FAACA Practice Exam
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Título del Test:![]() FAACA Practice Exam Descripción: FAA to CA Practice Final Exam |




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A commercial pilot operating an aircraft under the air taxi rules must have completed . . . . . take offs and landings within the preceding . . . . . days: A. 5, 60. B. 5, 90. C. 3, 60. D. 3, 90. A flight crew member's flight duty time shall not exceed: A. 14 consecutive hours in any 30 consecutive hours. B. 14 consecutive hours in any 24 consecutive hours. C. 8 consecutive hours in any 24 consecutive hours. D. none of the above. A reportable aviation incident: A. only applies to aircraft having a maximum takeoff weight greater than 2 250 kg. B. applies to all aircraft. C. applies to commercial air services only. D. only applies to aircraft having a maximum takeoff weight less than 2 250 kg. In order to act as PIC of a single engine aircraft for an air taxi service under night VFR without passengers a commercial pilot must have: A. a night rating and PPC/PCC. B. an instrument rating and PPC/PCC then night rating not required. C. an Instrument rating and night rating then PPC/PCC is not required. D. none of the above. In order to act as PIC of a two-crew aircraft the pilot must have: A. a CPL with a check out for the aircraft. B. an ATPL with a type rating for the aircraft. C. 50 hours on type. D. the IATRA written with 750 hours and a type rating. The minimum VFR weather requirements to enter Class G airspace above 1 000 feet AGL at night is: A. 3 miles visibility, 2 000 feet horizontal distance from cloud, 500 feet below cloud. B. 3 miles visibility, 1 mile horizontal distance from cloud, 500 feet below cloud. C. 3 miles visibility, 1 mile horizontal distance from cloud, 1 000 feet AGL ceiling. D. 2 miles visibility, 2 000 feet horizontal distance from cloud, 500 feet below cloud. A commercial pilot (age 30) completed a CAT 1 medical exam on February 13, 2001. It was issued on March 21, 2001. When is the last day this pilot can rent an aircraft and take a friend on a local flight?. A. Last day of February 2002. B. First day of March 2002. C. First day of March 2006. D. Last day of February 2006. NORDO pilots entering the circuit at a control towered airport should: A. approach the tower from the downwind side and watch for light gun signals. B. join crosswind from the upwind side and turn onto the downwind leg, continue the circuit. After turning final, watch for light signals from the tower. C. approach the tower from the upwind side and watch for light gun signals. D. join crosswind from the upwind side and turn onto the downwind leg, continue the circuit. After turning final, watch for light signals from the tower. A steady green light means return for landing. What are the oxygen requirements when flying an unpressurized aircraft with 9 passengers at 12 500 feet ASL for 45 minutes?. A. Oxygen for 45 min for 9 passengers and all crew members. B. Oxygen for 15 minutes and at least for 1 passenger and all crew members. C. Oxygen for 1 hour for 1 passenger and all crew members. D. Oxygen is not required until flying above 13 000 feet ASL. To act as PIC of a multi-engine aircraft in IFR flight in an air taxi service, a pilot must have completed: A. a PPC and ground/flight training initially and in the last year. B. a PCC and ground/flight training initially and in the last year. C. 5 takeoffs and landings in the past 6 months. D. 3 takeoffs and landings in the past 6 months. A chevron marking preceding a runway threshold indicates that this surface is: A. not suitable for the landing roll-out but may be used for taxi or takeoff. B. not suitable for the initial takeoff but may be used for taxi. C. not suitable for landing, takeoff or taxi. D. marking a displaced threshold. What are the requirements to enter Class D airspace VFR?. A. Establish two-way radio communication, obtain clearance to enter, mode C transponder. B. Establish two-way radio communication, mode C transponder only if designated. C. Establish two-way radio communication, obtain clearance to enter, mode C transponder only if designated. D. None of the above. The minimum distance and altitude a pilot must remain from a forest fire is: A. 5 000 feet AGL within 3 NM or otherwise by NOTAM. B. 2 000 feet AGL within 5 NM. C. 3 000 feet AGL within 5 NM or otherwise by NOTAM. D. 3 000 feet AGL within 5 NM always. The minimum time one should allow between one alcoholic drink and the next ight as a ight crew member is: A. 8 hours or until no longer under the effects. B. 24 hours. C. until no longer being affected by the alcohol. D. 12 hours. The width of a LF/MF airway is: A. 4 NM wide on each side of center line until 50.8 NM, then