Essential AC bus. C. no power on either the essential AC or DC bus.

118) if ESS BUS OFF light comes on: A. the essential bus selector must be switched to an operating generator. B. the standby power switch must be switched ON. C. the selected generator must be switched OFF.

119) which of the following statements concerning the standby busses is correct?. A. They are only connected to the main electrical system when ESS AC BUS switch is in normal. B. The primary power source for these busses is the main battery. C. They are dead when the STANDBY POWER switch is in OFF.

120) when does the green standby power ON light illuminate?. A. during operation of the static inverter. B. during a DUAL automatic landing’. C. after shutting down engine no. 4.

121) in flight static inverter will automatically start when: A. a power failure occurs to the battery bus. B. the no. 4 BUS TIE BRAKER is tripped, while generator no.4 is in normal operator. C. a power failure occurs to either the essential AC or DC bus.

124) with the cockpit emergency light switch in ARMED and the UMARMED light remaining on, this: A. is in normal indication. B. may be caused by the cabin attendant's switch being ON, causing the emergency lights to illuminate. C. may be caused by an electrical power failure causing the emergency lights to illuminate.

126) which statement concerning the beacon lights is correct?. A. The lights are always fully controllable by the switch. B. The lights are always on during flight regardless of switch position. C. The lights dim automatically during ground operation INS no. 1 normally serves:.

134) APFD computers are for heading information: A. hard wired to its resp. INS. B. hard wired to its resp. compass couplers. C. transferable between compass couplers.

135) APFD computers are for attitude information: A. hard wired to its resp. INS unit. B. transferable to INS unit no.3. C. hard wired to INS-3 only.

136) Input signals to the AP and FD system are always processed through: A. the APFD computers. B. the INS system and compass couplers. C. the INS and VHF HAV receivers.

141) the first action upon illumination of the YAW DAMPER light must be: A. switch off associated yaw damper switch. B. switch off autopilots. C. check instrument panels for abnormalities.

142) Manual adjustment of the FD pitch bar can be done with the pitch mode selector in: A. OFF position only. B. either OFF or TURB position. C. any position.

143) when the pitch mode selector is in TURB and an AP engage lever is selected to CMD, the result will be: A. AP engage lever will not hold in CMD. B. Both remain in selected position. C. Pitch mode selectors moved to OFF.

144) the pitch mode selector returns automatically to the OFF position when altitude capture occurs. A. True. B. False.

153) The GLIDE SLOPE flag on the HIS will be visible when: A. no ILS frequency is selected. B. selected GS signal not valid. C. associated VHF NAV receiver tuned to 118.00.

155) Showing of a NAV warning flag on the RMI means: A. the associated VHF NAV receiver does not receive a valid radio signal. B. the associated VHF NAV receiver is tuned to 118.00. C. the heading information signal to the RMI card rotation is not valid.

156) a flashing INST WARN light always coincides with a flag warning on either pilot's instrument Panel. A. True. B. False.

157) the amber MON lights of the CIW illuminates. This means: A. the GS receivers are in disagreement. B. the other CIW light are no longer operative. C. instrument warning flags are no longer operative.

158) A steady red AP warning light may indicate a CAM-OUT condition: A. only in DUAL AP operation. B. only in TRIPLE AP operation. C. both A and B.

159) a steady red AP warning light during single or dual channel operation may indicate: A. an invalid signal for selected mode of operation. B. autopilot is disengaged. C. LAND mode selected and only one autopilot is in CMD.

162) which of the following statement concerning VHF NAV-3 correct?. A. It can be utilized for all three APFD computers. B. It can be utilized for APFD computer C only. C. It is dependent on the LH track selector for VOR use.

163) Pitch control of the APFD in GA mode provides for: A. 1000 ft/min with flaps 20 or less. B. 1000 ft/min with flaps 25 or less. C. 1000 ft/min with flaps 25 or 20.

167) an illuminated AUTO STAB TRIM light during cruise: A. may be disregarded. B. requires a retrim of the aircraft by means of the trim levers at the control stand. C. requires to hold the control column in existing position and to disengage the AP.

168) The maximum crosswind component with weather condition less than 250 ft/12oo m. when Making an automatic landing is : A. 10 kt. B. s kt. C. 15 kt CAT-1, 10 kt CAT-II.

175) The WARN light on the CDU comes on during flight. What is the correct procedure, after the Initial actions are completed?. A. select DSRTK/STS. B. press the HOLD switch. C. do both A and B.

176) The ALERT light illuminates: A. When a malfunction happens. B. 20 NM from the next way point. C. 2 minutes away from the next point.

