Examen de Sistemas Citation CJ3+ (C25B)

The maximum operating altitude for the CJ3+ is _____ feet. 14,800. 45,000. 37,500. 28,500.

The CJ3+ is approximately _____ long and has a maximum takeoff weight of _____. 52 feet, 12,500 pounds. 50 feet, 13,870 pounds. 52 feet, 13,870 pounds. 50 feet, 12,500 pounds.

The CJ3+ can carry a maximum of _____ people, including the flight crew. 10. 11. 7. 9.

The nose compartment holds ____ pounds of cargo. 300. 150. 400. 600.

The tailcone baggage compartment holds ____ pounds of cargo: 300. 150. 400. 600.

The AFT DOOR OPEN CAS message is triggered by ____. Key unlocked. Both latches unlocked. Single latch unlocked. Key locked.

The cabin door is held in the open position by ____: Gravity. A cable. A mechanical latch. A gust lock.

The emergency exit is a ___ door located on the ___ side of the aircraft. Plug-type; left. Hinged; left. Plug-type; right. Hinged; right.

The following document is NOT required to be onboard the aircraft: Aircraft Flight Manual. Aircraft Operating Manual. Aircraft Registration. Garmin G3000 Cockpit Reference Guide.

A flashing MASTER WARNING RESET button will remain illuminated until _____. a. The associated condition is resolved. The button is pressed. Five seconds has passed. The associated CAS message light is pressed.

CAS messages normally appear on _____. MFD. PFD 2. PFD 1. Both (b) and (c).

A CAS message will remain illuminated until _____. The message light is pressed. Five seconds has passed. The associated master switchlight is pressed. The associated condition is resolved.

Distracting CAS messages are prevented by _____. 02. Bus logic. Inhibits. Debounce. Both (b) and (c).

A /an _____ CAS message requires flight crew awareness and may require subsequent response. Advisory. Status. Warning. Caution.

The CAS system has formal inhibits for all of the following except: When the BATTERY switch is OFF. During takeoff. When an engine has been shut down. When an ENGINE FAIL message has been posted.

The number of CAS messages displayed on a PFD can be increased by _____. Scrolling. Selecting Full Mode versus Split Mode. Selecting small font with the GTC. Both (a) and (b).

A new yellow CAUTION message will be displayed _____. At the top of the Caution priority group. At the top of the CAS message list. At the bottom of the Warning priority group. At the top of the Advisory priority group.

Voice alerts accompany _____ CAS messages. Caution. Warning. Advisory. Both (a) and (b).

Power for the avionics system is controlled by: The AVIONICS switch. The BATTERY switch. The SYSTEM POWER switch. The AVIONICS button.

PFD 1 normally receives Air Data information from the: ADC 1 & 2. ADC 2. Standby ADC. ADC 1.

GPS derived information is displayed as a _____ color on the flight displays. Magenta. Cyan. White. Amber.

A magenta trend vector on the altimeter indicates where the altitude will be in _____ seconds. 10. 60. 6. 30.

A green single-line course pointer on the HSI indicates: VOR 1 or VOR 2 information. VOR 2 or LOC 2 information. FMS information. VOR 1 or LOC 1 information.

The _____ button is used to change the PFD that inputs to the Flight Director. XFR. Reversion. FD. AP.

An amber light illuminated next to the STBY FLT DISPLAY switch indicates: The standby battery is fully charged. There is a fault in the standby battery. The standby battery is powering the display. The standby battery is being charged.

Engine status (EIS) information is normally displayed on _____. PFD 1. The MFD. The PFD Split Screen Mode. The GTC Aircraft Systems Screen.

Failure of the PFD will automatically result in: The MFD will show a compressed mode. The right PFD will show engine indications. The standby flight display will flash. There is no automatic system reaction.

Pressing the GA button on the throttle in flight will result in: The command bars moving to a 10° pitch up attitude. Automatic autopilot engagement. Automatic advancement of the throttles. The command bars moving to a 7.5° pitch up attitude.

If Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) is activated, the AFCS will automatically select: Flight Level Change Mode with a target speed of Mmo/Vmo. Preselected Altitude to 15,000 feet. Heading Mode with the Selected Heading set to 90° left of the current heading. All of the above.

Electrical power sources for the CJ3+ include _____. Two batteries and two generators and two alternators. One battery and two generators. Two batteries, two generators, and external power. Two generators and one alternator.

