Examen materias básicas Avianca V

252. El RAC comprende: A. 9 partes. B. 11 partes. C. 24 partes.

253. El RAC se define como: A. Reglamento del aire de Colombia. B. Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia. C. Reglamento de Aviones Colombia.

254. La parte cuarta del RAC corresponde a: A. Aeródromos e instalaciones. B. Personal Aeronáutico. C. Normas de aeronavegabilidad y Operación de aeronaves.

255. La parte Séptima del RAC corresponde a: A. Personal Aeronáutico. B. Normas de Aeronavegabilidad y Operación de Aeronaves. C. Régimen Sancionatorio.

256. Para poder servir como copiloto de una empresa de transporte aéreo regular, este debe de haber cumplido con un chequeo de rutas dentro de un período de: A. 12 meses. B. 18 meses. C. 24 meses.

257. La palabra Notam se define como: A. Notice to the Aircraft. B. Notice to the Airman. C. Notice to the Air maintenance operator.

258. El Límite de horas mensuales para un tripulante de aeronaves en Colombia según el RAC es de: A. 80 horas. B. 90 horas. C. 85 horas.

259. Una calle de rodaje de baja velocidad forma ángulo de: A. 120° con respecto el eje longitudinal de la pista. B. 90° con respecto al eje longitudinal de la pista. C. 90° con respecto a la torre de control.

260. El control de horas mensuales y anuales de un tripulante de vuelo es responsabilidad de: A. El operador. B. El tripulante. C. La Aeronáutica Civil.

261. El tiempo máximo de servicio de un tripulante de cabina de mando para tripulación sencilla de aeronaves de transporte aéreo regular es de: A. 12 horas. B. 12:30 horas. C. 14 horas.

262. Espacio aéreo controlado visual por TWR: A. ATZ. B. CTR. C. TMA.

263. El RAC permite libre acceso a la cabina de mando de una aeronave comercial a: A. Un controlador de tráfico aéreo. B. Un inspector de la UAEAC. C. Un inspector de la Fuerza Aérea Colombiana.

264. La responsabilidad Final en la operación de una aeronave depende de: A. La UAEAC. B. El piloto al mando. C. La empresa explotadora.

265. El RAC exige que por encima de se debe llevar suficiente oxígeno para suministro de todos los miembros de la tripulación en caso de una despresurización. A. 11.000 pies. B. 10.000 pies. C. 12.000 pies.

266. De acuerdo al RAC, para despachar una aeronave cuando el aeropuerto de origen esta por debajo de los mínimos de aterrizaje se requiere tener: A. Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 30 minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un motor inoperativo. B. Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 45 minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un motor inoperativo. C. Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 1 hora de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un motor inoperativo.

267. La separación vertical mínima entre dos aeronaves operando en espacio aéreo RVSM es de: A. 500 pies. B. 1.000 pies. C. 2.000 pies.

268. Se define en una aproximación de precisión como DH (Decision Height) a: A. La altura mínima en la cual una aeronave debe iniciar una aproximación frustrada en caso de no tener contacto visual. B. La altura mínima a la que puede descender una aeronave con el piloto automático enganchado. C. Un punto geográfico exacto, que coincide con una altura especifica en la cual una aeronave de no tener contacto visual contacto visual debe iniciar una aproximacion frustrada.

269. De acuerdo al RAC, se pierde autonomía para actuar como piloto al mando o copiloto de una aeronave si en los días precedentes no se han efectuado despegues y aterrizajes. A. 60 y 3 c. B. 90 y 3. C. 60 y 2.

270. Durante una aproximación por referencia visual, se espera que: A. El control ceda su responsabilidad al piloto por ser un vuelo VFR. B. El piloto sea responsable de la separación con otros tránsitos IFR y VFR. C. El piloto asuma la navegación pero la separación VFR/IFR la efectué el ATS.

271. Una aeronave vuela dentro de un FIR con: A. Altitudes. B. Alturas. C. Niveles de vuelo.

272. En una aproximación IFR, se denomina FAF (Final Approach Fix) al punto donde una aeronave: A. Inicia la aproximación intermedia. B. Inicia la maniobra de aproximación frustrada. C. Se encuentra alineada con la pista para aterrizar.

273. Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en un FIR, será un vuelo: A. NO controlado. B. Controlado si las condiciones son IMC. C. NO controlado si las condiciones son VMC.

274. La legislación Aérea Colombiana se encuentra publicada en: A. Manual de Reglamentos Aeronáuticos. B. Código de comercio. C. AIP de Colombia.

275. Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil en vuelo y le hace la siguiente señal: Baja tren de aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos, esto significa: A. sígame. B. Aterrice aquí. C. Usted esta en peligro. Sígame.

