Flight Ops 1

GBAS approaches are. Flown using the same techniques as an ILS once selected and identified. Flown the same as an LDA with glide slope tuning and identification. Automatically tuned and displayed after selection of the three character procedure identifier.

The weather conditions that meet the minimum requirements for a flag air carrier to take off from an alternate airport that is not listed in the Operations Specifications are. 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1000-1. 800-1/2, 900-1, or 1000-2. 800-1, 900-2, or 1000-3.

When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately?. Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers. If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired. If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.

(Refer to Figure 202 and 206.) PTL 55 received the following clearance from Bay Approach Control. PTL 55 is cleared ILS RWY 19L at SFO, sidestep to RWY 19R 1.3 times the V(S0) speed, of PTL 55, is 165 knots. What is the lowest minimum descent altitude (MDA) and the lowest visibility that PTL 55 may accomplish the sidestep?. 340-1. 340-1-1/2. 340-2.

(Refer to Figure 171, top panel.) The facility (Kankakee) that is located 9 miles NE of Chicago Midway or 27 miles SSE of Northbrook (OBK) is a/an. Aeronautical Radio Inc. (AIRNIC) transmitter. Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS-ASOS) with frequency. Flight Service, Remote Communications Outlet.

A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude?. 1,000 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL. 5,000 feet AGL.

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the 'critical phase of flight'?. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective altitudes MSL. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.

As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB) (figures 241 and 242), you slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now see Taxiway D signs on both sides of your pavement. You notice your heading is about 250º. Tower is urging you to turn left on D, cross 16R/34L, then taxi to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you. Exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2. Exited onto Taxiway G. Exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?. At the DA/DH when the runway is not clearly visible. When the time has expired after reaching the DA/DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible. At the DA/DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.

Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person. Shall correctly annotate the flight plan. Must file an ICAO RVSM flight plan. Should file for odd altitudes only.

How are random RNAV routes below FL 390 defined on the IFR flight plan?. Define route waypoints using degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids for the route and altitude. List the initial and final fix with at least one waypoint each 200 NM. Begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or navigation aids for the altitude being flown, define the random route waypoints by using degree-distance fixes based on navigation aids appropriate for the altitude being flown.

An airport is not listed in a domestic Air Carrier's Operations Specifications and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the minimum weather conditions required for takeoff?. 800-2. 900-1. 1000-1/2.

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?. Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

(Refer to Figure 169A.) To remain east of the ORD VOR/DME R.345, while flying the PAL-WAUKEE TWO DEPARTURE, requires a turn radius of. Over 5,000 feet. 5,000 feet. Less than 5,000 feet.

(Refer to Figure 203 and 203A.) PTL 55 will be unable to cross the Oasis Intersection at 9,500 feet. What should the crew do?. Enter holding on R-211 LASA at 15 DME, right-hand turns, advise Departure Control, climb to 9,500 prior to Oasis. Advise Las Vegas Departure Control and request radar vectors. Continue the climb on LAS R-211 to 9.500 feet, then turn right to 260º.

When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not functioning. 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air.

What action should be taken when a pilot is 'cleared for approach' while being radar vectored on a unpublished route?. Descend to minimum vector altitude. Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment. Descend to initial approach fix altitude.

(Refer to Figure 348.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl?. Takeoff length shortened to 6,986 feet by displaced threshold. Takeoff un shortened by 0.7 percent runway slope to the SE. Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.7 percent upslope of the runway.

In what airspace will ATC not authorize 'VFR on Top'?. Class C airspace. Class B airspace. Class A airspace.

(Refer to Figure 118A.) How is course reversal accomplished when outbound on the LOC BC RWY 26L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl?. Radar vector only. Procedure turn beyond 10 NM. Holding pattern entry beyond 10 NM.

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to 'VERIFY 9,000' and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?. Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000.

What is the primary purpose of a STAR?. Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.

What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?. The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other. The entire route must be within radar environment. The waypoints may only be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids.

Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airport should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?. 250 knots. 260 knots. 230 knots.

(Refer to Legends 43 and 43A and Figure 103.) The RWYs at LAX are closed and expected to remain closed for 2 hours when N91JB arrives. N91JB requests 4,000 feet, Tower Enroute Control (TEC) with radar vectors to BUR. What altitude can N91JB expect based upon the type aircraft?. 4,000 feet. 5,000 feet. 6,000 feet.

(Refer to Figure 100 or 101.) What is the magnetic variation at both DFW Intl and IAH?. 08 E. 0. 08 W.

Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

(Refer to Figures 201 and 201A.) What type of weather information would normally be expected to be available from the Weather Data Source at Ogden-Hinckley?. Cloud height, weather, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, surface winds, and any pertinent remarks. Cloud base/tops, obstructions to vision, altimeter, winds, precipitation, and the intensity of the precipitation. Cloud height, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter , wind data, and density altitude.

(Refer to Figures 214 and 182A.) TNA 90 is a 'CAT C' aircraft and has received a clearance to fly the LOC RWY 09R; Baldn fix is received and TNA 90 is cleared to land 09R. What are the minimums?. 520/40. 680/60. 600/1-1/2.

To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word 'LIFEGUARD' should be entered in which section of the flight plan?. Aircraft type/special equipment block. Pilot's name and address block. Remarks block.

At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace?. 156 knots. 180 knots. 200 knots.

