EXAMEN CERTIFICACIÓN CCNA R&S

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?. 252. 253. 254. 255.

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?. application. presentation. session. transport. internet. data link.

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?. Interface Address: 192.168.4.7 Physical Address: 000f.2480.8916. Interface Address: 192.168.4.7 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae. Interface Address: 192.168.6.1 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae. Interface Address: 192.168.6.1 Physical Address: 000f.2480.8916. Interface Address: 192.168.6.2 Physical Address: 0010.5a0c.feae. Interface Address: 192.168.6.2 Physical Address: 000f.2480.8916.

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.). the IP address of Switch 1. the MAC address of Switch 1. the IP address of Host C. the MAC address of Host C. the IP address of the router's E0 interface. the MAC address of the router's E0 interface.

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.). when they receive a special token. when there is a carrier. when they detect no other devices are sending. when the medium is idle. when the server grants access.

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type. Router C will send a Router Selection message type. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.

Drag the cable type on the left to the purpose for which it is best suited on the right. (Not all options are used.). crossover. null modem. straight-through. rollover. 9-25 pin serial.

Match the terms on the left with the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.). frames. packets. UDP. IP address. segments. MAC addresses. windowing. routing.

PC_1 is exchanging packets with the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave RouterB interface Fa0/1 towards RouterA. Drag the correct frame and packet addresses to their place in the table. Destination MAC. Source MAC. Destination IP Address. Source IP Address.

PC_1 is exchanging packets with the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave RouterB interface Fa0/1 towards RouterA. Drag the correct frame and packet addresses to their place in the table. Source MAC. Destination MAC. Source IP Address. Destination IP Address.

Refer to the exhibit. Complete this network diagram by dragging the correct device name or description to the correct location. Not all the names or descriptions will be used. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?. VLANs have not been created yet. An IP address must be configured for the port. The port is currently configured for access mode. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?. learning. listening. discarding. forwarding.

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?. The command is rejected. The port turns amber. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?. path cost. lowest port MAC address. VTP revision number. highest port priority number. port priority number and MAC address.

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?. the operation of VTP. a method of VLAN trunking. an approach to wireless LAN communication. the process for root bridge selection. VLAN pruning.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?. It creates a VLAN 999 interface. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.). 802.1d. VTP. 802.1q. STP. SAP.

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78.

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?. More collision domains will be created. IP address utilization will be more efficient. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.). A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?. 802.3ad. 802.1w. 802.1D. 802.1Q.

Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Which WAN protocol is being used?. ATM. HDLC. Frame Relay. PPP.

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.). VTP. 802.1q. IGP. ISL. 802.3u.

Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?. 1 through 1001. 2 through 1001. 1 through 1002. 2 through 1005.

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.). Switch A - Fa0/0. Switch A - Fa0/1. Switch B - Fa0/0. Switch B - Fa0/1. Switch C - Fa0/0. Switch C - Fa0/1.

Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20.

Refer to the exhibit. A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?. trunk mode mismatches. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination. native VLAN mismatches. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet.

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.). RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.). SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator's attempt to telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet. The switch interface connected to the router is down. Host B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?. Switch1. Switch2. Switch3. Switch4.

What is one benefit of PVST+?. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.). transparent. auto. on. desirable. blocking. forwarding.

Refer to Exhibit: How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?. 1. 2. 6. 12.

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.). 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.). All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media. All designated ports are in a forwarding state. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?. Switch3, port fa0/1. Switch3, port fa0/12. Switch4, port fa0/11. Switch4, port fa0/2. Switch3, port Gi0/1. Switch3, port Gi0/2.

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state?. converged. redundant. provisioned. spanned.

What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.). transparent. auto. on. desirable. client. forwarding.

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.). RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. RSTP defines new port roles. RSTP defines no new port states. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.). Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled.

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?. the switch with the highest MAC address. the switch with the lowest MAC address. the switch with the highest IP address. the switch with the lowest IP address.

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.). VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?. This design will function as intended. Spanning-tree will need to be used. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. The connection between switches should be a trunk. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?. The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches. The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk. At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate. Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches. router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12.

Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be?. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252.

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?. 172.16.16.0. 172.16.0.0. 172.16.24.0. 172.16.28.0.

