inspection

What is the main pigment responsible for the normal red color of meat?. Hemoglobin. Myoglobin. Metmyoglobin. Carboxymyoglobin. Nitrosomyoglobin.

Which of the following factors contributes to the formation of metmyoglobin in meat?. High oxygen levels. Exposure to hydrogen peroxide. Presence of nitric oxide. Elevated carbon dioxide levels. Low oxygen levels.

What is the physiological function of deoxymyoglobin (DEMb) in meat?. To store oxygen. To enhance flavor. To prevent bacterial growth. To increase water-holding capacity. To promote oxidation.

Which type of meat condition is characterized by a high ultimate pH, purplish-black color, firm texture, and dry sticky surface?. Pale-Soft-Exudative (PSE). Dark-Firm-Dry (DFD). Oxy-Mb condition. Carboxymyoglobin state. Nitrosomyoglobin formation.

In which condition does meat bind water poorly, leading to exudation and a pale appearance?. Dark-Firm-Dry (DFD). Oxy-Mb condition. Pale-Soft-Exudative (PSE). Carboxymyoglobin state. Nitrosomyoglobin formation.

What is the purpose of using low levels of carbon monoxide in modified atmosphere packaging?. To enhance tenderness. To extend shelf life. To increase water-holding capacity. To prevent oxidation. To promote bacterial growth.

Which pigment is formed when myoglobin interacts with hydrogen peroxide?. Carboxymyoglobin (MBCO). Cholemyoglobin (ChMb). Sulfmyoglobin (SMb). Nitrosomyoglobin (MbNO. Oxy-Mb (MbO).

What is the primary factor responsible for differences in oxygen consumption rate of mitochondria, affecting MbO formation? a. Age b. Species c. Sex d. Diet e. Presence of nitric oxide. a. Age. b. Species. c. Sex. d. Diet. e. Presence of nitric oxide.

Which of the following conditions is predominantly found in pork and is the result of sarcoplasmic protein and myosin denaturation?. a. Dark-Firm-Dry (DFD). b. Oxy-Mb condition. c. Pale-Soft-Exudative (PSE). d. Carboxymyoglobin state. e. Nitrosomyoglobin formation.

What is the effect of accelerated carcass processing methods like electrical stimulation on meat color?. a. Increased water-holding capacity. b. Enhanced tenderness. c. Decreased protein denaturation. d. Delayed browning. e. Increased protein denaturation.

12. Which molecule is more strongly bonded to myoglobin than oxygen in smoke or modified atmosphere packaging?. a. Carbon dioxide (CO2). b. Nitric oxide (NO). c. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2). d. Oxygen (O2). e. Carbon monoxide (CO).

What does nitric oxide (NO) primarily bond with in myoglobin, preserving the red color?. a. Oxy-Mb (MbO). b. Carboxymyoglobin (MbCO). c. Deoxymyoglobin (DEMb). d. Metmyoglobin (MMb). e. Nitrosomyoglobin (MbNO).

what is the consequence of physical exhaustion in animals on meat consistency and appearance?. a) Pale appearance. b) Increased water-holding capacity. c) Firmer consistency. d) Delayed browning. e) Decreased ultimate pH.

What is the primary determinant of the degree of marbling and iron content in meat?. a) Age. b) Sex. c) Plane and quality of nutrition. d) Species. Ante-mortem handling.

Which atmosphere composition is commonly used to maintain a bright red color in meat and limit bacterial growth and oxidation?. a) 80% oxygen, 20% nitrogen. b) 50% oxygen, 50% carbon dioxide. c) 0.4% carbon monoxide, 30% carbon dioxide, 69.6% nitrogen. d) 100% carbon dioxide. e) 10% oxygen, 90% nitrogen.

hat is the consequence of using elevated oxygen levels to extend the shelf life of fresh meat?. a) Enhanced flavor. b) Increased water-holding capacity. c) Delayed browning. d) Positive effect on organoleptic quality. e) Detrimental effect on organoleptic quality.

What is the primary component of the muscle tissue in meat? a) Collagen b) Myofibrils c) Adipose tissue d) Elastin e) Hemoglobin. a) Collagen. b) Myofibrils. c) Adipose tissue. d) Elastin. e) Hemoglobin.

Which type of muscle tissue is primarily responsible for providing support and movement?. a) Smooth muscle. b) Cardiac muscle. c) Skeletal muscle. d) Elastin. e) Collagen.

the thin filaments in muscle cells are mainly composed of: a) Actin b) Myosin c) Collagen d) Elastin e) Tropomyosin. a) Actin. b) Myosin. c) Collagen. d) Elastin. e) Tropomyosin.

h. h. h.

Which connective tissue sheath covers individual muscle fibers?.

Which fatty tissue is stored around the heart and kidney organs?. a) Intramuscular fat. b) Subcutaneous fat. c) Visceral adipose tissue. d) Intermuscular fat. e) Suet.

Which component of meat is primarily responsible for storing oxygen in muscles? a) Hemoglobin b) Myosin c) Elastin d) Myoglobin e) Actin. a) Hemoglobin. b) Myosin. c) Elastin. d) Myoglobin. e) Actin.

What characterizes "Bound Water" in muscle tissue?. a) It is tightly associated with meat proteins and hard to remove. b) It is subject to being lost due to muscle damage. c) It accounts for up to 80% of the water in fresh meat. d) It is associated with weak interactions with muscle proteins. e) It is affected by the pH of the muscle.

Which class of lipids is the major component of meat fat?. a) Phospholipids. b) Triglycerides. c) Sphingolipids. d) Sterols. e) Terpenes.

What are the two major components of phospholipids in animal cell membranes?. a) Glycerol and fatty acids. b) Sphingosine and phosphatidate. c) Serine and choline. d) Sphingosine and alcohol. e) Glycerol and phosphoric acid.

Which of the following is NOT a function of cholesterol?. a) Structural role in membranes. b) Biosynthetic precursor of bile acids. c) Synthesis of vitamin C. d) Precursor of steroid hormones. e) Role in signal transduction.

What percentage of the lipid in the plasma membrane consists of unesterified cholesterol?. a) 10-20%. b) 30-50%. c) 60-80%. d) 90-100%. e) 40-60%.

. Which carbohydrate is a non-digestible form important for producing beneficial short-chain fatty acids?. a) Glucose. b) Starch. c) Cellulose. d) Maltose. e) Sucrose.

What is the storage carbohydrate found in animal organisms?. a) Fructose. b) Starch. c) Sucrose. d) Cellulose. e) Glycogen.

. Which of the following is NOT considered a polyamine?. Putrescine. ) Spermine. c) Glutamine. d) Spermidine. e) Cadaverine.

Which meat product contains the highest level of vitamin B12 per 1 serving?. a) Chicken breast. b) Pork loin. c) Lamb leg. d) Beef brisket. e) Pollock, Atlantic.

Which mineral is crucial for proper red blood cell formation?. a) Sodium. b) Iron. c) Phosphorus. d) Zinc. e) Potassium.