increases by a 4.5° splay. B. 5 NM wide on each side of center line until 49.66 NM, then increases by a 4.5° splay. C. 4.34 NM wide on each side of center line until 49.66 NM, then increases by a 5° splay. D. 4.5 NM wide on each side of center line until 50.8 NM, then increases by a 5° splay. When flying continuous circuits in a MF area a pilot must report: A. on downwind, on final, and when clear of the runway. B. on downwind, on base, on final, and when clear of the runway. C. on downwind, and when clear of the runway. D. unless the MF area is uncontrolled then radio calls do not have to be made. When flying from the altimeter setting region into the standard pressure region set the altimeter to 29.92 inches of mercury: A. just before entering the standard pressure region. B. just after takeoff in the altimeter setting region. C. just after entering the standard pressure region. D. and leave it on the current altimeter setting in both regions. When flying within 10 NM of a control zone while below 3 000 feet AGL the maximum airspeed is: A. 200 KTAS. B. 250 KTAS. C. 200 KIAS. D. 250 KIAS. When operating under air taxi or aerial work rules, which is true?. A. A crop duster is not allowed to disperse product at night, unless authorized in AOC. B. An aerial work operator shall not operate a single engine aircraft at night, in VFR OTT or IFR unless authorized in AOC. C. VFR OTT must be specifically authorized in the AOC for an air taxi service. D. All of the above. When operating under the commercial air taxi rules a pilot flying with passengers in a single engine aircraft: A. cannot be carried during a night VFR flight unless authorized in the AOC. B. cannot be carried during an IFR flight unless authorized in the SOP. C. can only be carried with a co-pilot or a working auto pilot. D. cannot be carried, there are no exceptions. Which are the minimum instruments required for VFR OTT (not including engine instruments)? 1. Airspeed indicator, altimeter, magnetic compass, time piece 2. Attitude indicator 3. Vertical speed indicator 4. Turn coordinator 5. Two-way radio 6. Adequate navigation equipment 7. Means of preventing icing for pitot-static system: A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, and 7. B. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7. C. 1, 2, 4, 6, and 7. D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. Which is true regarding Special VFR (SVFR)?. A. SVFR can only be obtained in a control zone and requires a clearance. B. SVFR can be cleared by ATC if the visibility is no less than 1/2 mile. C. SVFR requires a two-way radio and a mode C transponder. D. The pilot must maintain 200 feet below cloud. While operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace or VFR on an airway all pilots should continuously monitor: A. 126.7 MHz. B. 121.5 MHz. C. 122.8 MHz. D. 123.2 MHz. With respect to the ADIZ penetration procedures it is correct that: A. a flight plan or itinerary is required and may be filed with ATC, FSS, CARS or a responsible person. B. estimated times of arrival and route must be revised if not within +/- 5 minutes and +/- 20 NM. C. estimated times of arrival and route must be revised if not within +/- 10 minutes and +/- 20 NM. D. must file a DVFR if the route passes through the ADIZ. With respect to the aircraft journey log it is true that the journey log must be on board: A. for flights beyond 25 miles from the aerodrome. B. only if you are planning to shut down at another aerodrome. C. at all times, unless flying with a flight training unit. D. at all times. An air taxi operator must conduct emergency training procedures: A. Initially and annually. B. Every 6 months. C. Every 2 years. D. Only initially, then it is the pilot's responsibility. Cruising altitudes in the SDA are determined using: A. Magnetic track. B. True track. C. Magnetic heading. D. Compass heading. Flight crew member qualifications for air taxi services are as follows: A. Valid CPL or ATPL and proper ratings. B. Three take-offs and landings in the past 90 days. C. Valid PPC or PCC and ground/flight training. D. All of the above. Flight duty time begins _____ and ends _____. It also includes _____: A. At engines on; at engines off; the pilot's driving time to the airport. B. At engines on; when pilot leaves to go home; time to complete flight preparation or company duties. C. When the pilot reports for a flight; at engines off; time to complete flight preparation or company duties. D. It is the same as the flight time entered in the journey log. For VFR OTT, the minimum weather conditions required at destination must be forecast to exist _____ hours before to _____ hours after the ETA when using a TAF and _____ hours before to _____ hours after the ETA when using a GFA (if no TAF exists): A. 1; 2; 1; 3. B. 1; 3; 1; 2. C. 2; 2; 2; 3. D. 1; 3; 1; 4. In order to act as PIC of a multi-engine aircraft in an air taxi service, a pilot must have completed: A. A PPC and ground/flight training initially and in the last year. B. A PCC and ground/flight training initially and in the last year. C. Five take-offs and landings in the past 6 months. D. Three take-offs and landings in the past 6 months. No person shall conduct or attempt to conduct a take-o in an aircraft that has frost, ice or snow adhering to any of its critical surfaces?. A. True. B. False. C. If the frost, ice or snow is noticed after the engines have been started, take off is allowed. D. If the frost, ice or snow is noticed after full power is added for take off, you may continue. Pilots operating at an uncontrolled aerodrome at which no ground station exists should report on: A. 126.7. B. 121.5. C. 122.8. D. 123.2. The minimum lighting required for an aerodrome at night is: A. Parallel, white runway lights visible at least 2 miles in all directions. B. a and blue taxiway lights. C. a and a lighted wind sock. D. a and green/red threshold and end lights. The minimum VFR weather requirements to enter an airway are: A. 3 miles visibility, 2,000' horizontal distance from cloud, 500' below cloud. B. 3 miles visibility, 1 mile horizontal distance from cloud, 500' below cloud. C. 3 miles visibility, 1 mile horizontal distance from cloud, 1,000' AGL ceiling. D. 2 miles visibility, 2,000' horizontal distance from cloud, 500' below cloud. What are the oxygen requirements for an emergency descent from 20,000' ASL for 45 minutes following a depressurization of a pressurized aircraft operated in an air transport service with 20 passengers at ? Average cabin pressure altitude is 11,000'. (Exclude time taken to climb or descend.): A. Oxygen for 45 minutes for all passengers and all crew members. B. Oxygen for 15 minutes for 2 passengers and all crew members. C. Oxygen for 30 minutes for 2 passengers and all crew members. D. Oxygen for 2 hours for 2 passengers and all crew members. How long is the validity of a class I medical for a 43 year old pilot?: A. Test only for 5 seconds in the evenings only. B. 6 months if flying in multi engine airplane, or 12 months if flying a single engine airplane. C. 6 months if flying in multi crew airplane, or 12 months if flying a single pilot airplane. D. 12 months if flying in multi crew airplane, or 6 months if flying a single pilot airplane. What are the requirements for an aerial work service or an air taxi service carrying an external load such as a banner, mounted photography equipment, or a canoe?: A. It must be authorized in a supplemental type certificate or in an airworthiness approval. B. It must be authorized by an AME. C. It must be authorized by the PIC. D. As long as it is secured properly it does not need any special authorization. What is the minimum time one should allow between one alcoholic drink and the next flight as a flight crew member?: A. 8 hours or until no longer affected. B. 12 hours. C. Until no longer being affected by the alcohol. D. 8 hours. When flying NORDO in a control zone, a steady green light directed to an aircraft in the air and on the ground means, respectively: A. Cleared to land; cleared to taxi. B. Cleared to land; cleared to take off. C. Return for landing; cleared to take off. D. Number one for landing; cleared to backtrack. When is refueling an air taxi flight not permitted with passengers on board?: A. When the engine(s) are running with the prop brake engaged. B. After external power has been connected. C. When the pilot in command is not available to monitor the fueling. D. After external power has been disconnected. When must a pilot file a flight plan or itinerary?: A. For all flights. B. For flights beyond 25 nm radius from the departure aerodrome. C. When operating night VFR OTT between Canada and another state. D. When at your destination you intend to shutdown your engine(s). When operating in an air taxi or aerial work service, which of the following is true?: A. A crop duster is not allowed to disperse product at night, unless authorized in AOC. B. An aerial work operator shall not operate a single engine aircraft at night, in VFR OTT or IFR unless authorized in AOC. C. VFR OTT must be specifically authorized in the AOC for an air taxi service. D. All of the above. When operating in an air taxi service, which of the following is true?: A. You must be at least 1,000' above any obstacle within a 3 mile radius, at night. B. An aeroplane must be at least 300' AGL or 500' horizontally from any obstacle during the day. C. An aeroplane must be at least 500' above any obstacle within a 500' radius. D. None of the above. When taking off from