If all electrical power is lost, the batteries can power selected systems for: A maximum of 30 minutes. A minimum of 30 minutes. A maximum of 60 minutes. A minimum of 60 minutes.

The generators are regulated and protected by: Three battery packs. Two GCUs. The BATTERY DISCONNECT switch. The Hot Battery Bus.

An EPU must be regulated to ____ VDC and ____ amps. 30; 800-1000. 28-29; 800-1100. 28-29; 1200. 30; 800-1100.

With the BATTERY switch in EMER, emergency buses receive power from the: Hot Battery Bus. Main Feed buses. Feed Extension buses. Crossfeed Bus.

When the BATTERY Switch is ON, the _____. Battery relay to the Crossfeed Bus is closed. Hot Battery Bus is isolated from all other buses. Emergency Bus is powered through the hot battery bus. Battery relay to the Crossfeed Bus is opened.

When the BATTERY DISCONNECT switch is in NORMAL, the _____. Battery power packs supply all DC power. Battery is isolated from the rest of the system. EPU power input is overridden. Batteries can power the entire electrical system.

An engine start with EPU power counts as: A full battery start. 1/3 of a battery start. 2/3 of a battery start. An external start; no battery power is used.

A generator assisted engine start counts as: A full battery start. 1/3 of a battery start. 2/3 of a battery start. An external (air) start; no battery power is used.

A yellow FUEL BOOST ON L and/or R CAS message indicates the boost pump has activated due to. Engine start. Fuel transfer. Low fuel pressure. Manual switch activation.

The primary ejector pump operates. By motive flow. Electrically. Pneumatically. Hydraulically.

The white FUEL TRANSFER ON CAS message changes to yellow FUEL TRANSFER ON if. Both boost pumps are operating. Fuel in the receiving side is 60 greater than the transferring side. Transfer has been occurring for more than 10 minutes. Both (b) and (c).

Fuel transfer with both boost pumps operating will _____. Double the transfer speed. Prevent fuel transfer. Reverse the direction of fuel transfer. Have no effect.

Fuel movement in the wing tanks is managed with _____. The fuel conditioner. Tank vents. Holes in the spars and baffles. Positive pressure from the electric boost pumps.

The fuel transfer valve will close when. DC power is removed. One boost pump is OFF. The FUEL TRANSFER Selector is moved from OFF. Fuel imbalance is less than 200 pounds.

Each wing tanks holds approximately _____ gallons. 351. 435. 510. 702.

Each wing tank contains a(n). Electric boost pump. Primary ejector pump. Fuel quantity capacitance probes. All of the above.

A yellow FUEL LEVEL LOW L and/or R CAS message illuminates when fuel in the respective tank is below ____ pounds. 190. 300. 550. 600.

The FADEC controls all of the following except: Engine power settings. Oil pressure. Inputs to the FDU. Engine igniters.

The N1 REF bug _____. Monitors FADEC channel health. Indicates maximum N1 fan speed. Indicates N1 speed commanded by the throttle. Indicate the selected throttle mode.

A FADEC fault can be reset by. Cycling the corresponding GEN Switc. Taking no action; reset is automatic. Pressing the corresponding FADEC Reset button on the GTC. Pressing the DISENGAGE button.

Fuel temperature indications outside of normal limits are shown in. Green. White. Amber. Red.

The FADEC supplies _____ information to the EIS. N1%. ITT. N2%. All of the above.

The FADEC governs ____ at low power settings. N2. N1. ITT. HP compressor speed.

Thrust Mode Indicators (TMI) reflect _____. ITT temperature regions. N2 speed regimes. Throttle detent positions. Ground or flight idle information.

The FADEC uses both igniters for ______. Inflight restarts. Battery starts. EPU starts. None of the above.

A display of amber dashes on the EIS indicate that _____. Sources of data are lost. Limits have been exceeded. Sources of data are invalid. Both (a) and (c).

The engine fire protection system detects fire with a: Temperature gauging sensor. Solenoid sensor. Scattered light path. Sensing loop.

The extinguishing agent in the engine fire bottle is: Halon. Nitrogen. Carbon Dioxide. None of the above.

The baggage detection system detects smoke with a: Ozone sensor. Photoelectric sensor. Heat loop. Temperature gauging sensor.

4. ______ is used to extinguish a forward baggage area fire: Halon. A portable extinguisher. Nitrogen. Engine bleed air.

Pressing an ENG FIRE button will: Release the fire bottle extinguishing agent. Extinguish the ENGINE FIRE CAS message. Disable the corresponding generator. All of the above.