What is the role of heme iron in the human body?. a) Cell growth. b) Bone formation. c) Protein synthesis. d) Oxygen storage and use in muscles. e) Wound healing.

Which mineral plays a vital role in the regulation of blood pressure and nerve cell impulses?. Iron. Sodium. c) Phosphorus. d) Calcium. e) Potassium.

what is the recommended daily intake of vitamin B12 for adults? a) 1.0 µg/day b) 2.0 µg/day c) 3.0 µg/day d) 4.0 µg/day e) 5.0 µg/day. a) 1.0 µg/day. b) 2.0 µg/day. c) 3.0 µg/day. ) 4.0 µg/day. e) 5.0 µg/day.

What is the definition of “meat” according to Regulation 853/2004?. a) only edible parts of domestic ungulates. b) edible parts of various animals including blood. c) exclusively parts of wild game. d) only parts of poultry. e) only parts of large wild game.

. Which animals fall into the category of "domestic ungulates"?. a) wild ungulates and lagomorphs. b) farm ratites and land mammals. c) domestic bovine, porcine, ovine and caprine animals. d) farmed birds and wild birds. e) wild land mammals that are not considered game.

What is the primary source of energy for muscle contraction during aerobic activity?. a) creatine phosphate. b) adenosine triphosphate (ATP). c) lactic acid.

What is the primary factor influencing meat toughness based on sarcomere length?. a) presence of myoglobin. b) amount of actomyosin cross-links. c) extent of overlap between myofilaments. d) pH level. e) glycogen reserves.

When does rigor mortis typically occur after slaughter in healthy animals?. a) within 3-6 hours. b) after 24-48 hours. c) after 6-24 hours. d) immediately after slaughter. e) after 1-2 hours.

Which condition results in meat that is soft, pale and exudative?. a) DFD. b) alkaline rigor. c) acid rigor in immobilized animals. d) rapid acidification due to stress. e) intermediate rigor.

What happens when the muscle enters rigor mortis in a contracted state?. a) the sarcomeres are extended. b) fewer actomyosin cross-links are formed. c) actomyosin formation decreases. d) the muscle tends to be though. e) the muscle become more tender.

What is the significance of a higher ultimate pH in meat? a) increased tenderness b) poor water-holding capacity c) improved resistance to microbial growth d) increased actomyosin cross-links e) dark, firm, dry characteristics. a) increased tenderness. b) poor water-holding capacity. c) improved resistance to microbial growth. d) increased actomyosin cross-links. e) dark, firm, dry characteristics.

What influences the rate of pH decline in post-mortem muscle?. a) temperature and glycogen reserve. b) type of muscle fiber and temperature. c) muscle contraction and water content. d) animal species and muscular activity. e) glycolytic rate and glycolytic potential.

What are the primary characteristics of "small wild game" according to the provided text?. a) they are farmed birds. b) they include lagomorphs and rodents. c) they are domestic ungulates. d) they live freely in the wild. e) they are exclusively wild ungulates.

What contributes primarily to muscle contraction during aerobic activity?. a) creatine phosphate reserves. b) presence of myoglobin. c) breakdown of glycogen. d) release of lactate. e) oxygen deprivation.

53. Which enzyme is responsible for hydrolysis of proteins during rapid drop post-slaughter?. a) myosin-ATPase. b) creatine phosphate. c) lysosomal enzymes. d) glycolytic enzymes. e) actin-binding proteins.

54. How does muscle pH affect glycolysis post-slaughter?. a) pH < 5.5 inhibits glycolysis. b) pH > 5.5 accelerates glycolysis. c) pH < 6.0 stimulates glycolysis. d) pH > 6.0 prevents glycolysis. e) pH < 5.0 stops glycolysis.

What contributes to the tenderness of meat based on the extent of actomyosin formations?. a) shorter sarcomeres. b) greater overlap of myofilaments. c) extensive actomyosin cross-links. d) increased contraction pre-rigor. e) reduced actin activity.

Which pathway primarily generates ATP in live animals during short bursts of extreme muscle activity?. a) glycolytic pathway. b) oxidative pathway. c) Krebs cycle. d) aerobic pathway. e) anaerobic pathway.

What impacts the pH decline pattern in post-mortem muscle?. a) muscular activity only. b) temperature only. c) animal species only. d) glycogen reserves only. e) a combination of factors.

hich muscle fiber types exhibit low-intensity contractions and are resistant to fatigue?. a) type lla fibers. d) type IIx fibers. b) type I fibers. c) type IIb fibers. e) oxidative (red) fibers.

What triggers the release of calcium ions in the muscle post-slaughter?. a) breakdown of glycogen. b) lack of ATP availability. c) rapid chilling of carcasses. d) activation of lysosomal enzymes. e) increased sarcomere length.

. What is the effect of rapid chilling on muscle contraction pre-rigor?. ) promotes actomyosin formation. b) inhibits actomyosin cross-links. c) increases glycogen reserves. d) prevents pH decline. e) leads to cold shortening.

What is the primary meat quality defect associated with the increased sarcoplasmic calcium concentration in pigs?. a) Dark, firm, dry condition. b) Pale, soft, exudative condition. c) Hampshire effect. d) DFD condition. e) Rapid glycolysis syndrome.

Which gene is associated with Porcine Stress Syndrome (PSS)? a) Halothane (Hal) gene b) Creatine kinase (CK) gene c) Myoglobin (Mb) gene d) Troponin (Tp) gene e) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) gene. a) Halothane (Hal) gene. b) Creatine kinase (CK) gene. c) Myoglobin (Mb) gene. d) Troponin (Tp) gene. e) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) gene.

How many genotypes are distinguished based on the gene associated with PSS? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four e) Five. a) One. b) Two. c) Three. d) Four. e) Five.

. Which muscle type reacts to intense physical activity and high physiological stress levels by exhibiting higher ultimate pH values?. a) Longissimus muscle. b) M. supraspinatus. c) Biceps femoris. d) Gastrocnemius. e) Deltoid.

What preventive measure helps reduce the effects of ante-mortem stress in pigs?. a) Longer transportation time. b) Immediate slaughter after loading. c) Extended resting time in lairage. d) Stressful animal handling. e) Exposure to high environmental temperature.

How does PSE meat influence microbial growth during storage? a) Decreases bacterial growth b) Enhances bacterial growth c) Has no effect on microbial load d) Varies with ambient temperature e) Depends on the breed of pigs. a) Decreases bacterial growth. b) Enhances bacterial growth. c) Has no effect on microbial load. d) Varies with ambient temperature. e) Depends on the breed of pigs.

What anomaly is observed exclusively in meat of pure or crossbreed? a) Dark, firm, dry condition b) Pale, soft, exudative condition c) Hampshire effect d) Porcine Stress Syndrome (PSS) e) Rapid glycolysis syndrome. a) Dark, firm, dry condition. b) Pale, soft, exudative condition. c) Hampshire effect. d) Porcine Stress Syndrome (PSS). e) Rapid glycolysis syndrome.