177) for proper alignment of the INS, insertion of the present position: A. is necessary. B. is unnecessary. C. depends on the accuracy we want.

178) The READY NAV light tells us that: A. the mode selector is in the NAV position. B. fine alignment has started. C. the set may be switched to NAV.

179) Interruption of us V AC electric power during NAV operation means. A. the INS battery take over. B. shut-down of the INS. C. the red warning light illuminates.

180) The DISTANCE AND GROUND SPEED DISPLAY no. 1 refers to: A. INS-1. B. INS-2. C. Either INS 1 or INS-3 depending on Capt.’s/F/O's alternate selection.

183) what happens if the ATC transponder transfer switch is moved from 1 to 2?. A. no.2 is switched to standby mode. B. no.2 is starts operating immediately. C. no.2 starts operating after a delay of 3 minutes.

185) how can the VOLUME of the marker beacon signals be changed?. A. by the HI-LO switch at the control panel. B. by the MARKER switch at audio selector box. C. automatically by the flap setting.

186) When the Captain moves the STATIC SOURCE SELECTOR VALVE to ALTERNATE, which Source (s ) will be used ?. A. auxiliary system no. 1. B. alternate static. C. auxiliary system no. 2.

187) which part of the Mach/airspeed indicator would you suspect when the flag is showing in the Mach window?. A. only the Mach indication. B. all indications of the instrument. C. Mach-and maximum airspeed indication.

188) how can the maximum airspeed warning system be checked?. A. by depressing the warning light. B. by setting the airspeed bug over the BARBER POLE. C. by activating the test switch on the overhead panel.

190) Selcal 2 monitors: A. VHF-2 and HF-2. B. VHF-3 and HF-2. C. VHF-2, VHF-3 and HF-2.

196) your life vest should be put on before a premeditated ditching and: A. should only be inflated after you have evacuated the aircraft. B. may be inflated on board. C. should be inflated in flight to minimize injuries during impact.

illumination of an amber light at the top of the N2 indicator means: signal loss to the associated tape. electrical power loss of the tape. the tape has mover into the red range.

The TAT/N1 limit system compensates for: use of nacelle and wing anti-ice only. operation with less than 3 packs only. both cases (A & B).

For what porpouse is the flight idle condition created?. to improve engine acceleration durin overshoot. to reduce fuel flow with PL's in the idle. to improve engine acceleration durin take-off.

the engines are in the flight idle mode when the aircraft is. in flight for more than 5 seconds. in flight and the TE flaps are <23*. in flight and the TE flaps are >23*.

illumination of the ground idle light in flight indicates: all engines are operating in ground idle. at least one engine did not shift to flight idle when required. TE flaps <23* and least one engine did not shift to ground idle.

What will be your action when the ground idle light illuminates during flight?. maintain at least 55%N1 on all engines. maintain at least 45%N1 on all engines. maintain at least 45%N2 on all engines.

wich of the following is correct?. in the apu detection system is requires only one loop to sense a fire to get a fire warning. the apu system is similar to the engines nacelle detection system.

the airconditioning packs deliver air to the zones in the following manner: each pack to its own zone. via a common manifold to the zones. selection possibility of each pack to different zone.

after gear up selection, the gear light remains on. What initial action should be taken?. recycle the gear. continue normal flight. maintain gear lever up, complete departure, speed max 250 kts.

The door open light remains on with the gear lever up. What initial action should be taken?. recycle the gear. continue normal flight. maintain gear lever up,complete departure procedure speed max 250kts.

the gear not centered light on the center panel will illuminate. when either prim. or alt. sensors detect unlocked gear condition. only when prim. and alt. sensor detect unlocked gear continion. only when body gear not centered and PL no.3 beyond 50% for T/O.

A body gear unlocked warning (prim and alt) in T/O results in: T/O warning only. T/O warning and LG lever latch engaged. T/O warning and automatic centering of body.

wich break source is active when switch at F/E panel panels is in SEC SYST position and switch at captains panel is in reserve break open position. system no.1. system no. 2. system no.1 or 2.

Brake low press warning light on F/E's and captain's panel will indicate. low pressure in the selected brake source, either 4,1 or 2. low pressure in system 4,1 or 2. low pressure in system 2 only at captain's.

With the normal brake source selected, and the hydraulic system 4 electric pump operating, the brake source LOW PRESS light on captain's panel: remains on. is out. is flashing.

to keep the parking brake valve?. to keep the parking brake lever locked. to shut-off brake return oil. to open the anti-skid control valve.

Parking brake can be used on. normal brake system. normal and reserve brake system. only no.4 system by AC pump operation.

when do the AUTO BRAKE lights illuminate?. any time the auto brake selector is in hte DISARM position. when the auto brake selector is switched to OFF. after landing when the autobrake selector is still in off.

the ANTI-SKID HYD warning light illuminated to indicate: the parking brake valve is in the closed position. the parking brake valve is not in the full open position. hydraulic failure in the anti-skid system.

the reserve break system is a complete separate brake system unto the shuttle valves. it includes selector valve, brake control valve and paired anti-skid valves. true. false.

after releasing the parking brakes, the ANTI-SKID HYD light on the center annunciator panel remains on. this means: the anti-skid system is not affected. the anti-skid system should always be considered inoperative. the anti-skid system must be considered inoperative when the ANTI-SKID light also illuminates.

Anti-skid protection for the normal brake system utilizes: individual anti-skid valves for each wheel. one anti-skid valve for paired wheel. one anti-skid valve for each truck.

Following componentes must be in the required position to operate the anti-skid system: landing gear handle down, anti-skid control switch ON, all trucks not tilted. landing gear handle down, anti-skid control switch ON, one truck not tilted. landing gear down and locked, anti-skid control switch ON, one truck on each side not tilted.

During landing the anti-skid system shuts off brake pressure (touch down protection) until: all trucks are not tilted. main wheel spin up occurs. one truck on each side is not tilted.

No anti-skid protection is available when the speed is below. 10kts. 20kts. 15kts.

What is the purpose of the EXT position of the alternate gear extension switches?. to start the extension cycle. to open the limit switch. to lower the doors.

using the reserve brake system causes the atni-skid system to perform the following actions: paired wheel anti-skid and touch down protection. single wheel anti-skid and no touch down protection. paired wheel anti-skid and touch down protection.

the ANTI-SKID warning light on the center panel is installed to indicate: a failure in the electrical control circuit. a hydraulic failure in the anti-skid system. the anti-skid system is activated.

the BRAKE OVH light on the center panel illuminates: always in case of a brake overheat condition (master warning). only simultaneous with the overheat light on the FE panel. only when the appropiate brake unit is selected.

all primary controls (each aileron, the rudder and each elevator) consists of 2 control surfaces. true. false.

are all ailerons always operative?. yes. yes, but outboard aileron deflection depends on airspeed. no, outboard ailerons are locked out, when TE flaps are retracted to less than 1.

aileron trimming is accomplished by means of: shifting the neutral position of the feel mechanism. trim tabs. servo/flight tabs.

wich statement about the aileron trim switch operation is correct?. either one switch activates the electric motor. one switch arms to other, thus resulting in electric motor activation. one switch release the brake and the other activates the electric motor.

the flight spoilers are activated in case of: aileron control wheel movement out of the neutral position. aileron trim in excess of 1 unit. aileron control wheel movement in excess of 1 unit.

during turns with speed brakes fully extended, the spoiler panels, also acting as flight spoilers, will react in the following manner: all remain the selected speed brake position. the panels on the LOW wing progressively extend more. the panel on the HIGH wing progressively retract.

operation of speed brakes with TE flaps extend. prevented. not allowed. allowed.

when spoiler lever is NOT armed automatic spoiler action will occur if: P/L are closed. P/L are close and main gear on each side is not tilted. P/L 1 and 3 are closed and P/L 2 or 4 are one main gear on each side not tilted.

when spoiler lever is armed automatic spoiler extension will occur if: P/L are closed. P/L are closed and one main gear on each side not tilted. one main gear on each side is not tilted.

the take-off warning system-guarding against extended spoilers-is via. any spoiler panel not fully down. the spoiler lever not in down detent. LH spoiler mixer.

the existing feel force of the elevator system is: proportional to airspeed inly. constant in all flight conditions. depending on airspeed and stabilizer position.

what action must initially be taken when a TE flap asymmetry occurs?. leave flap lever in last selected position. operate alternate TE flap system. move flap lever to assymmetry posion.

in case of TE ALT FLAPS operation, wich os achieved by using the alternate flap switches, flap lever operationis also required, why?. to arm or activate circuits dependent on flap lever position. to stop flap movement at the selected position. to arm asymmetry protection.

failure in the TE flap inidicator system can preclude further operation of the flaps. true. false.

what action must be initially be taken when LE amber light remains ON?. operate the alternate LE flap system. leave flap lever in last selected position. move flap lever to up.