A BOTTLE ARMED button will extinguish when the: Halon agent is expended. Engine temperatures drop. Throttle is retarded to OFF. Both (a) and (b).

Indication of baggage smoke is accompanied by the following except a: Voice alert. BAGGAGE SMOKE FWD or AFT CAS message. Flashing MASTER WARNING RESET light. Chime.

The cockpit hand-held fire extinguisher is located: Forward of the left cabin. On the floor, in front of the center pedestal. On the floor, to the left of the copilot seat. On the floor, to the left of the pilot seat.

Air for the aircraft pneumatic subsystems is provided by: Roots superchargers that are attached to the engine accessory drive. An electrically operated turbo-compressor mounted in the tailcone. An air cycle machine mounted in the tailcone. High pressure bleed air from each engine.

The yellow BLEED AIR O’TEMP L and/or R CAS message will illuminate if the bleed air temperature leaving the ____ is too hot. Precoolers. PRSOVs. Service air regulator. Cabin heat exchanger.

With regard to the Pressure Regulating and Shutoff Valves (PRSOV): These valves are completely automatic and require no action form the pilot. These valves are controlled by the AIR SOURCE knob in the cockpit. These valves control the volume of air that enters the cabin. These valves can vary their position based on the temperature of the bleed air.

The Pressure Regulating and Shutoff Valves (PRSOV): Require electrical power to close. Require electrical power to open. Will fail to the open position if electrical power is lost. Both A and C are correct.

What is the purpose of the Flow Control Valves (FCV): To limit the volume of air to the cabin when pressurizing the aircraft from both engine bleed sources. To allow an increase in air volume when pressurizing on a single source to ensure adequate airflow to maintain cabin pressure requirements. To provide a means of shutting off airflow to the cabin. Both A and B are correct.

Bleed air is mixed with _____ in the precoolers. Service air. Heat-exchanged exhaust gases. Engine fan bypass air. None of the above.

The service air system provides air for _____. Windshield anti-ice. Horizontal stabilizer deice boots. Wing anti-ice. Engine Anti-ice.

The yellow CABIN DOOR SEAL CAS message indicates: Primary door seal pressure is low. Secondary door seal pressure is low. Primary and secondary door seal pressure is low. Primary door seal pressure is high.

In the event of a DC power loss the Flow Control Valves (FCV) will: Revert to 5 pounds per minute of airflow into the cabin. Revert to 8 pounds per minute of airflow into the cabin. Fail to the closed position. Fail to the open position.

The vapor cycle cooling system includes all of the following except: Condenser. Ram air inlets. Evaporators. Compressor.

The yellow FRESH AIR ON CAS message can illuminate when on the ground if _____. Throttles are above cruise (CRU) power. Throttles are below cruise (CRU) power. The aft evaporator fan is activated. Bleed air temperature exceeds 149°C.

Placing the AIR SOURCE Selector to L _____. Closes the left FCV. Opens the left FCV. Closes right PRSOV. Opens the right PRSOV.

The TEMPERATURE SELECT switch must be set to ____ to allow for GTC control of the environmental control system. NORM. MANUAL. EMER. OFF.

When the flood position is selected with the Aft Fan button on the GTC: The aft evaporator fan runs at high speed. The air flow is diverted to the cabin flood vent. The overhead wemac outlets are off. All of the above.

The yellow AIR DUCT OVERTEMP CAS message indicates that: The air supply line has exceeded 149°C. A PRSOV has failed. The blower fan has failed. The ram air inlet is blocked or iced over.

The ram air modulating valve meters air going to the _____. Pylon air scoops. Cabin air heat exchanger. Flow dividers. Compressor.

If the pilot selects the “norm” position on the cockpit air distribution knob: Pressurization and environmental air is divided evenly between the cockpit and the cabin. 80% of incoming air is sent to the cockpit and 20% is sent to the cabin. 20% of incoming air is sent to the cockpit and 80% is sent to the cabin. 0% of incoming air is sent to the cockpit and 100% is sent to the cabin.

In the manual mode, cabin temperature control is achieved by: Momentarily moving the manual toggle to the HOT or COLD position as desired. Selecting the desired temperature on the GTC Temperature screen. The position of the left throttle. No provision is made for manual control of the cabin temperature on the CJ3+.

Each outflow valve is equipped with everything except _____. A bleed air supply line. Climb and dive solenoids. A reference pressure chamber. A diaphragm.