What factor characterizes the course of post-mortem pH decline in the Hampshire effect?. a) Decreased glycolytic potential. b) Increased water-holding properties. c) Normal ultimate pH values. d) Lower glycogen levels. e) Elevated glucose uptake.

What type of abnormal condition has been lately termed “PSE” in poultry meat? a) Rapid glycolysis syndrome b) Dark, firm, dry condition c) Pale, soft, exudative condition d) Hampshire effect e) Abnormal collagen synthesis. a) Rapid glycolysis syndrome. b) Dark, firm, dry condition. c) Pale, soft, exudative condition. d) Hampshire effect. e) Abnormal collagen synthesis.

What triggers high temperatures in poultry and contributes to PSE-like conditions?. a) Low metabolic rates. b) Excessive chilling post-slaughter. c) Wing flapping and free struggling. d) High ultimate pH values. e) Reduced glycogen stores.

What process leads to the condition known as Dark, Firm, Dry (DFD) meat?. a) Fast glycogen rate. b) Increased sarcoplasmic calcium. c) Low ultimate pH values. d) Reduced microbial load. e) Depletion of muscle glycogen reserves.

How does the resolution of rigor mortis impact the texture of meat? a) Softens the meat rapidly b) Tenderizes poultry faster c) Lengthens the onset of rigor d) Increases toughness initially e) Hastens the aging process. a) Softens the meat rapidly. b) Tenderizes poultry faster. c) Lengthens the onset of rigor. d) Increases toughness initially. e) Hastens the aging process.

What is the general time frame for chicken meat to achieve adequate tenderness?. a) 2-5 days. b) Less than a day. c) 7-10 days. d) 8-15 days. e) Over 21 days.

4. What factor contributes to the onset of rigor mortis in muscles?. a) ATP concentration increase. b) Reduction of intracellular calcium. c) Elevation of pH by lactic acid. d) High environmental temperature. e) Decreased stromal integrity.

What is the primary effect of glycogen depletion in meat post-slaughter?. a) Decreased pH levels. b) Increased glycogen reserves. c) Elevated ultimate pH values. d) Reduced microbial growth. e) Enhanced water-holding capacity.

What is the primary effect of glycogen depletion in meat post-slaughter? a) Decreased pH levels b) Increased glycogen reserves c) Elevated ultimate pH values d) Reduced microbial growth e) Enhanced water-holding capacity. a) Decreased pH levels. b) Increased glycogen reserves. c) Elevated ultimate pH values. d) Reduced microbial growth. e) Enhanced water-holding capacity.

Which factor causes excessive contraction of muscle leading to tough meat?. a) High ATP levels. b) Low ambient temperature. c) Sarcoplasmic reticulum breakdown. d) Fast chilling post-slaughter. e) Depleted glycogen stores.

What occurs when muscles are frozen pre-rigor and subsequently thawed?. a) Increased microbial growth. b) Toughening of the meat. c) Enhanced water-holding capacity. d) Decreased intracellular calcium. e) Reduced contraction in muscles.

How was meat aging initially defined?. a) Controlled aging process. b) Refrigerated storage for tenderness. c) Holding meat at abnormal temperature. d) Natural physiological transformation. e) Application of special temperature regime.

What term is now preferred to describe the post-rigor holding of meat? a) Ripening b) Aging c) Conditioning d) Cool conditioning e) High temperature condition. a) Ripening. b) Aging. c) Conditioning. d) Cool conditioning. e) High temperature condition.

According to classical theories, what factor is responsible for weakening myofibrillar structures during meat aging?. a) Increased ATP concentration. b) Release of free radicals. c) Elevated pH levels. d) Low osmotic pressure. e) Activation of sarcoplasmic reticulum enzymes.

what is the primary mechanism involved in meat aging?. a) Physico-chemical and enzymatic mechanisms. b) Breakdown of structural proteins by cathepsins. c) Breakdown of structural proteins by calpains. d) Activation of actin and myosin. e) Denaturation of titin.

Which enzyme is considered the initiator of muscle degradation and remodeling during meat aging?. a) Cathepsin. b) Protease. c) Calpastatin. d) Calpain. e) Actinase.

At what pH level is u-calpain first activated after death?. a) pH 5.4. b) pH 6.8. c) pH 7.5. d) pH 4.2. e) pH 6.0.

What is the primary role of calpastatin in living muscle cells?. a) Activation of calpains. b) Inhibition of cathepsins. c) Inhibition of calpains. d) Regulation of pH. e) Structural protein synthesis.

Which enzymes are optimally active at more acidic pH levels?. a) Calpains. b) Proteases. c) Cathepsins. d) Actinases. e) Myosinases.

Muscular stiffness sets in: a. simultaneously and regressively. b. starting with the rear train. c. simultaneously in all muscle groups. d. starting with smooth muscle. e. progressively starting with the previous train.

3. The lymph centers of the muscle masses from cattle are examined, including by sectioning: a. When tuberculosis lesions were detected during the examination of the organs. b. When tuberculosis lesions were detected in the gastrointestinal tract. c. When tuberculosis lesions were detected on the head. d. When tuberculosis lesions were detected in the lungs. e. All answers are correct.

. Meats from animals that are too thin are: a. Meats from marasmatic animals and meats from cachectic animals b. Meats from febrile animals c. Meats from marasmatic animals d. Meat from animals with septicemia e. Meats from cachectic animals. a. Meats from marasmatic animals and meats from cachectic animals. b. Meats from febrile animals. c. Meats from marasmatic animals. d. Meat from animals with septicemia. e. Meats from cachectic animals.

Non-nitrogenous extractive substances are: a. Creatine b. Protein nitrogen c. Non-protein nitrogen d. Cholesterol e. Glycogen and other simple sugars. a. Creatine. b. Protein nitrogen. c. Non-protein nitrogen. d. Cholesterol. e. Glycogen and other simple sugars.

The superior quality (specialties) in pigs is represented by: a. Tenderloin and ham. b. Tenderloin and chop. c. Back and hamstring. d. The middle of the breast and the chop. e. Ham, cutlet and back.

Sectioning of the spleen is done: a. From all species. b. Of cattle. c. Of goats. d. Of cattle and sheep. e. Of horses.

The time elapsed until the establishment of muscle stiffness is given by reaching the pH: a. 5.0 b. 6.0 c. 5.4 d. 6.5 e. 4.7. a. 5.0. b. 6.0. c. 5.4. d. 6.5. e. 4.7.

To prevent microbiological contamination of meat, evisceration must be performed: a. Maximum 45 minutes after bleeding. b. Maximum 30 minutes after bleeding. c. Maximum 1 hour after bleeding. d. Maximum 2 hours after bleeding. e. Maximum 1.5 hours after bleeding.

10. How to make the lung parenchyma sections of solipeds? a. Only at the level of the lymph centers b. Parallel to the longitudinal plane c. Transverse on the longitudinal axis d. Only on the trachea e. Only on large bronchi. a. Only at the level of the lymph centers. b. Parallel to the longitudinal plane. c. Transverse on the longitudinal axis. d. Only on the trachea. e. Only on large bronchi.