A position check of the LE flaps may be made by observing. the LE flaps position from the cockpit. the behavior of the aircraft. the annunciator module on the F/E panel.

which power sources(s) can be used to supply the essential AC bus when the ESS ACC BUS selector is in normal?. only generator no.4. only generator no.1. any generator or combination of engine driven generators.

alternate LE flaps operation is only possible with the TE flap lever in the correct position. true. false.

in case of failure of the normal AC power, which of the following statements concerning pilot's and F/E's lights is correct?. all background panel lights will automatically switch over to ESS. AC power and are still dimmable. all background lights will automatically switch over to battery bus power (bright only). the standby background lights will illuminate bright on battery power.

when do the landing lights change from dim bright?. at tocuh down. at flap extension. at gear extension.

INS no.1 normally serves: APFD A-Upper yaw damper - waether radar 1 - compass couple 1 - ADI 1. true. false.

INS no.3 normally serves: APFD C - ADI standby. true. false.

the captain's and F/O's ADI spheres are: hard wired to its resp. INS. transferable to INS no.3. hard wired to its resp. APFD computer.

the Captain's and first officer's HIS are: hard wired to resp. INS - 1 and INS - 2. hard wired to resp. compass coupler 1 and 2. transferable to resp. compass couple 2 and 1.

in what way is the INS involver in deriving magnetic heading?. north-oriented gyro. magnetic azimuth gyro. platform heading is used to stabilize flux valve signals in the compass coupler.

the captain's RMI is hard wired. to compass coupler no.2. to compass couple no.1. transferable to APFD C.

output signals from the various APFD computers are transferable (computer selection possibility) to the following components: AP's only. FD's only. Both AP's and FD's.

the function of the alternate switch is to permit selection of INS-3 signals to: either pilot's ADI only (attitude). either compass coupler only (platform heading). both A and B.

the VHF NAV units output to the APFD computers is transferable. this applies for: VOR/LOC signals only. GS signals only. both VOR/LOC and GS signals.

when AP is used in the TURB mode, the automatic stabilizer trim is deactivated. the statement is: true. false.

selection of the VOR radial of the VHF-NAV-I receiver is by mean of: the LH track selector. the RH track selector. either selector depending on position of the NAV transfer selector.

selecting the NAV tranfer selector to MULTI, the NAV radio signal distribution is as follows: NAV I to Captain's and F/O's HIS display. NAV II to Captain's and F/O's HIS display. NAV I to Captain's and NAV II to F/O's ADI and HIS display.

wich mode is available for AP when the engage lever is in MAN. Altitude hold. Altitude select. Heading select.

ATT flager ADJ means. Applicable APFD computer failure. Applicable INS is not in the NAV mode. Power failure or applicable INS attitude signals not valid.

the SPD flag in the ADI indicates. Power failure to auto throttle system computer. auto throttle system data not valid. speed error is more than 10 kts.

with the NAV transfer selector in MULTI, the NAV control annunciator in the HIS's read 1. this indicates that: the HSI's are supplied by VHF NAV I receiver. only one VHF NAV receiver is in operation. the VHF NAV control panel no. I is controlling the receivers supplying the HIS's.

the double pointer of the RMI (VOR station selected) is controlled by: VHF NAV-1. VHF NAV-II. Either VHF NAV-I or II, depending on NAV transfer selector position.

what does a steady amber AP warning light indicate: possibly a CAM-OUT of associated AP. invalid signal for associated AP. cruise AP a incommon F/D com select basicpos.

Position (Capt's in C/ F/O's in B). Suddenly AP disengagement occurs due to an INS-attitude signal failure (AP disengage warning, CIW flashing, ATT lights on CAPT's ADI the attitude sephere topples and ATT flag appears). Which of the following statement is correct?. selection of CAPT ALT with the alternate switch will cure the problem, capt's ADI and PA A can again be used. selection of CAPT ALT (alternate switch) will bring Capt's ADI back to normal, however, AP A remains u/s, so AP B or C should be used. selection of another (operative) FLT DIR COMPTR on Capt's panel is required to bring Capt's ADI back to normal, however, AP A remains i/s, so AP B or C should be used.

simultaneous activacion of the go-around and activation of the auto throttle system N1 mode occur, when the following palm switches on the levers are pressed: any one PL switch. switches on PL's 1 and 4. switches on PL's 2 and 3.

during autoland at 50 kt the F/E calls "NO FLARE". make an overshoot immediately. override AP manually. disconnect AP and ATS immediately.

wich instrument displays true HDG?. PDI. RMI. HIS.

PDI-1 refer to: INS-2. INS-1. Either INS-1 or INS-3 depending on Capt's/ F/O'salt. Selection.