The maximum pressure differential (Max ΔP) limiter will: Vent cabin pressure to static pressure. Vent chamber pressure to ambient pressure. Vent cabin pressure to the reference chamber. Vent chamber pressure to static pressure.

A yellow PRESSURIZATION CNTRL CAS message indicates that the _____. CABIN DUMP switch has been activated. Pressurization NORM/STBY switch is in STBY. Pressure controller is in High Elevation Mode. AIR SOURCE knob is in BOTH.

A HIGH ELEVATION MODE CAS message indicates that the aircraft has been operating in high elevation mode for more than ___ minutes and the cabin altitude is ______ but _____. 30; >9,800’; <14,800’. 60; >9,800’; <14,500’. 15; >9,500’; <14,800’. 30; >9,500’; <14,500’.

Activating the CABIN DUMP switch causes the cabin to climb to approximately: 10,000’. 12,500’. 14,300’. Aircraft altitude.

Pre-pressurization mode activates with: Weight-on-wheels and both throttles above the CRU detent. Weight-off-wheels and either throttle above the CRU detent. Weight-on-wheels and both throttles above 85% N2. Weight-off-wheels and either throttle above 85% N2.

The pressure controller can maintain a maximum cabin pressure altitude of approximately _____ feet at an aircraft altitude of _____ feet. 7,800, 41,000. 7,800, 45,000. 14,500, 41,000. 14,500, 45,000.

Passenger masks will deploy automatically when cabin altitude reaches: 9,800 feet. 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. 25,000 feet.

The oxygen bottle has a capacity of: 50 minutes. 50 cubic fee. 350 minutes. 350 cubic feet.

Crew masks contain all of these components except: Activating ring. Selector knob. Microphone. Inflatable harness.

Diluter-demand masks deliver: Mixed oxygen and cabin air. Continuous oxygen. Positive pressure oxygen. Constant pressure oxygen.

Crew masks have all of these delivery schedules except _____. Mixed oxygen and cabin air. Pure oxygen. Oxygen under pressure. Pure cabin air.

Prolonged use of passenger masks above _____ feet is not recommended. 14,800. 25,000. 13,000. 40,000.

To activate the crew mask microphone feature _____. Turn the OXYGEN CONTROL VALVE to CREW ONLY. Turn the mask selector to EMER. Place the MIC SELECT switch to OXY MASK. Press the Oxygen Mask XMIT button on the control yoke.

If smoke or fumes are present in the cockpit: Turn the OXYGEN CONTROL VALVE to MANUAL DROP. Turn the mask selector to EMER. Place the MIC SELECT switch to HEAD SET. Press the Oxygen Mask XMIT button on the control yoke.

Placing the OXYGEN CONTROL VALVE to MANUAL DROP deploys passenger masks: With oxygen pressure. With a mechanical pin. With an electric circuit. With a manual squib.

The BLEED switch controls _____. Balance of anti-ice air to the pilot and copilot windshields. Windshield anti-ice air flow rate. The proportion of cockpit to cabin bleed air. Windshield anti-ice air temperature.

If a deice boot fails, pilots should _____. Limit airspeed to 180 KIAS. Limit flaps to 15°. Limit TAIL DEICE operation to MANUAL. Check the service air system.

The WING/ENG anti-ice switches activate the _____. Wing anti-ice system. TT2/PT2 anti-ice system. Engine anti-ice system. All of the above.

The alcohol system for windshield anti-ice protection should be used _____. When bleed air is not available. In addition to bleed air. When both BLEED AIR knobs are turned to OFF. During high altitude flight.

The engine inlet anti-ice system does not have _____. A crossflow feature. An over-temperature sensor. Both (a) and (b). Neither (a) or (b).

A yellow TAIL DE-ICE ON CAS message indicates the tail deice system is on and. SAT is below -35°C. RAT is below -35°C. RAT is above 35°C. SAT is above 35°C.

A yellow WING A/I COLD message in flight could mean _____. One anti-ice switch is selected and one is not. The AIR SOURCE Selector is in EMER. The anti-ice switches are in ENG ONLY. The wing temperature is too hot.

Wing fuel is protected from bleed air heat by _____. The wing PRSOV. Pylon ram air. Purge passage air. The crossflow valve.

The automatic tail deice cycle inflates each boot for ____ and stops for ______. 12 seconds, 2 minutes. 12 seconds, 3 minutes. 6 seconds, 2 minutes. 6 seconds, 3 minutes.

