FLY CONTROLS

1. What happens if the flight controls are locked on takeoff?. A) The flight control surfaces automatically unlock when ground speed exceeds 40 knots. There is also an EICAS message alerting the crew. b) The flight control surfaces mechanically unlock. There is also an EICAS message alerting the crew. c) The flight control surfaces do not unlock automatically. d) The flight control surfaces automatically unlock when ground speed exceeds 80 knots. There is also an EICAS message alerting the crew.

2. How are the flaps controlled in secondary mode?. a) In secondary mode, the slats and flaps are controlled separately and can be positioned by hydraulic or electrical motors. b) In secondary mode, the slats and flaps are controlled separately and can be positioned by hydraulic power only. c) In secondary mode, the slats and flaps are controlled separately and can be positioned by electrical motors only.

3. Hydraulic pressure does not go through the hydraulic control module (HCM). Pressure goes directly to the VCTU from the. a) Center hydraulic system to operate the clutch. b) Left hydraulic system to operate the clutch. c) Right hydraulic system to operate the clutch.

4. The alternate pitch trim switches are on the aisle stand, adjacent to the parking brake lever. Do these switches have priority over the two pitch trim switches on each control wheel. YES. NO.

5. Which transducers provide airplane gross-weight-related data and send information to the DCAF to verify the calculated stabilizer green band?. a) Nose landing gear pressure transducers. b) Stabilizer pressure transducers. c) Strut pressure transducers on another landing gear.

6. The PFCF has these three control modes: a) PFCF normal, direct, and damped. b) PFCF normal, secondary, and direct. c) PFCF normal, direct, and blocked.

7. When does the PFCF automatically select secondary mode?. a) After the loss of one FCE cabinet. b) After the loss of important air or inertial data, or when two of the four ACEs are in PFCF direct mode. c) After the loss of one hydraulic system.

8. The wheel force transducer on each control-wheel assembly measures: a) Total displacement of the control wheeL. b) Total force on a control wheel. c) Total airplane bank angle.

9. The four direct mode rate sensors (DMRS) are a backup source of roll, pitch, and yaw rate data. TRUE. FALSE.

10. The flight control modules (FCMs) contain these internal functions: a) Primary flight control function, high lift function, and flight management function. b) Primary flight control function, high lift control, and autothrust. c) Primary flight control function, high lift function, and autoflight function.

11. There are rudder pedals for the captain and first officer. During takeoff and landing, the pilots use the pedals for manual control of: a) Rudder, yaw, and stabilizer. b) Rudder and sideslip only. c) Nose wheel steering.

12. When either stabilizer cutout switch is moved to CUTOUT, the switch commands the related: a) FCE to stop its horizontal stabilizer electric motor and apply the brake. b) ACE to stop its horizontal stabilizer electric motor and apply the brake. c) EMCU to stop its horizontal stabilizer electric motor and apply the brake.

13. The TE-flap high-lift mode and the LE-slat high-lift mode operate independently. One drive system can be in: a) High-lift primary mode while the other is in high-lift secondary mode. b) High-lift standby mode while the other is in high-lift secondary mode. c) High-lift primary mode while the other is in high-lift standby mode.

14. The elevator feel actuators control the force required to move the column in the different PFCF modes. Their commanded position is scheduled as a function of: a) Airspeed and elevator position. b) Altitude and flap position. c) Airspeed (pitot pressure) in normal mode and flap position in secondary/direct modes.

15. In PFCF direct mode, the ACEs do not receive inertial data from the IRUs. They use data inputs from the ______ to control the flight surfaces. a) Direct mode rate sensors (DMRS). b) Integrated standby flight display (ISFD) and DMRS. c) Mode control panel (MCP).

16. Which are the aileron PCU operating modes?. a) Active, secondary, or blocked/damped. b) Active, bypass-damped, or blocked/damped. c) Active, damped, or damped/blocked.

17. Each control-wheel position-transducer cluster contains four RVDTs. Three send analog signals to the FCE cabinet ______; the fourth connects directly to a spoiler ______. a) (ACE) / (REU). b) (PFCF) / (SREU). c) (ACE) / (EMCU). d) (HLF) / (EMCU).

18. When does the stabilizer green-band indication disappear from the EICAS display after takeoff?. a) It remains displayed at all times. b) When the gear has been up for 10 seconds, or 60 seconds after takeoff. c) Only when either pressure transducer has failed.

19. What is one of the functions of the ACEs?. a) Convert analog and digital signals as required and send digital commands to the REUs/SREUs/EMCUs. b) Send digital commands directly to the autoflight function. c) Receive fault-indication data only from the CMCF.

20. The fourth RVDT in each control-wheel transducer cluster permits which spoilers to provide backup roll control?. a) Spoilers 4 and 5. b) Spoilers 4 and 11. c) Spoilers 5 and 10. d) Spoilers 10 and 11.

21. The FCE batteries can supply backup power to PCM L and PCM R for approximately: a) 5 minutes. b) 10 minutes. c) 1 hour.

22. The power conditioning modules (PCMs) supply +/-13.5 V DC to air data modules (ADMs), the integrated navigation radio system, and gust-suppression pressure transducers. TRUE. FALSE.

23. Airplane roll is controlled by: a) Ailerons, yaw, and stabilizer. b) Flaperons, ailerons, and the speedbrake function only. c) Ailerons, spoilers, and flaperons.

24. Each control-wheel position-transducer cluster includes: a) 3 RVDTs. b) 4 RVDTs. c) 2 RVDTs.

25. In the air, the maximum speedbrake deflections are: spoilers 1, 2, 13, and 14 = 60 degrees TEU; spoilers 3 and 12 = 45 degrees TEU; spoilers 4 and 11 = 35 degrees TEU; inboard spoilers = 10 degrees TEU. TRUE. FALSE.