the standard pressure region and leveling off in the same region, which of the following is true?: A. Take off with the current altimeter setting, then set to 29.92 after leveling off. B. Take off with the current altimeter setting, then set to 29.92 before leveling off. C. Take off using 29.92 and leave it set to 29.92 the entire flight. D. None of the above. Where a MEL has been approved for an operator of an aircraft and equipment on that list becomes unserviceable: A. Take off is not allowed. B. Take off is allowed if the aircraft is operated in accordance with any conditions stated in the MEL. C. Take off is allowed if the minimum equipment list is left with the Chief Pilot. D. If an A/D is in conflict with the MEL the MEL prevails. Which of the following is true regarding Special VFR (SVFR)?: A. SVFR can only be obtained in a control zone and requires a clearance. B. SVFR can be cleared by ATC if the visibility is no less than ½ mile. C. SVFR requires a two-way radio and a mode C transponder. D. The pilot must maintain 200' below cloud. Which of the following is true with regards to air taxi and aerial work services?: A. The SOPs must be given to each crew member; the COM must be in each aircraft. B. The COM must be in each aircraft or given to each crew member; the SOPs must be in each aircraft. C. The SOPs must be left at the base station only. D. None of the above. While operating under air taxi rules, can a pilot carry passengers in a single-engine aircraft?: A. Not during a night VFR flight , unless authorized in the AOC. B. Not during a IFR flight. C. Not during a VFR flight. D. Not during a VFR flight. A flashing green light on the ground means: A. Cleared to take-off. B. Cleared to taxi but not take-off. C. Return to the ramp. D. Danger be on alert. A Commercial Pilot flying VFR, in air taxi operation, and operating a single-engine aircraft carrying passengers AT NIGHT must have what qualifications?: A. A competency check. B. An instrument rating only. C. A PPC (Pilot Proficiency Check). D. A co-pilot. A Navajo (7 seats, 6,600 lbs. maximum takeoff weight) would be in the: A. Air taxi category. B. Commuter category. C. Airline category. D. Transport category. A person with a Commercial Pilot Licence may act as second in command of an aircraft that requires a minimum flight crew of two for compensation or hire, if that person: A. Holds appropriate category, class ratings, and meets the recent flight experience requirements. B. Has completed company training. C. Has completed a PPC. D. All of the above. A pilot-in-command of a multi-engine aircraft in commercial air taxi service requires: Select one: A. a Pilot Proficiency Check. B. Airline Transport Pilot Licence. C. An Instrument Rating. D. All of the above. A Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) is required when: A. Conducting flight training. B. Operating any multi-engine aircraft on a commercial flight. C. Operating a float plane flying VFR. D. All of the above. A pilot operating single pilot IFR is allowed a maximum of _________ hrs in a 24 hr period: A. 8. B. 8, if the aircraft is multi engined. C. 14. D. 14, if the aircraft is fitted with a boom mic, chart holder, autopilot and light. A steady green light seen from the air means: A. Airport unsafe do not land. B. Cleared to land. C. Cleared for a touch and go. D. Do not land continue in circuit. Failure to comply with the ADIZ flight planning procedures may result in a(an): A. Interception. B. Fine. C. Armed interception. D. CADORs. Commercial/Airline Transport pilots are required to have a valid pilot certicate in their possession when: A. Carrying passengers only. B. Piloting for hire only. C. While acting as a flight crew member. D. Working for an airline. While conducting a VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace you hear that the ESCAT plan has been activated, you must: A. Report position to FSS or ATC every 30 mins. B. Report position to ATC every 30 mins. C. Report position to FSS every 15 mins. D. Report position to FSS every 10 mins. Ensuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the: A. PIC of that aircraft. B. PIC and Owner and operator of that aircraft. C. PIC and the TC certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft. D. Mechanic assigned to that aircraft. Flight duty time: A. Begins at engine on and ends at engine off. B. Begins at engine on and ends when all nessesary duties have been completed. C. Begins with any preparation for flight and any flight duties and ends when engines are shut down. D. Begins when the pilot arrives at work and ends when the pilot shuts down the engines. How many pilots are required in a Cessna 402 (8 passenger) aircraft carrying passengers on a night IFR flight (commercially)?. A. One -- pilot must have 1000 hrs, 50hrs multi, 25 hrs IFR and 25 hrs on type. B. Two crew required on aircraft flying night IFR unless authorized to do so in its air operator certificate. C. One -- Pilot must have 1000 hrs, 100 hrs multi, 50 hrs IFR and 50 hrs on type. D. Two pilots required on all flights with more than 6 passengers. How often must commercial pilots working for a commercial operator undergo a recurrent training program?. A. Every 12 months. B. Every 24 months. C. Every 6 months. D. None of the above. If a pilot receives a rest period he/she is allowed to extend ight duty time by half the rest period to a maximum of: A. 17 hrs. B. 16 hrs. C. 3 hrs. D. 14 hrs is the maximum that a pilot can be on duty in a 24 hr period. In an air taxi operation/commuter/airline safety briefing cards: A. Must be available to all passengers. B. Must be placed behind every seat. C. Are not necessary since the pilot gives a preflight briefing. D. Are only required for operations over water. In an Air Taxi service the minimum obstacle clearance during the day is: A. 1,000' AGL and 2,000' horizontal. B. 1,000' AGL and 3 miles horizontal. C. 500' AGL and 2 miles horizontal. D. 300' AGL and 300' horizontal. In a commercial air service an aircraft operating in IMC conditions must: A. Have two generators or two alternators. B. Have two crew. C. Have two generators or two alternators, each of which is driven by a separate engine if it is a multi engine aircraft. D. Have two generators or two alternators, driven by the same engine if in a multi engine aircraft. In order to act as pilot in command of an airplane that requires a minimum flight crew of more than one the pilot must: A. Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor. B. Complete a type rating with ground school and flight training. C. Complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months. D. Complete a flight review within the preceding 12 calendar months. In order to act as second in command of an airplane that requires a minimum flight crew of more than one: A. Within the preceeding 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested. B. Receive and log flight training from an authorized flight instructor in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested. C. Complete a type rating course including ground school and flight training. D. Complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months. No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate: A. When carrying property for hire. B. When carrying persons or property for hire. C. Under instrument flight rules (IFR). D. None of the above. The maximum flight duty time permitted in any 30 days if on call is: A. 120 hrs. B. 90 hrs. C. 100 hrs. D. 200 hrs. The maximum flight time a pilot is allowed to fly in one year is: A. 900 hrs. B. 1200 hrs. C. 1100 hrs. D. 1000 hrs. The pitot static system must be inspected every _________ on an aircraft operating IFR: A. 30 days. B. 24 calendar months. C. 12 calendar months. D. Due on annual inspection. The primary purpose of a minimum equipment list (MEL) is to: A. List the minimum equipment that must be installed in all aircraft as required by airworthiness directives. B. Provide a list of equipment that must be operational at all times on the aircraft. C. Lists the equipment that can be inoperative and still not affect the airworthiness of an aircraft. D. None of the above. Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating: A. Any aircraft of more than 9,500 lbs. maximum certificated takeoff weight. B. Any multi engine airplane. C. Any aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. D. Any aircraft of more than 12,500 lbs.maximum certificated takeoff weight. What are the recent experience requirements regarding take-os and landings, that a Commercial Pilot must fulfill before acting as pilot-in-command carrying passengers on a commercial VFR flight?. A. 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days in the same type (or category & class) of aircraft. B. 5 take-offs and landings within the last 6 months in the same category and class of aircraft. C. 5 take-offs and landings in the last month. D. None of the above. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?. A. Owner or operator of the aircraft. B. The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft. C. PIC. D. Transport Canada. While the ESCAT plan is in effect, the PIC shall, before take-off, obtain approval from: A. ATC or FSS. B. ATC. C. FSS only. D. Area Control Center manager. When can you test an ELT on 121.5 to see if it is working?. A. Never. B. The first hour of every day but only for 5 seconds. C. The first 5 minutes of every hour for 5 seconds. D. The first 10 minutes of every hour for less then 10 seconds. |