Normal hydraulic system operation is indicated by: Yellow HYD PRESS ON CAS message. HYD PRESS ON annunciator. White HYD PRESS ON CAS message. No cockpit indication is presented.

The hydraulic loading valve is _____ when _____. Closed, the engine-driven pumps are operating. Open, subsystems are being operated. Closed, no subsystem is being operated. Open, no subsystem is being operated.

If an ENG FIRE button is pressed, a/an _____ CAS message illuminates if the fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves are mismatched. Red. Amber. White. Cyan.

The hydraulic reservoir is located: Under the engine pylon, behind the right wing. Under the engine pylon, behind the left wing. In the tail cone. In the nose compartment.

The systems operated by the main hydraulic system include: A yellow HYD PRESS ON CAS message appears. A HYD PRESS ON annunciator illuminates. A white HYD PRESS ON CAS message appears. No cockpit indication is presented.

Once extended, the landing gear are held down with: Hooks in the wheel wells. Squat switches. Hydraulic pressure. Mechanical gear locks.

The pressure gauge for the back-up gear extension bottle is located in the: Right main wheel well. Right nose baggage compartment. Cockpit center pedestal. Left wing trailing edge.

The green LANDING GEAR annunciator lights will illuminate when the: Handle is up and all gear are up and locked. Handle is up and the gear are in transit. Handle is down and all gear are down and locked. Handle is down and weight is on the wheels.

A squat switch is located on: The left main gear only. The right main gear only. The nose gear only. Both main gear.

An illuminated BRAKE PRESSURE LOW CAS message could mean a _____. Failed brake shuttle valve. Main hydraulic pump failure. Power brake system failure. Depleted emergency nitrogen bottle.

An aural alert will sound if the landing gear are not down and locked and: The radio altimeter is below 500 feet. The throttles are above 85% N1. Anytime the airspeed is below 130 knots. The flaps are extended beyond 15°.

Antiskid operation is degraded if the pilot _____. Applies constant brake pedal pressure. Pumps the brake pedals. Pushes the brake pedals too hard. Applies the brakes too quickly after touchdown.

Locked Wheel Crossover protection: Prevents inadvertent turning due to differential braking. Dumps brake pressure to the slower wheel if it drops below 30% of the speed of the faster wheel. Prevents the application of wheel braking prior to wheel spin-up after landing. Both (a) and (b).

A yellow PARKING BRAKE HANDLE CAS message indicates the parking brake is engaged and: The aircraft is in the air. The parking brake valve has failed. Brake pressure is low. The aircraft is on the ground.

Primary flight controls are operated using: Fly-by-wire system. Push rods and cables. Hydraulic actuators. Electric actuators.

Control movement of either yoke with the autopilot engaged will: Leave the autopilot engaged. Disengage the autopilot. Override the aileron servo. Both (a) and (c).

Trim tabs are located on all of these surfaces except: Inboard trailing edge of the left aileron. Inboard trailing edge of the right aileron. Inboard trailing edges of the elevators. Trailing edge of the rudder.

A white NO TAKEOFF message will change to a red NO TAKEOFF message if the flight controls are not set for takeoff and: In the air. Engines are started. Throttles are advance beyond 85% N2. Groundspeed increases above 25 knots.

The rudder bias system will turn the rudder: Toward the inoperative engine. Away from the engine supplying more bleed air. Away from the good engine. Toward the engine supplying more bleed air.

Speedbrakes are held in the extended or retracted position by: The hydraulic pump. Over-center arms. Mechanical detents. Trapped hydraulic pressure.

In the event of a total hydraulic failure with the flaps extended, the flaps will: Raise to the limit of the next mechanical detent lock. Raise to the full up position by spring-load action. Revert to a trail position. Remain in their last selected position.

Runaway elevator trim can be interrupted by _____. Pressing the electric pitch trim control switch. Pressing and holding the AP TRIM DISC button. Moving the pitch trim wheel in the opposite direction. Moving the throttles to idle.

If both pilot and copilot activate their electric pitch trim switches, the _____ input takes priority. Smaller command. Greater command. NOSE DOW. Pilot.

Most aircraft lighting utilizes: Compact fluorescent. LED. Incandescen. Halogen.

When main DC power is not available, only the cockpit flood lighting system will be in use and this system is powered by the: Aft junction box. Battery packs. Emergency Battery Bus. None of the above.