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?. ::1. ::. 2000::/3. 0::/10.

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?. 10.188.31.0/26. 10.188.31.0/25. 10.188.31.0/28. 10.188.31.0/27. 10.188.31.0/29.

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol?. optional IPsec. autoconfiguration. no broadcasts. complicated header. plug-and-play. checksums.

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?. ipv6 local. ipv6 host. ipv6 unicast-routing. ipv6 neighbor.

What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6?. global unicast. anycast. multicast. unspecified address.

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?. NIC. BIA. OUI. VAI.

Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?. 255.255.255.0. 255.255.254.0. 255.255.252.0. 255.255.248.0.

Refer to the exhibit. 10.0.0.0 /21. 10.0.0.0 /22. 10.0.0.0 /23. 10.0.0.0 /24.

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.). anycast. broadcast. multicast. podcast. allcast.

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.). There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?. 192.168.1.56/26. 192.168.1.56/27. 192.168.1.64/26. 192.168.1.64/27.

Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.). Network A - 172.16.3.48/26. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25. Network A - 172.16.3.192/26. Link A - 172.16.3.0/30. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30. Link A - 172.16.3.112/30.

The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?. 8. 6. 30. 32. 14.

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?. Addresses in a private range will not be routed on the Internet backbone. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two.). reduces routing table entries. auto-negotiation of media rates. efficient utilization of MAC addresses. dedicated communications between devices. ease of management and troubleshooting.

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72.

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.). The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.). Global addresses start with 2000::/3. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.). no broadcast. change of source address in the IPv6 header. change of destination address in the IPv6 header. Telnet access does not require a password. autoconfiguration. NAT.

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25.

Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?. 0.0.0.240. 255.255.255.252. 255.255.255.0. 255.255.255.224. 255.255.255.240.

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?. 24. 4. 8. 16.

What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.). A. enable dual-stack routing. B. configure IPv6 directly. C. configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands. D. use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets. E. statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses. F. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.

Refer to the exhibit. In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?. 172.16.0.0 /16. 172.16.0.0 /20. 172.16.0.0 /24. 172.32.0.0 /16. 172.32.0.0 /17. 172.64.0.0 /16.

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?. by appending 0xFF to the MAC address. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it. by inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?. 172.1.0.0/22. 172.1.0.0/21. 172.1.4.0/22. 172.1.4.0/24 172.1.5.0/24 172.1.6.0/24 172.1.7.0/24. 172.1.4.0/25 172.1.4.128/25 172.1.5.0/24 172.1.6.0/24 172.1.7.0/24.

Which option is a valid IPv6 address?. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1.

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.). one-to-many communication model. one-to-nearest communication model. any-to-many communication model. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group. the same address for multiple devices in the group. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device.

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.). 255.255.255.0. 255.255.255.128. 255.255.252.0. 255.255.255.224. 255.255.255.192. 255.255.248.0.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.). host A IP address: 192.168.1.79. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190.

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?. FF02::1. FF02::2. FF02::3. FF02::4.

Refer to the exhibit. Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?. 172.16.0.0./21. 172.16.0.0./20. 172.16.0.0./16. 172.16.0.0/18.

Which IPv6 address is valid?. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B.

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64. ipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64. ipv6 autoconfig.

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69.

The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?. 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252. 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252. 10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252. 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252. 10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252.

Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right. the number of point-to-point links in a transmission path. the data capacity or a link. the amount of time required to move a packet from source to destination. the amount of activity on a network resource. usually refers to the bit error rate of each network link. a configurable value based by default on the bandwidth of the interface.

Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to the appropriate routing protocol or route. (Not all options are used.). 0. 1. 20. 90. 100. 110. 120. 130.

Routing has been configured on the local router with these commands: Local(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 Local(config)# ip route 10.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2 Local(config)# ip route 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.3.3 Drag each destination IP address on the left to its correct next hop address on the right. 10.1.1.10. 10.1.0.14. 10.2.1.3. 10.1.4.6. 10.1.0.123. 10.6.8.4.

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?. Bandwidth. Bandwidth and Delay. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load.