In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view?. 'Vectors' provided for navigational guidance or 'Pilot NAV' with courses the pilot is responsible to follow. 'Vectors' and 'Pilot NAV' for pilots to use at their discretion. Combined textual and graphic form which are mandatory routes and instructions.

(Refer to Figure 104.) Determine the DEP CON frequency for the TUS3.GBN SID after takeoff from RWY 11R at Tucson Intl. 125.1 MHz. 118.5 MH. 119.0 MHz.

What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in Class C airspace?. No specific certification but a two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Crtificate and two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, and a TSO-C74b transponder.

An alternate airport for departure is required. If weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. When the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. When destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM.).

Precision runway monitoring requires. Pilot responsibility to monitor 2 simultaneous radios. Pilot responsibility to monitor 2 ILS receivers. Detailed performance during the "decision region": 1/3 dot localizer and 1/2 dot glideslope.

Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is. 210 knots. 230 knots. 265 knots.

(Refer to Figures 205 and 206A.) At San Francisco Intl (SFO), the runway hold position signs are. All on the left-hand side of the taxiways. All on the right-hand side of the taxiways. On either side of the taxiways.

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of published instrument approach that specifies 'NO PT,' the pilot should. Advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed. Not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. Execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.

In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled airspace?. Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.

Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?. If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.

(Refer to Figure 118A.) What is the HAT a Category B aircraft may descend to if the pilot has identified HADEN INT on the LOC BC RWY 26L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl?. 510 feet. 667 feet. 670 feet.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

(Refer to Figure 114.) The changeover point on V394 between DAG VORTAC and POM VORTAC is. Halfway. 38 DME miles from DAG VORTAC. 64 DME miles from DAG VORTAC.

(Refer to Figure 161.) To receive the DME information from the facility labeled 'DME Chan 22' at La Guardia requires that. N711JB be equipped with a UHF NAV radio, which is tuned to channel 22. A military TACAN tuned to channel 22. The VHF NAV radio be tunes to the ILS (108.5) frequency.

(Refer to Figure 301.) During the approach (ILS RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70?. 475 feet per minute. 586 feet per minute. 690 feet per minute.

When is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each destination airport within the 48 contiguous United States?. When the forecast weather indicates the ceiling will be less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than 2 miles at the estimated time of arrival. On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination. When the flight is scheduled for more than 6 hours en route.

Pilots are responsible for knowing. If they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc at a designated airspeed. If the RNP missed approach is normal or reduced. If the RNP registration is complete.

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?. 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 3 statue miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis?. 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour. Between weather broadcasts on the hour. Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.

What is the purpose of MOAs?. To protect military aircraft operations from civil aircraft. To separate military training activities from IFR traffic. To separate military training activities from both IFR and VFR traffic.

(Refer to Figures 97A, 97B, and 97C.) N96JB desired to list ROC as an alternate for BUF. The active RWY at ROC was expected to be RWY 28. What weather forecast was required at Greater Rochester Intl, for N60JB to list it as an alternate?. Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 800-2. Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 600-2. Nonprecision approach 800-2 1/4, precision approach 600-2.

Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain 'VFR on Top'?. Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual flight rules while in VFR conditions. Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules. Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.

(Refer to Figure 293.) What must be operational for N711JB to execute the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach to JFK?. DME or radar. LDIN and VOR. VOR, LDIN, and DME or radar.

If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?. maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

(Refer to Figure 122.) At what altitude and indicated airspeed would you expect to cross PIVOT INT on the approach to ORD?. FL 200 and 300 KIAS. 10,000 feet and 250 KIAS. 12,000 feet and 200 KIAS.

Which IFR fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan?. All compulsory reporting points en route. The VORs that define the IFR portion of the flight. The fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated.

Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?. When cleared for an IFR approach. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. In turn, on a first-come, first serve basis.

(Refer to Figure 175.) Four airways (V298, V25, V448 and V204) near YKM have a series of dots that overlay the airway. What do these dots indicate?. That the airways penetrate a Prohibited and Restricted Airspace. That 2 miles either side of the airway, where shaded, is a Controlled Firing Area. That the airways penetrate a Military Operations Area (MOA) and a special clearance must be received from ATC.

(Refer to Figure 198A.) The highest terrain shown in the planview section of the LOC-B approach to Eagle County Regional is. 11,275 feet. 11,573 feet. 12,354 feet.

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?. 1/4 SM. 3/4 SN. 3/8 SM.

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If exiting weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, and IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to. Takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. Entering controlled airspace. Entering IFR weather conditions.

What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil airport at 15,000 feet MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing and ATC is notified?. 265 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

(Refer to Figure 210.) The route between FIS (near Key West) and MTH, which is labeled B646, is an example of a. LF/MF Airway. LF/MF Oceanic Route. Military Training Route.

When should an aircraft depart if issued an EDCT?. No earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No later than 5 minutes before and no earlier than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No earlier than 15 minutes before and no later than 15 minutes after the EDCT.

What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain 'VFR on Top'?. May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers. Must maintain VFR clearance above or below. May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between layers.

The GPS Approach Overlay Program permits pilots to use GPS avionic when IFR for flying existing instrument approach procedures, except. LOC, LDA and ADF. LDA, TAC and SDF. SDF, LOC and LDA.

(Refer to Figures 185 and 185A.) The threshold of RWY 07L at McCarran Intl is displaced. 874 feet, due to a pole. 2,133 feet, due to a hangar. 1,659 feet, due to a pole.

Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?. 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. FL 180.