276. Un piloto esta en la obligación de notificar a los servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto de notificación, cuando exista una diferencia de la que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de: A. 1 minuto. B. 2 minutos. C. 3 minutos.

277. La expresión aeronave OSCAR PAPA significa una aeronave en vuelo de: A. Operación VIP presidencial. B. Ambulancia. C. Orden público.

278. De acuerdo al RAC, el piloto al mando de una aeronave podrá desviarse de una autorización emitida por el ATC sí: A. Esta pone en riesgo la seguridad del vuelo. B. Una situación de emergencia es declarada. C. a y b son correctas.

279. Cuando una aeronave se encuentre en una situación de emergencia que ponga en peligro la seguridad de las personas o de las aeronaves y se requiera de tomar medidas que infrinjan los reglamentos o procedimientos locales, el piloto al mando deberá pasar un informe escrito dentro de los siguientes: A. 5 días. B. 8 días. C. 10 días.

280. Para recobro de autonomía como Piloto Comercial de aviones después de un receso de 90 días, el tripulante deberá efectuar despegues y aterrizajes ante un instructor calificado, en el equipo que desea recobrar autonomía. A. 4. B. 3. C. 5.

281. El cumplimiento de las normas aeronáuticas en Colombia es principal función de: A. El ministerio de transporte. B. La UAEAC. C. La secretaría de transporte Aéreo de Colombia.

282. Para actuar como tripulante efectivo de una aeronave en Colombia, se deberá tener en posesión siempre: A. Licencia Expedida por la Aeronáutica Civil de Colombia y Certificado Medico. B. Certificado de Carencia de Estupefacientes y Certificado de antecedentes disciplinarios. C. a y b son correctas.

283. Cuando una aeronave se aproxime de frente con otra, las dos variaran su rumbo para evitar una colisión de acuerdo a los siguientes parámetros: A. Ambas aeronaves viraran a la derecha. B. Ambas aeronaves viraran a la izquierda. C. La aeronave de mayor envergadura iniciara un ascenso y por consecuente la otra un descenso.

284.De acuerdo a lo establecido en el RAC, excepto cuando sea necesario para el despegue o aterrizaje de una aeronave o cuando lo autorice la autoridad competente, no se efectuaran vuelos IFR a un nivel inferior a la altitud mínima establecida de: A. 2.000 pies por encima del obstáculo mas alto en un radio de 5 millas en terreno montañoso. B. 1.000 pies por encima del obstáculo mas alto en un radio de 5 millas en terreno no montañoso. C. a y b son correctos.

285. Las condiciones mínimas de alcance visual en Colombia por encima de 10,000 pies serán de. A. 8 km/5 millas. B. 5 km/3 millas. C. 8 millas/5 kms.

286. Cada vez que el piloto al mando de una aeronave ejerza la autoridad de emergencia, deberá reportar a la UAEAC en los siguientes: A. 5 días hábiles. B. 8 días hábiles. C. 10 días hábiles.

287. La responsabilidad de reportar irregularidades mecánicas que ocurran durante el tiempo de vuelo es de: A. El piloto al mando. B. El técnico de mantenimiento. C. El explotador de la aeronave.

288. La responsabilidad de que se efectúe un prevuelo antes de iniciar un vuelo en una aeronave es de: A. El piloto al mando. B. El copiloto. C. El técnico de mantenimiento.

289. El reglamento del aire es parte de: A. El Manual de Operaciones de Vuelo de un operador. B. El Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia. C. El Manual de Reglamentos Aeronáuticos.

290. Se define como hora prevista de aproximación: A. Hora en la que el ATC prevé que una aeronave que llega después de experimentar una demora, abandone el fijo de espera para completar su aproximación, a fin de aterrizar. B. La hora en la cual se estima que una aeronave aterrice en su aeropuerto de destino. C. Ninguna de las anteriores.

291. La altura mínima de decisión para una aproximación ILS categoría I es igual: A. 100 pies. B. 200 pies. C. 250 pies.

292. Se considera como aproximación de precisión: A. ILS. B. VOR DME. C. Contacto radar.

293. Si volamos en condiciones VMC queremos decir que: A. Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y volando IMC. B. Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y nuestro plan de vuelo puede ser IFR. C. Todas.

294. If on an IFR flight plan, you are advised to be in radar contact, you must: A. Obey all instructions from ATC regardless. B. Obey all instructions from ATC only while in cloud. C. Follow all possible instructions and advise ATC when unable to comply.