Which of the lymph centers of the head in cattle can be examined only by inspection and palpation? a. Thromboaortic b. Parotids c. Mandibles d. Retropharyngeal e. No answer is correct. a. Thromboaortic. b. Parotids. c. Mandibles. d. Retropharyngeal. e. No answer is correct.

What is the average duration of muscle stiffness, after installation? a. 20 hours b. 24 hours c. 30 hours d. 15 hours e. All answers are wrong. a. 20 hours. b. 24 hours. c. 30 hours. d. 15 hours. e. All answers are wrong.

The stamp in the case of meat obtained in units authorized for intra-community exchanges has the form: a. square b. triangular c. round d. hexagonal e. oval. a. square. b. triangular. c. round. d. hexagonal. e. oval.

The deep rotting of meat is due to the multiplication of bacteria: a. Flavobacterium, Aeromonas and Alcaligens. b. C.perfringens, at first, and then other species of clostridia. c. Pseudomonas-Acinetobacter-Moraxela. d. Chromobacterium. e. Salmonella and E. coli.

The trichinelloscopic examination for pork, in Romania, is done: a. For those from the non-professional system b. For family consumption c. For public consumption d. Where do you come from the industrial system e. For those from the non-professional system and for family consumption. a. For those from the non-professional system. b. For family consumption. c. For public consumption. d. Where do you come from the industrial system. e. For those from the non-professional system and for family consumption.

What are the micro-organisms that spoil the meat? a. Clostridia b. Salmonella c. Saprophytic species and micrococci d. Listeria e. E. Coli. a. Clostridia. b. Salmonella. c. Saprophytic species and micrococci. d. Listeria. e. E. Coli.

Muscle stiffness sets in in pigs in winter in: a. 3-4 hours. b. 6-8 hours. c. 1-5 hours. d. 2-5 hours. e. 1-2 hours.

In case of isolation of verotoxigenic E. coli in samples, the harvest from the surface of cattle and sheep carcasses is required: a. The application of veterinary sanitary restrictions. b. Meat and organs do not undergo heat treatment and are subject to veterinary sanitary restrictions. c. They are frozen and subject to veterinary sanitary restrictions. d. The meat and organs are subject to heat treatment, no veterinary sanitary restrictions apply. e. It is refrigerated and subject to the application of sanitary and veterinary restrictions.

What are the reasons why sections are made at the level of the cattle head? a. Lesions specific to listeriosis b. Lesions specific to tuberculosis c. To detect cysticerci, the detection of specific tuberculosis lesions d. Lesions specific to hydatidosis e. Detection of cysticerci. a. Lesions specific to listeriosis. b. Lesions specific to tuberculosis. c. To detect cysticerci, the detection of specific tuberculosis lesions. d. Lesions specific to hydatidosis. e. Detection of cysticerci.

Cathepsins are involved in: a. Alteration of the meat and in prerigidity. b. the maturation of the meat. c. altering the meat. d. prerigidity. e. the establishment of muscle stiffness.

Abnormally colored meats have causes: a. Food and medicines. b. Defective refrigeration. c. Medicinal, endogenous, food and medicinal pigments. d. Medicines and endogenous pigments. e. Defective freezing.

How to examine the lungs of pigs Select one: a. As in goats. b. As in sheep. c. As in solipedes. d. Not like solipedes. e. As in cattle.

Meat from too young calves represents: a. Youth under 41 days. b. Youth of at least 21 days. c. The umbilical wound is cicatrized. e. Youth under 31 days. d. The umbilical wound is not cicatrized and under 21 days.

The state of advanced gestation represents: a. The last quarter of pregnancy in bulls. b. Over 3 months of gestation in sows. c. Over 4 months in taurine. d. The last half of gestation in bulls. e. The last quarter of gestation in bulls and over 3 months of gestation in sows from B and C.

The characteristics of fetal meat (from fetuses) are: a. reduced nutritional value and shelf life. b. Normal nutritional value and good. c. high conservability. d. good preservation. e. normal nutritional value.

Mechanically separated meat (MSM) is used to obtain: a. Minced meat. b. Minced meat and meat preparations. c. Meat preparations. d. Boiled products, heate. Fresh sausages trea ted products and fillings. e. Fresh sausages.

Superficial contamination of carcasses is: a. It is not always present. b. It is not if it is refrigerated immediately. c. It is not if it freezes immediately. d. Always present. e. it's very big.

Which of the fibers have the property of hydrolyzing? a. Of collagen b. Of reticulin and elastin c. Of reticulin d. Of elastin e. All good answers. a. Of collagen. b. Of reticulin and elastin. c. Of reticulin. d. Of elastin. e. All good answers.

The objectives of examining the mammary gland in cattle are: a. Parenchyma. b. The integument, parenchyma and lymph centers. c. The integument. d. Parenchyma and lymph centers. e. Lymphocenters.

Checking muscle stiffness is done: a. No correct answe. b. In the first stage. c. After the general examination of the case. d. It is not relevant. e. After the head exam.

The characteristics of Halal meat are: a. Halal meat is kosher for Jews. b. Sacrifice in one shot only. c. The sacrifice is made by Muslims, practicing Jews or Christians. d. Certain parts of the casing are not consumed. e. The sacrifice is made only by the Mulsumans.

Lymphocenters of the gastrointestinal mass from cattle are examined by: a. Inspection and palpation. b. Inspection. c. Inspection, palpation and sectioning. d. Inspection and sectioning. e. Palpation.

What does the identification mark represent?. a. The stamp applied by the food industry operator. b. The stamp applied by the official veterinarian. c. The stamp applied by the local authority. d. Identification certificate. e. The stamp applied by the national authority.

What is the reference method or methods for detecting Trichinella larvae from muscle samples? a. Trichinelloscopy only b. Trichinelloscopy and artificial digestion c. Trichinelloscopy d. ELISA e. Artificial digestion. a. Trichinelloscopy only. b. Trichinelloscopy and artificial digestion. c. Trichinelloscopy. d. ELISA. e. Artificial digestion.

The superior quality (specialties) of beef represents: a. Muscle-fillet-loin and thigh. b. Tenderloin (fillet), sparrow and sirloin steak. c. Fleica and pulp. d. Sparrow steak and meat. e. Pulp.

In the case of the identification of Salmonella spp., as a food safety criterion at the level of retail units: a. Thermal treatment. b. Official withdrawal and withdrawn from human consumption. c. Freezing. d. Boiling. e. Refrigeration and freezing.

How is the sectioning of the cattle heart performed?. a. A single section in the longitudinal plane. b. Several sections in the longitudinal plane. c. Several sections in a transverse plane. d. All answers are correct. e. A single cross section.

The jig (pulp) represents the pulp from: a. calf. b. the goat. c. beefed up. d. pig. e. sheep.

How is the esophagus examined, under normal conditions, in cattle?. a. By inspection, palpation and sectioning. b. By inspection and palpation. c. All answers are correct. d. By inspection. e. Through inspection and sectioning.