The track pointer on the PDI indicates: desired true track. desired true HDG. actual true track.

the ground proximity warning stops: when the aircraft is no longer in an unsafe condition. when the system is reset by means of the test button. when the gear is selected down.

how could a CO2 extinguisher be operated?. just pull trigger, direct CO2 at base of flames. swing up horn, keep extinguiser in upright and pull trigger, direct co2 at base of the flames. swing up horn and deep extinguisher in upright position.

how do you put on and fasten your life vest?. slip head through neck-opening, back flap in front and fasten straps to ring at the back of you, pull loose ands, not tight. slip head through neck-opening and fasten straps to ring at the slide. slip head through neck-opening, back flap behind and fasten strips to ring front, pull loose ends, mot too tight.

a radio survival beacon is available: in all dinghies. in 4 dinghy-compartment (2 on either side of the aircraft). one in the lounge and 4 in the cabin.

How do you warm the cabin crew just before take-off to their seats?. by verbal command via PAS. by one chime. by two chimes.

what must be done by the CA'S upon the command "cabin crew, yellow door selectors atuomatic". unlock the selector level and move the door control handle to the automatic position. push the selector level upward. push the selector level in the down position and check the annuciator reads "automatic".

doors in AUTOMATIC means: slide is connected to flow fittings, door is powered. door can be opened without inflating the slide. slide is ready for manual inflation.

when must the cabin crew take their seats during a normal approach to land?. when the NO SMOKING sing is illuminated. when the FASTEN SEAT BELT sing is switched on. when the TWO-CHIME signal is given by the cockpit crew.

when may CA's open the doors after a normal landing?. after the command "cabin crew, doors may be opened". after the command "cabin crew, doors manual". after the command "cabin crew, doors automatic".

what happens if the weather radar transfer-switch is switched from 1 to 2. th no.2 set start operating after 3 minutes. the no.2 set start operating immediately. nothing' because no.2 is normally not installed.

illumination of the ATC transponder transfer switch is moved from 1 to 2?. no.2 is switched to standby mode. no.2 is starts operating immediately. no.2 starts operating after a delay of 3 minutes.

the HF control is not equipped with a turning light, How can it be checked that the antenna turning in progress?. it cannot be check. by an indicator. by a tone via the headset.

the altitude alert system take barometric pressure correction from: captain;s altimeter. F/O's altimeter.

if stairway cannot be used, who opens the upper deck door?. normally the F/E. cabin attendant. first officer.

what should be done if the slide pack of an upper deck door fails to rotate outboard automatically?. pull manual inflation handle. pull up manual release handle and rotate slide pack outboard. block exit and redirect evacuation.

what action must be take if after impact the slide is jettisoned, but inflation is not realized?. block exit and redirect the evacuation. inflate the slide manually. climb down and hold slide.

the captains should evacuate the aircraft: via the upper deck door. via door I3: on water door I4 (door I2 in I2 pallets configuration). at the left side on terrain, on water door I4.

The first officer: via upper deck door. via door 22, on water door 23. at right side on terrain, on water door 24.

the flight engineer. via upper deck door. via door 13, both on land on water. at right side on terrain, on water door 22.

when the captains decides that the preparations for an emergency situation are to be made, he will call the purser by: the interphone system, dialing 11 or switching the SEAT BELT sing six (6) times. the interphone system, dialing 55 or switching the SEAT BELT sing six (6) time. using the megaphone.

who, in principle, gives the command to the aircraft?. purser. captain. purser and assisting purser.

when the PAS is inoperative, in which way will the command EMERGENCY STATIONA be given?. the captain uses the megaphone. the captain advises the purser by interphone (dial 11). the purser uses the PAS.

Which command are given by the captain via the PAS before impact. EMERGENCY STATION, BRACE, EVACUATE AIRCRAFT. EMERGENCY STATION, BRACE FOR IMPACT. PREPARE FOR EMERGENCY LANDING, EMERGENCY STATION.

What is the meaning of the command BRACE FOR IMPACT?. passenger and crew take brace position. cabin attendant take immediately their emergency positions. cabin attendants finish their preparations.

what should be done in case of premeditated emergency when passengers are seated at the upper deck and seats are available at the main deck?. transfer passengers from upper deck to main deck. transfer passengers from main deck to upper deck. do not transfer passengers from upper deck to main deck.

what should the cockpit crew do after impact, when the aircraft has come to a complete standstill?. open upper deck door, inflate slide and leave aircraft. proceed down the stairway to the main deck to assist cabin crew. proceed down the stairway to the main deck and leave aircraft via door 11.