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.). A. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth. B. to reduce routing overhead. C. to speed up convergence. D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network. E. to reduce the complexity of router configuration. F. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches.

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?. Router# service password-encryption. Router(config)# password-encryption. Router(config)# service password-encryption. Router# password-encryption.

The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.

The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two.). a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to CentralRouter. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to CentralRouter. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to InternetRouter. a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.

What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?. Only the enable password will be encrypted. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?. It configures SSH globally for all logins. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason that the interface status is "administratively down, line protocol down"?. There is no encapsulation type configured. There is a mismatch in encapsulation types. The interface is not receiving any keepalives. The interface has been configured with the shutdown command. The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device. The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.

Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?. The loopback addresses are on different subnets. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different. Route summarization is enabled on both routers. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?. the OSPF route. the EIGRP route. the RIPv2 route. all three routes. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes.

Refer to the exhibit. The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency. Router# show ip eigrp topology. Router# show ip eigrp interfaces. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors.

Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.). All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

What is a global command?. a command that is set once and affects the entire router. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode.

Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network.

A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?. It checks the configuration register. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server. It loads the first image file in flash memory. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes. The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches.

Which command displays CPU utilization?. show protocols. show process. show system. show version.

What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.). Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?. show ip ospf link-state. show ip ospf lsa database. show ip ospf neighbors. show ip ospf database.

Refer to the exhibit. The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?. 3MB. 4MB. 5MB. 7MB. 8MB.

Refer to the exhibit. The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three.). The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2. The London router is a Cisco 2610. The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router. The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.

If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.). ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0. ip default-network 0.0.0.0. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1.

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when adynamic protocol is also being used?. hop count. Administrative distance. link bandwidth. link delay. link cost.

Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.). FastEthernet0 /0. FastEthernet0 /1. Serial0/0. Serial0/1.102. Serial0/1.103. Serial0/1.104.

Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1.

Refer to the exhibit. A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.). HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0.

Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.). the amount of available ROM. The amount of available flash and RAM memory. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router. show version. show processes. Show running-config.

Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?. Show reload. show boot. Show running-config. Show version.

Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?. tracert address. traceroute address. telnet address. ssh address.

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.). hello packets. SAP messages sent by other routers. LSAs from other routers. beacons received on point-to-point links. Routing tables received from other link-state routers. TTL packets from designated routers.

Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.). It supports VLSM. It is used to route between autonomous systems. It confines network instability to one area of the network. It increases routing overhead on the network. It allows extensive control of routing updates. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config command on the router. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?. The network administrator failed to save the configuration. The configuration register is set to 0x2100. The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration. The configuration register is set to 0x2102. The router is configured with the boot system startup command.

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?. 90. 100. 110. 120.

Which characteristics are representatives of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.). provides common view of entire topology. Exchanges routing tables with neighbors. calculates shortest path. utilizes event-triggered updates. utilizes frequent periodic updates.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0. No further routing configuration is required.

Refer to the exhibit. Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog. In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash.

Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?. enable cdp. cdp enable. cdp run. run cdp.

Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?. 10.1.1.2. 10.1.2.2. 10.1.3.3. 10.1.4.4.

Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?. One interface has a problem. Two interfaces have problems. The interfaces are functioning correctly. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.

Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.). RAM. NVRAM. flash memory. HTTP server. TFTP server. Telnet server.

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?. 10.1.1.2. 10.154.154.1. 172.16.5.1. 192.168.5.3.

Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.). Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1.

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.). All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID. Only one process number can be used on the same router. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

Refer to the exhibit. For what two reasons has the router loaded its IOS image from the location that is shown? (Choose two.). Router1 has specific boot system commands that instruct it to load IOS from a TFTP server. Router1 is acting as a TFTP server for other routers. Router1 cannot locate a valid IOS image in flash memory. Router1 defaulted to ROMMON mode and loaded the IOS image from a TFTP server. Cisco routers will first attempt to load an image from TFTP for management purposes.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the router from the console output?. No configuration file was found in NVRAM. No configuration file was found in flash. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.

Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.). one physical interface for each subinterface. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface. a management domain for each subinterface. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags. one subinterface per VLAN. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags.

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.). Router(config)# router ospf 0. Router(config)# router ospf 1. Router(config)# router ospf area 0. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0.

