INBICO https://www.itexams.com/info/ISO20KF

Which of the following is Problem Management primarily concerned with?. A. Looking at Security Plans. B. Looking at the cause of Incidents. C. Looking at the Change Plan. D. Looking at the Release Strategy.

What is the objective of a Management System?. A. To define, agree, record and manage levels of services. B. To ensure that Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are defined for all IT services. C. To ensure that new services and changes to services will be deliverable and manageable at the agreed cost and services quality. D. To provide the policies and the framework that is needed for the effective management and implementation of all IT services.

Which of the aspects listed below is included in ISO/IEC 20000?. A. Customer communication. B. Employee motivation. C. Social responsibility. D. Standard products.

Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?. A. Channeling data to Problem Management. B. Ensuring the process is running effectively and efficiently. C. Following up on Incidents. D. Setting up Service Level Agreements with the users.

Which of the following must be included within the Service Management plan?. A. Configuration Item (CI) type. B. Information security controls. C. Return to normal working. D. Tools as appropriate to support the processes.

Which service changes should be documented in change records?. A. All service changes. B. Formal closure of services. C. Staff recruitment. D. User training.

What is the added value of a service being delivered?. A. You can specifically define the service by means of a Service Level Agreement (SLA). B. You do not have the ownership of specific costs and risks in producing the service. C. You do not have to invest in a process to control it. D. The outcomes have a lower total cost of ownership than when the value is produced within the customer organization.

What is accreditation in the context of ISO/IEC 20000?. A. The determination of measurement results using defined procedures on the basis of documented requirements. B. The evaluation of test results to verify compliance with requirements plus confirmation by the certification body. C. The notification of approved testing and certification bodies with the relevant authority for publication. D. The official recognition by a third party of organizations involved in testing, inspection and certification.

The Service Provider should check that the Service Management objectives and the plan are being achieved. Which of the following items is not measured as part of this monitoring, measuring or review?. A. Customer satisfaction. B. Major non-conformities. C. Problems. D. Resource utilization.

Which statement below is not a purpose of Supplier Management procedures?. A. That business transactions between all parties are recorded. B. That information on the performance of all suppliers can be observed and acted upon. C. That it is made clear that the supplier cannot subcontract part of the delivered services to the Service Provider. D. That the suppliers understand their obligation to the Service Provider.

Who conducts the "first party audit"?. A. An external independent organization. B. Customers of the IT Service Management organization. C. Other persons on behalf of the Customer. D. The IT Service Management organization itself.

What shall the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with the suppliers be aligned with?. A. The Service Level Plans. B. The Service Management Plans. C. The SLAs with the other parties. D. The SLAs with the customers.

What is mandatory to define in the Incident Management procedures?. A. The escalation of Incidents. B. The implementation of emergency Changes. C. The recording of deficiencies in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). D. The recording of Problems.

Which of the following is a best practice for Capacity Management?. A. A Capacity plan documenting the actual performance and the expected requirements should be produced at least annually. B. Decisions about service provision should be based on cost effectiveness comparisons. C. The resilience of the infrastructure components should be measured and included in the Capacity plan. D. The Service Catalog should be maintained and kept up-to-date.

An objective of Capacity Management is to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient Capacity to meet the current and future agreed demands of the Customer's business needs. What document is produced to support this objective?. A. Availability Plan. B. Business Resource Plan. C. Capacity Plan. D. Service Management Plan.

Availability and Service Continuity Plans need to be developed and reviewed periodically to ensure that requirements are met as agreed in all circumstances, from normal operations through to a major loss of service. What is the minimum level of frequency with which these Plans should be developed and reviewed?. A. At every change to the business environment. B. At least annually. C. At least bi-annually. D. In accordance with the business needs.

Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?. A. It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered certification body once a year. B. It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard. C. It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it is being delivered. D. It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.

What is the objective of Service Level Management?. A. To define, agree, record and manage levels of service. B. To ensure a sufficient amount of Capacity has been designated in order to achieve agreed service levels. C. To ensure that agreed service Availability committments to customers can be met in all circumstances. D. To establish and maintain good relationships with Customers.

Which of the following statements is true?. A. Change Management is the most important of the Control processes. B. Release Management shall be implemented only after the processes Change Management and Configuration Management have become mature. C. Release Management, Change Management and Configuration Management are Control processes. D. There shall be an integrated approach to Change and Configuration Management planning.

When a new service is being planned, Service Level Management needs to ensure that existing performance levels of other IT services will not be unduly impacted. From which process will Service Level Management require input?. A. Availability Management. B. Capacity Management. C. Financial Management for IT Services. D. IT Service Continuity Management.

Which stakeholder will define service level requirements?. A. Customer. B. End user. C. Service Provider. D. Supplier.

Which of the following is used for the assessment of maturity of organizations?. A. CMMI. B. CobIT TM. C. ITIL. D. MOF.

What is the purpose of CobiT TM ?. A. To provide a high level process model that organizes a broad range of IT activities. B. To provide a set of detailed practices on how to implement processes and is therefore well suited as a process implementation tool. C. To provide a certified measurement framework that legally provides proof of meeting the Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) requirements. D. To provide a uniform structure to understand, implement and evaluate IT capabilities, performance and risks.

The quality of a product may be assessed by elements such as its appearance, usefulness and robustness. Which element can be used to assess the quality of a service?. A. How much the service costs compared to other providers of the service. B. How much the service costs divided by an average of evaluation scores. C. How well the service meets customer and user expectations. D. The number of people purchasing that service.

What is the objective of the Continual Improvement (Act) stage of Planning and Implementing Service Management, as described in the ISO/IEC 20000 standard?. A. To improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the business. B. To improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the ITIL processes. C. To improve the efficiency and effectiveness of service delivery and management. D. To improve the efficiency and effectiveness of service support.

Which of the following actions should be taken to ensure continual improvement of a Quality Management System?. A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement. B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions. C. Review the Quality Management System at least annually. D. Start an internal service organization evaluation.

Which of the following is a best practice concerning Information Security Risk assessment?. A. Information Security Risk assessments should be carried out by an external auditor to maintain objectivity. B. Information Security Risk assessments should be performed as a result of the review of every Incident. C. Information Security Risk assessments should be performed at agreed intervals and be maintained during Changes. D. Information Security Risk assessments should be performed once a year.

What should Quality Management Systems encourage organizations to do?. A. To achieve the lowest cost of service provision. B. To achieve the maximum level of service possible. C. To define as many metrics as possible for each process to ensure strong control. D. To define processes that contribute to customer acceptance of services.

What is a shared concept of both ISO/IEC 27001 and ISO/IEC 20000?. A. Capacity Management. B. Incident Management. C. Information Security Management. D. Release Management.

It is essential that an owner at senior level has overall responsibility for Service Management. Which of the statements below is a best practice?. A. A senior responsible owner should be assigned as chairman of the Change Advisory Board (CAB). B. A senior responsible owner should handle all customer complaints to be able to improve customer satisfaction. C. A senior responsible owner should ensure resourcing for service improvement activities. D. A senior responsible owner should have responsiblity for Customer Relationship Management.

Which of the following standards was the forerunner to ISO/IEC 20000?. A. BS 1968. B. BS 7799. C. BS 8800. D. BS 15000.

What is a Configuration Baseline?. A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability. B. A configuration audit report. C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time. D. The change requests allocated to a release.

What is the objective of planning and implementing new or changed services?. A. To ensure that all Changes are assessed, approved, implemented and reviewed in a controlled manner. B. To ensure that approved Changes are implemented in the IT infrastructure with acceptable risks for the current and new IT services. C. To ensure that new services and changes to services will be deliverable and manageable at the agreed cost and service quality. D. To ensure that standard methods and procedures are used so that Changes can be handled quickly and with the lowest possible negative impact on service quality.

Who or what should always be informed in case a Release is rejected, delayed or cancelled?. A. Business Relationship Management. B. Change Management. C. Incident Management. D. the Senior Management representative.

What is required for an implementation of IT Service Management to be successful?. A. A top-down approach whereby the management of the organization strongly and visibly enforces the implementation. B. Buy-in specifically from the levels in the organization which will be operationally involved in IT Service Management activities. C. The appointment of a specialist department responsible for the development of the process structures. D. The involvement and commitment of personnel at all levels in the organization from operational staff to top management.

What should not be part of a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?. A. Authorization details. B. Escalation and notification process. C. Impact and priority guidelines. D. Lessons learned and improvement actions.

The ISO/IEC 20000 standard requires that a minimum set of service reports is produced. How are these service reports used?. A. As input to financial management in order to determine charges for the service. B. As the basis for making management decisions and taking corrective actions. C. To present a professional image of the company. D. To compare the performance of the Service Desk with service targets.

What are the key contents of an IT Service Management system?. A. A documented organizational and operational structure. B. A software system for the ticket system. C. A software system to monitor the key performance indicators (KPIs). D. Systematic processes for ticket recording and follow-up only.

What is the purpose of a Problem review?. A. To prevent computer systems from having too limited disk space so that capacity problems will not occur. B. To provide expert help on risk assessment for optimization of security procedures. C. To restore the service to normal operating conditions as soon as possible. D. To seek improvements to the process and to prevent recurrence of Incidents or mistakes.

What is part of the policy for Budgeting and Accounting for IT Services?. A. Rules governing the handling of variances against budgets. B. The charging mechanism. C. The costs of the Underpinning Contracts (UCs) over a fixed period. D. The percentage of 'hidden' end-user costs.

Which of the following calculates the number of defects per million opportunities?. A. CobIT TM. B. ITIL. C. MOF. D. Six Sigma.

According to ISO/IEC 20000, what is the minimum frequency for the Service Provider and the Customer to attend a service review meeting for discussing changes to the service scope?. A. annually. B. monthly. C. only when there is a business need to change the service. D. quarterly.

The appointed member of management is only responsible for the co-ordination and management of all services. Can this person perform internal audits for the delivery processes?. A. No, because as manager he is not competent enough. B. No, because this person is responsible for all processes and therefore he would audit his own work. C. Yes, because this person is not responsible for the delivery processes. D. Yes, because as manager he should have knowledge of performing internal audits.

What can be improved by achieving quality objectives?. A. effectiveness of the service. B. personal satisfaction of the Configuration Manager. C. relationship with interested suppliers. D. relationship with unauthorized parties.

What does an IT service definition include?. A. the use of IT to support the customers business processes. B. the use of IT to support the organizations internal business processes. C. the use of IT to support the business processes of suppliers and partners. D. the use of IT to improve employee satisfaction within the organization.

Which one of the following standards is concerned primarily with security?. A. ISO 9001. B. ISO/IEC 15504. C. ISO/IEC 20000. D. ISO/IEC 27001.

Which of the following defines a lifecycle that is split into four quadrants (optimizing, changing, supporting and operating)?. A. CobIT TM. B. ITIL. C. MOF. D. Six Sigma.

When scoping for ISO/IEC 20000, what is it that will be audited for certification?. A. the ITIL processes in scope. B. the Management System in scope. C. the sections of the standard in scope. D. the services in scope.

Which of the following is within the scope of the requirements of ISO/IEC 20000?. A. Charging for IT Services. B. Information Security Management. C. Operations. D. Service Desk.

Top management needs to ensure that its employees are aware of the relevance and importance of their activities. What else do all employees need to be aware of?. A. how they can provide policies and a framework for a Management System. B. how they contribute to the achievement of the Service Management objectives. C. how they contribute to the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO). D. how they contribute to the total salary reduction.

Which processes should the Plan, Do, Check, Act methodology be applied to?. A. all of the processes in scope of ISO/IEC 20000. B. the Planning & Implementing Service Management process. C. the Requirements for a Management System process. D. those that support business critical services.

What does the concept of "quality" comprise?. A. satisfying customer requirements. B. gaining ISO/IEC 20000 certification. C. execution of Service Level Agreements (SLAs) only. D. maximizing utilization of personnel capacity.

What is according to ISO/IEC 20000 a required part of the planning for new or changed services?. A. establishing a good relationship with the Customer. B. service acceptance criteria. C. setting up a process to deal with contractual disputes. D. the process for identifying, measuring, reporting and managing improvement activities.

What does the standard explicitly recommend to be implemented with Configuration Management?. A. Change. B. Change and Release. C. Change and Security. D. Release.

The success and failure of Releases shall be measured. What is included in these measurements?. A. the frequency and types of Releases. B. the Incidents related to a Release in the period following a Release. C. the Release dates. D. the Request for Change (RFC).

What services can be left out of the Service Catalogue?. A. incidental services that are seldom delivered. B. network-related services. C. services that are delivered to less then 10% of the Customers. D. no services.

According to the ISO/IEC 20000 standard it is important that a process exists to deal with contractual disputes with suppliers. Which process is responsible for the definition of this process?. A. Business Relationship Management. B. Contract Management. C. Service Level Management. D. Supplier Management.

What triggers a re-test of the Availability and Service Continuity plans?. A. a major change to the business environment. B. a major disaster having occurred. C. significant periods of unplanned non-availability. D. six months having passed since the last test.

Security controls shall be documented. What will the controls be related to?. A. locations. B. risks. C. services. D. staff.

If the service provider believes the service levels will not be met for an incident, when shall a customer be informed of this?. A. After the breach. B. Before the breach. C. During service reporting. D. Never.

Problem Management is responsible for carrying out trend analysis of Incident volumes and types. What is the reason for this?. A. to be able to charge to the correct users of the service. B. to be able to provide reports to management. C. to prevent repetitive occurrence of Incidents. D. to provide input to the Capacity Database.

During an audit, evidence is required for Service Management policies, plans and procedures. Who should ensure that this evidence is available?. A. the Auditor. B. the Business Relationship process owner. C. the Senior responsible owner. D. the Service Level Manager.

While planning for service improvements, what is an important best practice to consider?. A. Service improvement targets should be measurable, linked to business objectives and documented in a plan. B. The progress of service improvement should be discussed at least weekly in the steering committee. C. The progress should be monitored closely by an independent project manager to maintain objectivity. D. The service improvement targets should not change until the target is reached, or else no consistency is maintained.

What should planning for a new or changed service consider?. A. a complete review of all recent security breaches. B. Known Errors to file systems. C. the existing service levels. D. verification that the appropriate level of testing is completed.

Part of the Configuration Management process is about Configuration identification. What should be included as an attribute of a managed Configuration Item (CI)?. A. Incidents. B. Known Errors. C. Licenses. D. Requests for Change (RFCs).

All service changes should be reflected in Change Management records. Which of the aspects below is an example of a service change, that needs to be reflected in a Change record?. A. a formal closure of services. B. a major Incident. C. a Service Level Agreement failure. D. an identified Problem.

Customer satisfaction measurement is an important activity in the Business Relationship Management process. What is the objective of Customer satisfaction measurement?. A. to enable the Service Provider to compare performance with the Customer satisfaction targets and previous surveys. B. to gather information about potential new services that might be interesting for the end users of the services. C. to optimize the resolution processes so that service levels are exceeded. D. to reduce Incidents during the service delivery process.

How should the requirements for Service Continuity and Availability be identified?. A. This should be calculated based upon historical data for major Incidents and their consequences for the organization. B. This should be done on the basis of Customer satisfaction investigations, so that the real user need can be clearly identified. C. This should be identified based upon the business priorities, Service Level Agreements (SLAs) and assessed risks. D. This should be made up from Service requirements and Service Level Agreements (SLAs) if available.

Where are agreements regarding Service Delivery and its relationship to Security Management recorded?. A. in a Capacity Plan. B. in a Configuration Management Database (CMDB). C. in a Definitive Software Library (DSL). D. in a Service Level Agreement (SLA).

When should the final closure of an Incident record be completed?. A. when all relevant information for classification and routing has been entered. B. when the Incident has been dispatched outside the Service Desk department. C. when the Incident is solved and normal operation is restored. D. when the initiating user has been given the opportunity to confirm that the service is restored.

Who has a responsibility in continual improvement?. A. the customer. B. all employees. C. Quality experts only. D. Management only.

What is a benefit to an organization when the services are delivered according to ISO/IEC 20000?. A. The environmental needs of the employees in the organization are well looked after. B. The organization becomes more customer focused. C. The organization behaves in a socially responsible way. D. The organization has less suppliers to deal with.

What purpose does implementation of a Quality Management System as per ISO/IEC 20000 serve?. A. It allows the suppliers to have full visibility of the organization's internal processes. B. It defines specific Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) upon which service performance can be assessed. C. It forces the organization to adopt a hierarchical management approach. D. It provides a guideline for the Quality Management measures that must be taken to implement quality policy in an organization.

Which of the following is true of process descriptions?. A. They express the level of compliance with the requested quality characteristics. B. They represent a complete set of monitoring options. C. They describe vertical and horizontal escalation options. D. They complement descriptions of structural and organizational roles and responsibilities.

Which of the following is an ISO/IEC 20000 requirement relating to the service management plan?. A. it must be available in at least one hard copy and approved. B. it must include the documented procedures specified by the standard. C. it must include the scope of the organization's service management plan. D. It must never include any know-how of the organization.

The Relationship processes describe the relationships with the business and with the suppliers. What should the Relationship processes ensure?. A. that all parties understand the business needs, responsibilities and obligations. B. that the business and suppliers are directly informed of Major Incidents. C. that the service levels for all services are consistent in the supply chain. D. that there is a frequent contact between the suppliers and the business to resolve dissatisfaction issues.

Why are processes required?. A. to be able to define quality objectives in a structured manner. B. to ensure that service issues never arise. C. to provide consistency in the output from activities. D. to satisfy the needs of major outsource providers.

What is a benefit to an organization when the services are delivered according to ISO/IEC 20000?. A. The environmental needs of the employees in the organization are well looked after. B. The organization becomes more process focused and thereby more efficient. C. The organization behaves in a socially responsible way. D. The organization has less suppliers to deal with.

The Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) methodology can be applied to all ISO/IEC 20000 processes. What does the Act phase of this methodology cover?. A. establishing the objectives and processes necessary to deliver results in accordance with Customer requirements and the organization's policies. B. implementation of the processes. C. monitoring and measuring processes and services and reporting the results. D. taking the necessary actions to continually improve process performance.

An approach to developing and implementing a Quality Management System consists of several steps. Which of the following is not a necessary step?. A. agreeing to the quality policy and objectives with the Change Manager. B. determining and providing the resources necessary to attain the quality objectives. C. determining the needs and expectations of Customers and other interested parties. D. establishing methods to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of each process.

What is the primary purpose of analyzing Change records?. A. to be able to open a new Problem record, so proactive identification of Incidents is possible. B. to check if related Incident records are adequately closed. C. to detect increasing levels of Changes and emerging trends. D. to provide input to the Service Reporting process.

Personnel should be competent on the basis of appropriate education and experience. Which of the following is a best practice relating to competence?. A. Appropriate records of education, training, skills and experience need to be maintained. B. At least two employees should be suitably trained for each role. C. Employees should have at least a relevant bachelors degree. D. Personnel should all have a relevant Security training according to ISO/IEC 27002.

Which standard describes the fundamental aspects of Quality Management Systems?. A. ISO 9000. B. ISO/IEC 15504. C. ISO/IEC 20000. D. ISO/IEC 27001.

What is the objective of the Service Continuity and Availability Management processes?. A. to ensure agreed effective communication towards Customers. B. to ensure that agreed levels of service commitments to Customers can be met in all circumstances. C. to ensure that agreed Service Continuity and Availability commitments to Customers can be met in all circumstances. D. to ensure that agreed Service Continuity and Availability commitments to providers can be met in all circumstances.

A group of activities within Release Management is roll-out, distribution and installation. What should be ensured as part of these activities?. A. Changes are scheduled based upon priority and risk. B. Contingency and back-out plans are available. C. Redundant products, services and licenses are decommissioned. D. The Release is tested to the satisfaction of the Customers.

Top management has to provide evidence of its commitment to developing, implementing and improving its Service Management capability within the context of the organization's business and Customers' requirements. What is the best way that management can make this visible?. A. by outsourcing Change Management. B. by taking disciplinary action against underperforming employees. C. by taking part in the planning of new IT services. D. through leadership and actions.

Which of the following is used as a set of guidance materials for IT governance?. A. CobITTM. B. ISO 9000. C. ISO/IEC 20000. D. MOF.

What is the objective of IT Service Management?. A. to provide critical services to business customers. B. to provide guaranteed service levels against business requirements. C. to provide management of services to meet business requirements. D. to provide services to the maximum level to the business.

To which process shall Problem Management ensure that up-to-date information on Known Errors and corrected Problems is available?. A. all ISO/IEC 20000 processes. B. Availability Management. C. Configuration Management. D. Incident Management.

Which type of event or activity can trigger a service Change, which would need to be catered for in the Service Management plan?. A. Major Incident. B. Service improvement activities. C. System Lifecycle Management. D. Urgent Change.

Why is it important that reviews are conducted at regular intervals during the Check phase of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) methodology?. A. to be able to allocate roles and responsibilities. B. to be able to define the objectives and requirements that are to be achieved by Service Management. C. to be able to establish the Service Management policy, objectives and plans. D. to determine whether the Service Management requirements are effectively implemented and maintained.

What is the certification audit primarily based on?. A. personnel records. B. process descriptions. C. reports by certified financial auditors. D. specifications.

What is the correct way to make a change to a contract as a result of a major review of an authorized contract?. A. through the Business Relationship Management process. B. through the Change Management process. C. through the Customer representative. D. through the Supplier Management process.

Targets for resolution should be based on priority. When scheduling Incident or Problem resolution, which of the following should not be taken into account?. A. the available skills. B. the competing requirements for resources. C. the effort/cost to provide the method of resolution. D. the number of previously reported Incidents for the particular Configuration Item (CI).

What is a responsibility of the Service Provider with regard to Supplier Management as defined in ISO/IEC 20000-1:2005?. A. to ensure that a process exists for the procurement of suppliers. B. to ensure that Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with suppliers are aligned with SLAs of the business. C. to ensure that subcontracted suppliers meet contractual requirements in all circumstances. D. to ensure that supplier processes and procedures are defined where outsourced.

What details should be recorded as a baseline prior to implementing a plan for service improvement?. A. backlog of changes for the service. B. number of staff involved. C. service quality and levels. D. time taken to operate the process.

What is SixSigma®?. A. It is a quality instrument to measure defects in process outputs. B. It is a six step maturity model to improve the capability of business processes. C. It is a standard that is recently developed for improvement of IT processes. D. It is a structured, statistically based approach to process improvement.

How should the Deming cycle be used?. A. as a model for continual improvement. B. as a model for customer orientation. C. as a model to be used during the design phase of the service. D. as a model to calculate the costs of service improvement.

What is the definition of Availability?. A. a record containing details of which Configuration Items (CIs) are affected and how they are affected by an authorized Change. B. a snapshot of the state of a service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time. C. any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes or may cause an interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of that service. D. the ability of a component or service to perform its required function at a stated instant or over a stated period of time.

New or changed services need to be accepted before being implemented into the live environment. What shall be done after a new or changed service has been implemented?. A. A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is held comparing actual outcomes against those planned. B. An approach needs to be defined for interfacing to projects that are creating or modifying services. C. Nothing additional: the new or changed service goes into Business As Usual and will be managed as a normal service. D. The manner in which the Change shall be reversed or remedied if unsuccessful needs to be defined.