The characteristics of Kosher meat are: a. All parts of the animal are Kosher. b. Sacrifice is done only in one shot. c. Reversible stunning practices are accepted. d. Stunning, killing with a single blow is not accepted. e. The answers from A and B.

Superficial rotting of meat is due to the multiplication of bacteria: a. C. perfringens. b. C. sporogenes. c. Salmonella. d. Salmonella and staphylococcus. e. Pseudomonas-Acinetobacter-Morax.

Measures to be taken in case of L. moncyitogenes identification in food: a. It is directed to obtain preparations. b. They are officially withheld and withdrawn from consumption. c. It is directed towards obtaining products through thermal processing. d. It is directed to obtain meat products. e. Repeat the microbiological examination.

If tubercular lesions were identified in the meat at the level of the bovine lung, it is required: a. The entire casing is declared unfit for human consumption. b. Declared unfit for human consumption that half carcass. c. Declared unfit for human consumption the front part of the casing. d. Declared unfit for human consumption only the lungs or that part of the carcass including the related lymph nodes. e. Confiscation of the rear train.

44. In case of identification of Salmonella spp., as a hygiene criterion of the technological process, the following is required: a. Meat and organs from cattle, sheep, goats, pigs and horses are not confiscated. b. Meat and organs from cattle, sheep, goats, pigs and horses are frozen. c. Meat and organs from cattle, sheep, goats, pigs and horses are confiscated. d. Meat and organs from cattle, sheep, goats, pigs and horses are refrigerated. e. Only meat from birds.

. What measures are taken when tuberculosis lesions are identified in several organs and parts of the carcass?. a. Microbiological control is performed. b. The affected areas are removed and the rest is given for conditioned consumption. c. Remove the affected areas and use the rest. d. Nothing is given for consumption. e. It can be directed to heat treatment.

What are the characteristics of meat from febrile animals?. a. Absent or poorly outlined rigidity, edema at the hock level, peritoneal and pelvic fat with a moist and milky appearance. b. Edema in the hock, peritoneal and pelvic fat with a moist and milky appearance. c. Dark colored muscle tissue. d. All answers are good. e. Rigidity absent or poorly outlined.

What does the health brand represent?. a. The stamp applied by the national authority. b. Health certificate. c. The stamp applied by the food industry operator. d. The stamp applied by the official veterinarian. e. The stamp applied by the veterinarian of the unit.

Examination of the kidneys is usually done by: a. Palpation. b. Inspection and palpation. c. Sectioning. d. Inspector.

xamination of the liver (parenchyma) from pigs is usually done by: a. Inspection b. Palpation and sectioning c. Palpation d. Inspection, palpation and sectioning e. Inspection and palpation. a. Inspection. b. Palpation and sectioning. c. Palpation. d. Inspection, palpation and sectioning. . Inspection and palpation.

the stamp used to mark meat unfit for human consumption is: a. Round. b. Hexagonal. c. Oval. d. Triangular. e. Square.

51. Muscular stiffness sets in: a. Progressive. b. Simultaneously in all muscle groups. c. Starting with the rear train. d. Simultaneous and regressive. e. Starting with smooth muscle.

Actin and myosin are: a. Myofibrillar proteins. b. Mitochondrial proteins. c. Proteins from nucleotides. d. Rasp Csi D. e. Sarcoplasmic proteins.

Dissection of the lungs from cattle is usually done: a. Transverse in the diaphragmatic lobes. b. Parallel to the major axis. c. Longitudinal on the main axis. d. Transverse across the heart lobes. e. Transverse on the apical lobes.

54. General characteristics of DFD meats: a. Defective salting and slow ripening b. No answer is correct c. The answers from A and B d. Reduced microbiological contamination e. Predisposition to alterative poceses. a. Defective salting and slow ripening. b. No answer is correct. c. The answers from A and B. d. Reduced microbiological contamination. e. Predisposition to alterative poceses.

55. Abnormally colored meats have causes: a) Food and medicines b) Defective freezing c) Medicines and endogenous pigments d) The answers from A and B e) The answers from A, B, C. a) Food and medicines. b) Defective freezing. c) Medicines and endogenous pigments. d) The answers from A and B. e) The answers from A, B, C.

the state of advanced gestation represents a) The last quarter of the state of gestation in bulls b) Last half of pregnancy in bulls c) Over 4 months for bulls d) Over 3 months of sow pregnancy e) The answers from B and C. a) The last quarter of the state of gestation in bulls. b) Last half of pregnancy in bulls. c) Over 4 months for bulls. d) Over 3 months of sow pregnancy. e) The answers from B and C.

57. Mechanically separated meat (CSM) is refrigerated and frozen at. a) Max +2 degrees Celsius and no more than -18 degrees. b) The answers from C and D. c) Max +8 degrees and no more than -20 degrees. d) Max 0 degrees and no more than -28 degrees. e) Max +4 degrees and no more than -20 degrees.

Edible organs are represented by. a) Cured meat. b) Mechanically aged meat. c) The answers from A and B. d) Portions from the poo. e) Fresh meat other than carcass, including viscera and blood.

59. Prevented meats from animals that are too weak are. a) Meat from animals with septicemia. b) Meats from marasmatic animals. c) Meat from febrile animals. d) Meats from cachectic animals. e) Answers a and b.

Meats with foreign smells can have causes a) Physiological b) Pathological c) Non-compliant storage d) The answers from A, B, and C e) Only the answers from A and C. a) Physiological. b) Pathological. c) Non-compliant storage. d) The answers from A, B, and C. e) Only the answers from A and C.

The identification of packaging, containers and vehicles used for the collection, storage and transport of animal by-products that are not intended for human consumption (SNCU) has the color code. a) Category 2 yellow color. b) Rasp A B C. c) Category 3 green color and high blue content. d) Category 1 black color. e) Category 4 yellow color with an intense shade of blue.

Acid fermentation (souring) of meat is a process. a) What characterizes refrigerated meats. b) Irreversible. c) It can be reversible. d) What characterizes very well-aerated meats. e) What characterizes frozen meats.

What are the characteristics of meat from febrile animals. a) Edema in the hock, peritoneum and pelvic fat with a moist and milky appearance. b) Answers from A B C. c) Dark colored muscle tissue. d) Rigidity absent or poorly outlined. e) The answers from B and C.

Specific risk materials (SRM) are marked with colored paint. a) Black. b) It is not marked. c) Blue. d) Red. e) Green.

65. The actual examination of the carcass is usually done: a) No correct answer. b) By inspection. d) Palpation and sectioning. e) Inspection, palpation and sectioning. c) Inspection and palpation, in two periods.

. Koshering represents. a) Reduction of staphylococci. b) Only the removal of blood from the surface. c) Removal of blood, including residual blood and part of myoglobin including sarcoplasmic proteins. d) Only the reduction of some microorganisms. e) Only the removal of residual blood.

the examination of the lymph centers of the carcass of horses is usually done by: a) Insect, palpation and sectioning. b) Inspection and palpation. c) Inspection. d) Sectioning. e) Palpation and sectioning.

68. The calpains are: a) Activated by Ca ions. b) Neutral proteinases. c) The answers to questions A B C. d) Located in the cytosol. e) The multicatalytic complex.

What are the main characteristics of PSE meat a) Answers from A B b) Defective freezing c) Defective technological processing d) Poor microbiological quality e) No correct answer. a) Answers from A B. c) Defective freezing. c) Defective technological processing. d) Poor microbiological quality. e) No correct answer.

Contamination with microorganisms in the depth of the muscle tissue is a) The answers from A and B b) Microorganisms are usually not present c) One microbial cell per 10 pieces of meat d) All answers are correct e) All answers are wrong. a) The answers from A and B. b) Microorganisms are usually not present. c) One microbial cell per 10 pieces of meat. d) All answers are correct. e) All answers are wrong.

72. What are the methods by which the lungs in cattle must be examined a) Palpation b) Inspection c) Sectioning d) Answers A, B, C e) Answers A and B. a) Palpation. b) Inspection. c) Sectioning. d) Answers A, B, C. e) Answers A and B.

What are sarcoplasmic proteins: a) Myosin and actin. b) Reticulin and elastin. c) Reticulin, elastin and glycogen. d) Myoglobin, nucleoproteins and mitochondrial proteins. e) Actin and tropomyosin.

Which of the statements is true?. a. kosher products are halal;. b. kosher products are not halal;. c. halal products are kosher;. d. halal products are not kosher;. e. a + d.

75. The detailed inspection of the carcass is done: a) From the level of the pelvic cavity. b) By region, from top to bottom. c) From the joints of the fat. d) From the neck. e) From the level of the previous members.

. Good quality meat contains connective tissue: - max 10%.

Examination of the portal lymph centers is done by: a) inspection. b) inspection, palpation and sectioning. c) sectioning. d) no correct answer. e) palpation.

. Parameters for which critical limits are established: a. Pasteurization of canned goods and semi-canned goods. b. Refrigerating, freezing and sterilizing food. c. Sterilization of milk and meat. d. Sterilization of cans, pasteurization of milk, detection of metals. e. Food refrigeration and freezing.

The prohibition of which type of meat is specific to the Halal and Kosher concepts: a. Horse. b. Taurine. c. Bird. d. Pig. e. Rabbit.

Specific only to the Kosher concept is: a. Existence of permitted/non-permitted foods. b. Prohibition of pork consumption. c. Blood is considered dirty. d. The person involved in the slaughter must be a Muslim. e. Prohibition of mixing milk and meat.

Specific only to the Halal concept is: a. Existence of permitted/non-permitted foods. b. Prohibition of pork consumption. c. Blood is prohibited. d. The person involved in the slaughter must be a Muslim. e. Prohibition of mixing milk and meat.

Kosherization is represented by: a. Soaking the meat in hot water and covering it with salt. b. Soaking the meat in cold water and covering it with sugar. c. Soaking the meat in cold water and covering it with salt. d. Soaking the meat in hot water and covering it with sugar. e. No option.

The presence of adipose tissue at the level of the perimysium is called marbling of the meat and is specific: a. Lagomorphs. b. Sheep. c. Taurines. d. Goats. e. Pigs.

The light red color of the meat immediately after slaughtering the animals is due to: a. The combination of sulfur with myoglobin. b. The combination of carbon monoxide with myoglobin. c. The combination of myoglobin with atmospheric nitrogen. d. The combination of oxygen with myoglobin. e. The combination of sulfur with myoglobin.

. The safety and quality of the US food supply is governed by: a. DG Health and Food Safety - the Directorate General Health and Food Safety. b. Fifteen agencies and stems from at least thirty laws. c. EFSA. d. ANSVSA.

The food regulation which lays down the general principles and requirements of food law and the procedures in matters of food safety, establishing the European Food Safety Authority is the following: Regulation (EC) No. 1069/2009 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 21 Oct 2009. Regulation (EC) No. 853/2004 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 29 April 2004. Regulation (EC) No 178/2002 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 28 January 2002. Regulation (EU) No. 1169/2011 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 25 Oct 2011.

3. Regulation (EC) No. 1760/2000 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 17 July 2000 lays down the following: a. the general principles and requirements of food law, establishing the European Food Safety Authority and laying down procedures in matters of food safety. b. establishing a system for the identification and registration of bovine animals and labeling of beef and veal meat nd meat products beef and veal. c. uniform practical arrangements for the performance of official controls on products of animal origin intended for human consumption in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2017/625 of the European Parliament and of the Council and amending Commission Regulation (EC) No 2074/2005 as regards official controls. d. hygiene rules for food of animal origin.

external fat (“body fat”) is softer than the internal fat surrounding organs because of: a. a higher content of unsaturated fat in the external parts. b. tryacyglycerols distribution. c. a higher content of saturated fats in the external parts. d. animal species/ none of the above.

The Food and Nutrition Board (2016) recommends that adults should consume on average: a. 3mg/ day of vitamin B12. b. 2mg/day of vit B12. c. 2.0 µg/day of vitamin B12. d. 0.2 µg/day of vitamin B12.

The ‘Hampshire effect’ in pork occurs due to: a. genetic. b. incorrect pre-slaughter animal handling. c. Transport stress. d. Moldy feed.

the rate of aging in various meats decreases in the order: a. Poultry>pork>beef>lamb. b. poultry > pork > lamb > beef. c. poultry>beef>pork>lamb. d. lamb>beef>pork>poultry. e. beef>pork>poultry>lamb.

n a meat cut, when collagen levels are high, the best option to achieve a well-done stage is: A, dry cooking b. dry aging c. Slow moist cooking (with gelatinized collagen) d. none. A, dry cooking. b. dry aging. c. Slow moist cooking (with gelatinized collagen). d. none.

To extend the shelf life of a fresh meat product, modified atmosphere packaging should: a. 80% oxygen and 20% carbon dioxide. b. 90% oxygen and 10% carbon dioxide. c. 50% oxygen and 50% carbon dioxide. d. 100% oxygen.

Veal meat represents: a. the meat of calves which are exclusively fed on milk and slaughtered at the age of 2-4 months when they weigh about 70 kg. b. the meat of calves which are fed exclusively on barley diet along with mineral and vitamin supplements, slaughtered early after weaning when they weight about 90kg. c. The meat of male calves of dairy breed which consume large quantities of milk and are slaughtered at the age of 1-7 days since their rearing. d. The meat of foals which are slaughtered a few days after rearing.

What is the GFSI? a. Government of Food standard investigation b. Global food standard inspection c. Global Food Swiss Information d. Government of Food Safety International e. Global Food Safety Initiative. b. Global food standard inspection. c. Global Food Swiss Information. d. Government of Food Safety International. e. Global Food Safety Initiative. a. Government of Food standard investigation.

3. What means a scientifically based process consisting of four steps: hazard identification, hazard characterization, exposure assessment and risk characterization?. a. Risk assessment. b. Risk analysis. c. Risk communication. d. Risk management. e. Risk information 
.

Which Regulation works on the hygiene foodstuff?. a. Regulation (EC) No. 853/2004. b. Regulation (EC) No 1881/2006. c. Regulation (EU) 2017/625. d. Regulation (EC) 852/2004. e. Regulation (EC) No. 854/2004.

. Which statement is NOT true regarding the food laws ensuring the protection of consumers’ interest?. a. They prevent the food adulteration or alteration. b. They prevent fraudulent practices. c. They prevent practices that may mislead the consumer in general. d. They prevent the food prices from being too high. e. They introduce the principles of transparency and traceability
.

6. Which of the following is NOT a Food Safety Management System (FSMS)? a. Global Red Meat Standard (GRMS) b. Foundation for Food Safety Certification (FFSC) c. Global Food Sustainable Information (GFSI) d. Safe Quality Food (SQF) e. International Organization for Standardization (ISO). a. Global Red Meat Standard (GRMS). b. Foundation for Food Safety Certification (FFSC). c. Global Food Sustainable Information (GFSI). d. Safe Quality Food (SQF). e. International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

. What is the ISO? 
. a. International safety organization. b. Independent organization for standardization. c. Inspection standards organization. d. Inspection safety organization. e. International organization for standardization
.

In order to be recognized by GFSI, CPOs (certification program owners) must verify that they meet the: a. Benchmarking requirements. b. Global food safety. c. Food safety standards. d. International featured standards. e. Food safety certifications
.

9. What are the FBO obligations?. a. Printing and commercializing. b. Authorization and commercializing. c. Components marking and registration. d. Animal origin, identification marking and printing. e. Registration, authorization and health marking.

What means the process, distinct from risk assessment, of weighing policy alternatives in consultation with interested parties, considering risk assessment and other legitimate factors, and, if need be, selecting appropriate prevention and control options? a. risk analysis b. Risk assessment c. Risk communication d. Risk management e. Risk investigation. a. risk analysis. b. Risk assessment. c. Risk communication. d. Risk management. e. Risk investigation.

Islamic dietary law is: a. Halal b. Dhabh c. Toyyib d. KOSHER e. Haram. a. Halal. b. Dhabh. c. Toyyib. d. KOSHER. e. Haram.

Haram is referring to: a. prohibition or restriction on food (As in the opposite of Halal and the Islamic prohibition/restriction on food). b. cleanliness - both spiritually and in the context of food and drink. c. lawful, legal food. d. correctly sacrificed animal. e. allowed food by god.

Islamic dietary law is focused on: a. placing prohibitions on various foodstuffs b. governing the ways in which food animals can be killed c. regulating the preparation foods d. regulating the storage of foods e. regulating the way of animal growth system. a. placing prohibitions on various foodstuffs. b. governing the ways in which food animals can be killed. c. regulating the preparation foods. d. regulating the storage of foods. e. regulating the way of animal growth system.

The meat prohibited by Islam is: a. camels. b. bovine. c. carnivores (Also Swine and Birds of prey). d. poultry. e. goat.

Slaughtering of permitted animals do not require: a. It must be slaughtered by an adult and sane (mentally competent) Muslim. b. Slaughter must be done by cutting the throat in a manner that induces rapid and complete bleeding, resulting in the quickest death. c. stunning. d. Allah must be invoked by name at the time of slaughter. e. An animal must be of a halal species.

Jewish dietary law: a. Kashrut. b. Treif. c. Halal. d. Haram. e. Halacha.

Treif describing: a. opposite meaning of kosher (similar to Haram). b. the same as halal. c. product clean for consumption. d. laws and regulations that govern all aspects of the life of a Jew. e. slaughtering ritual.

Allowed animals by kashrut: a. Ruminants with split hoofs that chew their cud. b. Pigs. c. sharks. d. seafood. e. carnivores.

Birds that are kosher: a. Emu. b. Ostrich. c. turkey. d. birds of prey. e. rhea.

Parve: a. is meat product in kashrut. b. is milk product in halal. c. neutral product in kashrut. d. is milk product in kashrut. e. neutral product in halal.

Food quality means: a) Represents the sum of all properties and assessable attributes of a food item. b) The levels are classified according to EFSA, starting from the absence of any defect until the fulfillment of the requirements. c) It is considered a multi-faceted phenomenon that includes only intrinsic factors. d) It is considered a multi-faceted phenomenon that includes only extrinsic factors. e) None of the above.

EFSA cover: a) Food and feed safety, nutrition, animal health and welfare, plant protection, plant health. b) Food and feed safety, animal health and welfare, plant protection, plant health. c) Food and feed safety, nutrition, animal health and welfare. d) Food and feed safety, plant protection, plant health. e) Only food and feed safety.

The activities of ANSVSA comprise: a) Authorization and certification in the fields of veterinary and food safety. b) Testing Laboratory. c) Crisis management. d) Supports prevention of food wasting. e) All of the above.

The endomysium is: a) a layer of fine connective tissue fibers encircling individual muscle fibers. b) a three-dimensional collagen network surrounding the muscle fiber bundles. c) represented by a fibrous sheath of connective tissue which surrounds the entire muscle. d) All of the above. e) None of the above.

Intermuscular fat is: a) the fat within muscles, placed at perimysium level (marbling). b) the fat between muscles (also known as seam fat). c) fat tissue found under the hide, which is visible after the skin is removed. d) hard fatty tissue around the kidneys and other organs of cattle and sheep. e) None of the above.

Myofibril proteins include: a) actin, myosin and troponin. b) collagen, elastin, and reticulin. (stromal proteins). c) pigments and glycolytic enzymes. d) actin, myosin, troponin, collagen, elastin and reticulin. e) hemoglobin and myoglobin.

Rigor mortis, or “the stiffness of death” occurs at: a) 3-6 hours after slaughter. b) 1-2 hours after slaughter. c) 6-24 hours after slaughter. d) 24-48 hours after slaughter. e) 32 hours after slaughter.

Which of the below factors affecting rigor mortis is not an intrinsic: a) Species of animal. b) Amount of glycogen. c) Initial level of ATP and creatine phosphate (CP). d) Health and condition of animal. e) Type of muscle. a) Species of animal. b) Amount of glycogen. c) Initial level of ATP and creatine phosphate (CP). d) Health and condition of animal. e) Type of muscle.

Which of the below factors affecting rigor mortis is not extrinsic: a) Atmospheric temperature b) health and condition of the animal c) Administration of drugs d) Amount of glycogen e) fast chilling post slaughter f) thaw rigor / freezing shortening. a) Atmospheric temperature. b) health and condition of the animal. c) Administration of drugs. d) Amount of glycogen. e) fast chilling post slaughter. f) thaw rigor / freezing shortening.

Little or no pink center is a color characteristic for doneness of meat at a temperature of: a)125°F (52°C) (rare – cool red center). b)135°F (57°C) (medium rare – warm red center). c)145°F (63°C) (medium – warm pink center). d) 160°F (71°C) (well done – light or no pink center)). e)150°F (66°C) (Medium well – slightly pink center).