A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop.

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?. 2. 8. 16. unlimited.

Which command shows your active Telnet connections?. show cdp neigbors. show session. show users. show vty logins.

Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?. a backup route, stored in the routing table. a primary route, stored in the routing table. a backup route, stored in the topology table. a primary route, stored in the topology table.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?. Switch1(config)# line con0 Switch1(config-line)# password cisco Switch1(config-line)#login. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# duplex full Switch1(config-if)# speed 100. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk.

Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.

Refer to the exhibit. Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration. Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity. incompatible IP address. insufficient bandwidth. incorrect subnet mask. incompatible encapsulation. link reliability too low. IPCP closed.

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server. Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?. The network has not fully converged. IP routing is not enabled. A static route is configured incorrectly. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated. The routing table on Coffee has not updated.

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem? Router(config)# router ospf 1 Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0. The process id is configured improperly. The OSPF area is configured improperly. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly. The network number is configured improperly. The AS is configured improperly. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable by the administrator. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted.

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true of the configuration for this network?. What statement is true of the configuration for this network?. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1. ExternalRouter must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24.

Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP server?. A. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the hosts uses the same address at all times. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time, at the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made. Addresses are leased to hosts, which periodically contact the DHCP server to renew the lease.

What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.). NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.

On which options are standard access lists based?. destination address and wildcard mask. destination address and subnet mask. source address and subnet mask. source address and wildcard mask.

A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the Internet. Which ACL can be used?. standard. extended. dynamic. reflexive.

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?. A. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made, and another address is then assigned. Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.

Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.

Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?. A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers. B. The passwords do not match on the two routers. C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface. D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.

Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.). Set the IP gateway to be used by the network. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.

When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two.). network or subnetwork IP address. broadcast address on the network. IP address leased to the LAN. IP address used by the interfaces. manually assigned address to the clients. designated IP address to the DHCP server.

Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.). They allow connections to be initiated from the outside. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined. They are always present in the NAT table. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.). The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.

Drag the security features on the left to the specific security risks they help protect against on the right. (Not all options are used.). access-group. console password. enable secret. CHAP authentication. VTY password. service password-encryption.

Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show. Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.). Port security needs to be globally enabled. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.

Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1.

How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router.

Refer to the exhibit. Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?. ACDB. BADC. DBAC. CDBA.

An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102?. no ip access-class 102 in. no ip access-class 102 out. no ip access-group 102 in. no ip access-group 102 out. no ip access-list 102 in.

Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?. BackboneFast. UplinkFast. Root Guard. BPDU Guard. BPDU Filter.

When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?. show ip access-lists. show access-lists. show interface. show ip interface. list ip interface.

A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure?. A Level 5 password is not set. An ACL is blocking Telnet access. The vty password is missing. The console password is missing.

Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface. You can apply only one access list on any interface. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.

Which item represents the standard IP ACL?. access-list 110 permit ip any any. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255. access list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22.

A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.). access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0.

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.). Administratively shut down the interface. physically secure the interface. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.). SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12. SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12. SW1#show running-config. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12. SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12.

The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch. 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.). A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/1.

A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is the problem?. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down. TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect. Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal.

HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what is the cause of this problem?. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three.). ping. tracert. ipconfig. show ip route. winipcfg. show interfaces.

The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows "PVC STATUS = INACTIVE". What does this mean?. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Drag the Frame Relay acronym on the left to match its definition on the right. (Not all acronyms are used.). CIR. DCE. DTE. LMI. PVC. SVC. DLCI.

Refer to the exhibit. In the Frame Relay network, which IP addresses would be assigned to the interfaces with point-to-point PVCs?. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24 DLCI 17: 192.168.10.1 /24 DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24 DLCI 28: 192.168.10.3 /24. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24 DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24 DLCI 99: 192.168.12.1 /24 DLCI 28: 192.168.13.1 /24. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24 DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24 DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24 DLCI 28: 192.168.11.2 /24. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24 DLCI 17: 192.168.10.2 /24 DLCI 99: 192.168.10.3 /24 DLCI 28: 192.168.10.4 /24.

Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap.

Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?. RSA. L2TP. IPsec. PPTP.

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?. SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown. SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown. SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown. SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown.