ingles practica

What is dyspnea?. A. A skin rash. B. A type of cough. C. A subjective sensation of difficulty breathing. D. A gastrointestinal symptom.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of dyspnea?. A. Abdominal pain. B. Difficulty breathing. C. Feeling of shortness of breath. D. Rapid breathing.

What is a common cardiac cause of JVD?. A. Right-sided heart failure. B. Hyperthyroidism. C. Asthma. D. Gastritis.

What is jugular vein distention (JVD)?. A. Decreased jugular venous pulse. B. Visible increase of jugular venous pressure. C. Carotid artery obstruction. D. Abnormal bulging of neck veins due to retrograde pressure.

Which organ is enlarged in hepatomegaly?. A. Heart. B. Liver. C. Lung. D. Pancreas.

What clinical method helps confirm hepatomegaly?. A. Allen’s test. B. Lung auscultation. C. Percussion and palpation of the right hypochondrium. D. Valsalva maneuver.

Which tool is used to assess the severity of dyspnea?. A. Glasgow Coma Scale. B. Modified Medical Research Council (mMRC) scale. C. Apgar score. D. RASS scale.

Which of the following is a chronic respiratory cause of dyspnea?. A. COPD exacerbation. B. Asthma. C. Pulmonary embolism. D. Hyperventilation syndrome.

What is a typical feature of right-sided heart failure?. A. Increased systemic venous pressure and peripheral edema. B. Decrease in right ventricle size. C. It mainly affects the left ventricle. D. It always occurs independently from left-sided heart failure.

What is a compensatory mechanism in chronic heart failure?. A. Decreased sympathetic tone. B. Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). C. Reduction of blood volume. D. Inhibition of neurohormonal systems.

What is the most common cause of neurogenic shock?. a. Myocardial infarction. b. Severe allergic reaction. c. Spinal cord injury above T6. d. Dehydration.

What is the main chemical mediator involved in anaphylactic shock?. a. Dopamine. b. Serotonin. c. Histamine. d. Acetylcholine.

What medication is the initial treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock?. a. Loratadine. b. Dexamethasone. c. Adrenaline. d. Salbutamol.

Which of the following is a non-hemorrhagic cause of hypovolemic shock?. a. Ruptured abdominal aneurysm. b. Severe dehydration due to diarrhea. c. Postoperative bleeding. d. Digestive bleeding from ulcers.

Which of the following is a typical symptom of septic shock?. a. High blood pressure. b. Slow and deep breathing. c. Cold and mottled skin. d. Increased appetite.

What can cause obstructive shock?. a. Broken bone. b. Tension pneumothorax. c. High blood sugar. d. Liver infection.

What is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock?. a. Pulmonary embolism. b. Acute myocardial infarction. c. Severe dehydration. d. Aortic dissection.

Which type of shock is most likely to present with warm, flushed skin in the early phase, despite hypotension?. a) Hypovolemic shock. b) Cardiogenic shock. c) Septic shock. d) Obstructive shock.

In cardiogenic shock, why does oxygen delivery to tissues decrease even when blood volume is adequate?. a) There is excessive vasodilation. b) The heart cannot pump effectively. c) Oxygen content of the blood is abnormally low. d) The vascular resistance is too high.

Which of the following is a common compensatory mechanism activated in early shock, regardless of type?. a. Increased renal blood flow. b. Decreased heart rate. c. Peripheral vasoconstriction. d. Suppression of the sympathetic nervous system.

What is the most common causative agent of uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI)?. a) Klebsiella pneumoniae. b) Proteus mirabilis. c) Escherichia coli. d) Enterococcus faecalis.

Which finding in urinalysis is most suggestive of a UTI?. a) Hemoglobin in urine. b) Ketone bodies. c) Positive nitrites. d) Glucose in urine.

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of lower urinary tract infection (cystitis or urethritis)?. a) Dysuria. b) Urinary frequency. c) Flank pain. d) Suprapubic discomfort.

Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy for treating a UTI?. a) Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid. b) Nitrofurantoin. c) Ciprofloxacin. d) Cephalexin.

Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with pyelonephritis rather than cystitis?. A) Suprapubic pain. B) Increased urinary frequency. C) Flank pain. D) Cloudy urine.

What laboratory finding is most suggestive of a urinary tract infection caused by nitrate-reducing bacteria such as E. coli?. A) Hematuria. B) Positive nitrites. C) Low creatinine. D) Proteinuria.

Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of a lower urinary tract infection (cystitis or urethritis)?. A) High fever and chills. B) Dysuria. C) Flank pain and vomiting. D) Confusion and falls.

Which clinical sign suggests an upper urinary tract infection (pyelonephritis) rather than a lower one?. A) Suprapubic pain. B) High fever and costovertebral angle tenderness. C) Frequent urination without fever. D) Urethral itching with no other symptoms.

What is a good hygiene practice to avoid bacterial entry into the urethra?. A) Wipe from back to front. B) Frequent use of synthetic underwear. C) Wipe from front to back. D) Daily vaginal douches.

What is a key recommendation to help prevent a urinary tract infection?. A) Drink fluids in moderation. B) Wipe from back to front. C) Hold urine for longer periods. D) Drink plenty of water.

What is the most common type of prostate cancer?. A. Sarcoma. B. Adenocarcinoma. C. Lymphoma. D. Carcinoid tumor.

Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological mechanism underlying storage symptoms in BPH?. A) Increased detrusor compliance. B) Urethral sphincter spasm. C) Detrusor muscle hypertrophy and instability. D) Bladder wall remodeling due to chronic outlet obstruction.

Which test is used to check the level of a protein that may indicate prostate cancer?. A. MRI. B. PSA blood test. C. CT scan. D. Bone scan.

Which pharmacologic strategy specifically targets the hormonal pathway involved in prostatic enlargement?. A) Alpha-1 adrenergic blockers. B) 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors. C) Beta-3 agonists. D) Anticholinergic agents.

What is the most appropriate initial evaluation in a male patient with LUTS suggestive of BPH but no red flag symptoms?. A) Cystoscopy. B) Urodynamic testing. C) International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS). D) Transrectal prostate biopsy.

What is the main microorganism that causes acute prostatitis?. A) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Candida albicans. C) Escherichia coli. D) Pseudomonas eruginosa.

Which NIH category describes chronic prostatitis without inflammation or infection?. A) Category I. B) Category II. C) Category IIIA. D) Category IIIB.

Where is the prostate located?. A) Between the testicles and the penis. B) Behind the bladder and below the rectum. C) Below the bladder and surrounding the urethra. D) Inside the scrotum, next to the vas deferens.

Which area of the prostate is most affected by prostate cancer?. A) Transitional zone. B) Peripheral zone. C) Anterior fibromuscular zone. D) Central zone.

What is one of the main functions of prostate-specific antigen (PSA)?. A) To increase testosterone production. B) To generate sperm. C) To liquefy semen to facilitate sperm motility. D) To regulate blood pressure in the prostate.