295. When flying a commercial route you are familiar with and you are in congested airspace, you may instead of reading back all clearances and instructions repetitively simply: A. Say “ROGER” to ATC without repeating your call sign or flight number again, once you know ATC recognizes your voice. B. Simply click your mike when answering obvious things to ATC. So as to not congest the frequency. C. Read back all clearances including your call sign and or flight # even if this is going to congest the frequency even more.

296. You must advice ATC if you cannot climb or descent to your assigned altitude if you cannot maintain at least: A. No restriction if cleared at pilot discretion. B. 500 ft on climb and 1.500 ft on descent c. C. 500 FPM.

297. An IFR clearance must include the following: A. Dep. Airport, aircraft ID. Flight level and route. B. Only the aircraft ID and transponder code if advised as filed on a passenger carrying. C. Aircraft ID, Clearance limit, Dep. Procedure, route and transponder code.

298. You are expected to read back clearances containing altitude assignments, radar vectors or any instructions requiring verification: A. TRUE. B. FALSE. C. As well as those containing wind direction and intensity.

299. If while on a hold and this is not your IAF, you lose 2 way voice communications, you should: A. Leave the hold at the EFC time. B. Immediately fly in VMC and land as soon as possible. C. Stay on the hold until your EAT.

300. You filed from SKBO to SKMD W23-ABL-W36- FELIX-W25-RNG. Just before ABL you experience 2 way Com. Failure and just before this you were told to fly ABL Direct RNG. With regards to the correct route to fly you should: A. Maintain present course and filed altitude until Com is reestablished. B. Continue your flight route as per original flight plan as it was read back on ground to clearance delivery before take off. C. As you cross ABL, fly direct RNG.

301. During preflight of a transport category aircraft that undergoes a progressive maintenance program the ELT should: A. Tested and when done, ensure the switch is selected to ARMED. B. Tested by selecting 243 mhz on the radio and listening for a tone when the switch is selected to ON. C. Selected to ARMED and if absolutely necessary to no more than 3 seconds during ONLY the first 5 minutes of every hour.

302. Señalar lo que es cierto. A. El MMEL (Master MEL) lo prepara el explotador. B. El MEL es más restrictivo que el MMEL (Master MEL). C. El MEL es preparado por el explotador del avión.

303. Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?. A. Entering instrument meteorological conditions. B. When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach. C. Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.

304. For which speed variation should you notify ATC?. A. When the ground speed changes more than 5 knots. B. When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater. C. Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH.

305. What does “declering minimum fuel” to ATC imply?. A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport. C. Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

306. When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between. A. 500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute. B. 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute. C. 1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.

307. For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?. A. Fixes selected to define the route. B. There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC. C. At the changeover points.

308. What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR/ Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only VOR/Localizer capability. A. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. B. Continue the flight as cleared, no report is required. C. Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.

309. During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should. A. Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance. B. Wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency. C. Contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.

310. During the enroute phase of an IFR flight, the Pilot is advised “Radar service terminated”. What action is appropiate. A. Set transponder to code 1200. B. Resume normal position reporting. C. Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re- establish radar contact.

311. During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?. A. Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach. B. Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach. C. Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach.

312. Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.). A. Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time. B. Depart the holding fix at the EFC time. C. Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.

313. Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?. A. Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. B. Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach. C. Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.

314. What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?. A. Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA. B. Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route. C. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s of the clerence route.

315. In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue. A. By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received. B. The flight under VFR and land as soon as practical. C. The flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.

316. While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under. A. VFR and land as soon as practicable. B. VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination. C. IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.

317. What is the significance of an ATC clearence which reads “CRUISE SIX THOUNSAND”. A. The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute then execute the published approach procedure. B. Climb smay be made to or descends may be made from 6000 feet at pilot’s discretion. C. The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/ MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to the ATC.

319. When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that. A. ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time. B. The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time. C. ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.

320. What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?. A. Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation. B. Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification. C. Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

321. Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.). A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight. B. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate. C. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

322. On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED--MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND--SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE--DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the. A. Departure control frequency. B. Destination airport and route. C. Requested enroute altitude.

323. When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?. A. When priority has been given. B. Any time an emergency occurs. C. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace..

324. Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?. A. DPs, STARs, and contact approaches. B. Contact and visual approaches. C. DPs, STARs, and visual approaches.

325. What is the significance of an ATC clearence which reads “CRUISE SIX THOUNSAND”. A. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. B. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. C. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

326. An ATC clearence which reads “CRUISE 4000 feet” would mean. A. Vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC. B. Climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance. C. Use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.

327. While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?. A. Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. B. Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency. C. Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

328. An abbreviated departure clearence...”CLEARED AS FILED” will always contain the name. A. And number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan. B. Of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. C. Of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.