Most cockpit lighting is controlled by _____ located on the _____: Switches; pilot’s lower left instrument panel. Rheostats; pilot’s lower left instrument panel. Rheostats; top of the instrument panel. Switches; top of the instrument panel.

Most cabin lighting is controlled via: A passenger control panel at the refreshment center. Individual controls at each passenger seat. A digital master control panel. Switches in the cockpit.

An indication that the emergency lights are not armed is presented by: An yellow EMER LTS NOT ARMED CAS message. A light next to the EMER LIGHTS switch. The emergency lights flashing. There is no indication.

If the beacon light is selected to Normal, the beacon will activate when the: Battery switch is turned ON. Engines are running. Airspeed increases above 15 knots. The pilot yells “CLEAR”.

When the EMER LIGHTS switch is set to ARMED, emergency lights activate automatically when. The BATTERY Switch is set to EMER. The 2-G switch is triggered. The PAX SAFETY switch is turned o. Both (b) and (c).

Wingtip light assemblies contain all of the following except: Position lights. Navigation lights. Anticollision lights. axi lights.

Enabling the pulse light system is accomplished: Automatically anytime the LANDING LIGHT switch position is selected. Using the STROBE LIGHT switch. Using the GTC. Pressing the PULSE LIGHT button on the overhead pane.

What would the new payload moment (MOM/100) be if this mission were being conducted as a single pilot (you) flight?. 4,246.4 in.-lb. 5,218.4 in.-lb. 4,774.9 in.-lb. 4,542.2 in.-lb.

Your business passengers ask you to load 160 pounds of marketing (paper) materials. You put them in the nose baggage compartment. How will this change your total payload moment (MOM/100)?. 148 in.-lb. increase. 148 in.-lb. decrease. 118.4 in.-lb. increase. 118.4 in.-lb. decrease.

Your fuel log shows a loading of 1850 pounds. What moment value will you use for your loading calculations?. 5386.5 in.-lb. 5,761.3 in.-lb. 6432.5 in.-lb. 6321.3 in.-lb.

What would the new payload moment (MOM/100) be if the passengers in seats 3 and 5 were removed and 120 pounds of cargo were added to the aft baggage compartment?. 4865.9 in.-lb. 5,120.6 in.-lb. 4,344.2 in.-lb. 3846.7 in.-lb.

If you depart at maximum takeoff weight, how much fuel must you burn to before reaching maximum landing weight?. 1,520 pounds. 920 pounds. 1,320 pounds. 1,120 pounds.

How far would the takeoff CG shift in the example problem if you moved the nose compartment cargo to the aft bag-gage compartment?. 1.2 inches aft. 1.2 inches forward. 0.76 inches aft. 0.76 inches forward.

Your takeoff weight is 13,500 pounds and your CG is 297 inches. How far must you shift the CG to meet required limitations for departure?. 0.5 inches aft. 1 inch aft. 1.5 inches aft. No shift required; you’re within limits.

How far would the takeoff CG shift in the example problem if you removed the passenger in seat 7?. 0.02.inches forward. 0.08 inches forward. 0.02 inches aft. 0.08 inches aft.

What two factors must be combined to obtain Zero Fuel Weight?. Basic empty weight plus all fuel. Takeoff weight minus payload. Ramp weight plus taxi fuel. Basic empty weight plus payload.

Title 14 CFR states that CRM training should address all of the following except _____. Communication skills. Task allocation. Situation awareness. Operation of cockpit automation.

Good teamwork requires _____. Open, supportive communication. An experienced crew. Similar personalities of all team members. A clear hierarch.

Good task allocation requires _____. SOP guidance. Prioritizing tasks. Strong team leadership. Maximum use of automation.

Situation awareness requires all of the following except _____. Perceiving all the elements in your environment. Recognizing how all the elements impact the current situation. Recognizing how all the elements impact the future situation. Understanding the interaction among all the elements in your environment.

Good decision making requires methodical consideration of each of these items except _____. The plane. The environment. The equipment. The situation.

Performance is best under which level of stress?. Low stress. Mid-range stress. High stress. No stress at all.

Checking individual readiness for flight can be accomplished with the _____. SA checklis. IMSAFE checklist. SOP conditions. DECIDE checklist.

The most dangerous type of stress is _____. Acute stress. Group stress. Personal stress. Chronic stress.

The deepest situation understanding is required for which type of decision making?. Knowledge-based. Rules-based. Skills-based. Team-based.

CRM can best be integrated into operations and regularly improved through _____. Training and flight debriefs. Formal training classes. Individual review. Corporate support.