What is the recommendation with regard to the implementation of an emergency Change?. A. Only the senior manager should authorize emergency Changes. B. The Change process should be completely bypassed. C. There is a separate process for emergency Changes. D. Where possible the Change process should be followed.

For which type of organizations is ISO/IEC 20000 appropriate for use?. A. for organizations to confirm that all of the ITIL® guidelines have been implemented. B. for organizations which need to demonstrate alignment to customer requirements. C. for organizations wishing to certify their services. D. for tool vendors to specify the Service Provider's processes.

Any organization may be impacted by legislative or regulatory change in the future. Where should this be covered?. A. in a Change request. B. in the Business Relationship Management process. C. in the Service Level Agreement (SLA). D. in the Service Management plan.

What level of Capacity is targeted by Capacity Management?. A. sufficient Capacity to meet agreed current and future demands. B. sufficient Capacity to meet all current and future demands. C. sufficient Capacity to meet all development and operational requirements. D. sufficient Capacity to meet current demands only.

What does a quality policy aim to define?. A. the formally expressed quality intentions and direction of an organization. B. the legal obligations that the organization must fulfill. C. the requirements of ISO/IEC 20000. D. the requirements of the customer as stated in the Service Level Agreement (SLA).

Which audit is conducted by, or on behalf of, the organization itself for internal purposes and can form the basis for an organization's self-declaration of conformity?. A. First party audit. B. Second party audit. C. Third party audit. D. Fourth party audit.

In planning to implement Service Management, what does the plan need to say regarding tools according to ISO/IEC 20000-2:2005?. A. The plan defines the tools as appropriate to support the processes. B. The plan details the effects of new technologies and techniques on capacity. C. The plan does not state any tools requirements. D. The plan lists how every individual process is supported by a tool.

Why is a scope statement for ISO/IEC 20000 important?. A. It defines what the management system has been certified against. B. It details all of the companies that have been certified. C. It details all of the services that have been certified. D. It identifies which processes have been excluded from the scope.

Where would an IT service for the customer normally be defined?. A. in the IT Framework. B. in the Operational Level Agreement (OLA). C. in the Service Catalog or the Service Level Agreement (SLA). D. in the Service Report.

What is required to be included in Release Management procedures according to ISO/IEC 20000?. A. the authorization and implementation of emergency Changes. B. the investigation and prevention of Security Incidents. C. the recording of all reported Incidents. D. the updating and changing of configuration information and Change records.

What should planning for new or changed services include?. A. budgets and staff resources. B. major non-conformities to all Underpinning Contracts (UCs). C. recent Problems and Known Errors in the desktop environment. D. trends in Capacity growth of the current applications.

What is required to be included in proposals for new or changed services according to ISO/IEC 20000?. A. an updated Operational Level Agreement. B. cost, organizational, technical and commercial impact. C. the policies, plans and procedures of each process or set of processes. D. the Service Management plan.

What purpose can the ISO/IEC 20000 standard serve?. A. It defines specific Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) upon which service performance can be assessed. B. It defines the requirements to be satisfied in a certification audit. C. It helps to decide on the requirements that need to be verified within the scope of a supply agreement. D. It provides a yardstick for the design of a Total Quality Management System.

Why is it important for Service Providers to provide documents and records?. A. It is part of the requirements (evidence) to become ISO/IEC 20000 compliant. B. to be able to uniquely identify and record all Configuration Items (CIs) in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). C. to ensure effective planning, operation and control of Service Management. D. to ensure employees are aware of the relevance and importance of their work activities.

Who should be recommended to support the Senior Responsible Owner in his/her responsibility for the delivery of the management system?. A. a decision taking group. B. the Change Advisory Board (CAB). C. the senior customer representative. D. the service managers.

What are the key contents of an IT Service Management System?. A. a software system for the ticket system. B. a software system to monitor the key performance indicators (KPIs). C. definition of corporate measures to achieve the required level of quality. D. systematic processes for ticket recording and follow-up only.