Cooling of the dressed carcass for 1 -2 days is done at: a) 0.5 to 3 °C. b) 2 -3 °C. c) 4.5 -7 °C. d) 10 °C. e) 0 °C.

What is the permanent or periodic analysis of a situation, activity or thing in order to assess its state (condition) and to make appropriate decisions?. 1. control. 2. Concept. 3. Education. 4. Verification. 5. Regulation
.

What is an examination to assess the degree of compliance with a certain function, quality or condition, previously established?. 1. control. 2. Concept. 3. Education. 4. Verification. 5. Regulation
.

What are the three basic characteristics of a food control infrastructure?. 1. food law, inspectorate, supporting services (education, information, training and advisory support). 2. Food quality, security and others services. 3. Food law, quality and security. 4. Food safety, inspectorate and supporting services education, information, training and advisory support). 5. Food hygiene, food defense and food law.

What is the primary unit of official food control?. 1. good equipment. 2. adequately staffed and trained inspectorate. 3. Easy access to analytical tests. 4. Well organized food manufacturing. 5. For inspector to work only 3 hours per day 
.

Which organization is responsible for meat and poultry inspection (in processing plants that trade across state lines)?. 1. Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM). 2. Office of Foods and Veterinary Medicine (FVM). 3. Food safety Inspection Service (FSIS). 4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). 5. Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS).

What is the National Sanitary Veterinary and food safety authority (ANSVSA)?. 1. specialized organism of central public administration, with juridical personality, subordinated to the Government and the Prime - Minister coordination, through Prime-Minister Office. 2. Is part of the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS). 3. acting as a technical instrument of the National Sanitary Veterinary and food Safety Authority, for the monitoring of foods by: verification of food chemical residues, additives, biological contaminants, bio toxins, before the food product reaches the food chains. 4. specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger. 5. regulates the manufacture and distribution of food additives and drugs that will be given to animals.

What is the current name of Office international des Epizooties (OIE)?. 1. World health organization. 2. World Organization for Animal Health. 3. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations. 4. Institute for Biological Products Control and Veterinary Medicines. 5. Institute of Hygiene and Veterinary Public Health (IISPV)
.

Which organizations are related to the global food system among the United Nation specialized agencies?. 1. Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) and Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS). 2. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) and Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). 3. Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) and Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). 4. Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN) and Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM). 5. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and World Health Organization.

What are the two principal federal organizations responsible for USA food safety?. 1. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the US Department of Agriculture (USDA) – Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS). 2. The Office of Food and Veterinary Medicine (FVM) and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). 3. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the Institute of Diagnosis and Animal Health (IDSA). 4. The World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) and the US Department of Agriculture (USDA). 5. The Food and Veterinary Office (FVO) and the Institute of Diagnosis and Animal Health (IDSA).

Which domain is NOT covered by the scientific opinions and advice of the European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)?. 1. Nutrition. 2. Food and feed safety. 3. Plant health and protection. 4. Human health. 5. Animal health and welfare.

Which of the following is NOT correct about the official control preparation phase: 1. The official control will observe the scope and objectives throughout the processing flow, allowing for informed and accurate conclusions to be made at the end of the control activity. 2. Data collection - consultation of documents on the plant. 3. Preparation of personal official inspector portfolio (standard forms, guides, office supplies, camera, calibrated measurement devices for measuring temperature, pH, humidity or other specific parameters, inspector stamp, authority stamp etc.). 4. The official control will be performed according to the pre-established scope, and considering the legislation requirements. The official inspectors will proceed using the appropriate authorized Control Guidelines provided by the Competent authority (ANSVSA). 5. Research on the previous objectives and on the most recent official controls in the designated plant.

. Which of the following is NOT correct about the official control field phase: 1. The official inspector will identify himself and will present the travel order, which must be stamped and signed by the FBO. 2. The official inspector will request assistance from an employee of the plant, which must accompany him throughout the control activity within the premises. 3. The techniques and methods of official control may be visual inspection/ observation, measurements, document verification, interviews, sampling etc. 4. The official inspector will observe the confidentiality of any information obtain during the inspection. 5. The official control will be performed according to the pre-established scope, and considering the legislation requirements. The official inspectors will proceed using the appropriate authorized Control Guidelines provided by the Competent authority (ANSVSA).

Regulation (EU) no. 625/2017 of the European Parliament and of the Council (15 March 2017) on official controls and other official activities performed to: 1. ensure the application of the food and feed law. 2. ensure rules on animal health and welfare. 3. ensure plant health and plant protection products. 4. ensure the application of the food and feed law, rules on animal health and welfare, plant health and plant protection products. 5. None of the above mentioned.

What is the definition of “competent authorities”: 1. the central authorities of a Member State responsible for the organization of official controls and of other official activities. 2. any other authority to which that responsibility has been conferred. 3. where appropriate, the corresponding authorities of a third country ‘organic control authority’ means a public administrative organization for organic production and labelling of organic products of a Member State to which the competent authorities have conferred, in whole or in part, their competences. 4. None of the above mentioned. 5. All of the above mentioned.

Which one is not part of the official control documents: 
. 1. Travel order. 2. Notice of review. 3. Official detention form. 4. Report of offense. 5. Official attestation
.

Category of delay slaughter include the following animals, except: 1. Fatigued animal. 2. Animal affected with transit. 3. Excited animal. 4. Severely injured animal. 5. Inadequately rested animal.

Which of the followings isn´t a task performed by the OV in the pre-slaughter control?. 1. Issuing the health certificate. 2. Checking records, including animal identification and food chain information. 3. Take sample for laboratory analysis. 4. Control of requirements fulfillment for slaughterhouses. 5. Examining the welfare and health of animals.

Which animals can have ear-tags or tattoos as their identification?. 1. Porcine. 2. Equine. 3. Ovine. 4. Bovine. 5. Caprine.

Which of the followings is an obligation of the OV as regards checks of documents? accordance with Article 39. 1. Perform the necessary checks of documents to verify that the FCI is valid and reliable. 2. Inform the food business operator of the holding provenance of the minimum elements of FCI to be supplied to the slaughterhouse operator. 3. Verify the identification of the animals arriving at the slaughterhouse. 4. Verify the results of the checks and evaluations of FCI provided by the slaughterhouse operator. 5. Check if the feedback or relevant information to the holding of provenance is in accordance with Article 39.

Ante-mortem inspection should take place within: 1. 24 hours of arrival of the animals at the slaughterhouse and less than 24 hours before slaughter. 2. 12 hours of arrival of the animals at the slaughterhouse and less than 12 hours before slaughter. 3. 24 hours of arrival of the animals at the slaughterhouse and less than 8 hours before slaughter. 4. 12 hours of arrival of the animals at the slaughterhouse and less than 24 hours before slaughter. 24 hours of arrival of the animals at the slaughterhouse and less than 24 hours before slaughter. 12 hours of arrival of the animals at the slaughterhouse and less than 12 hours before slaughter. 24 hours of arrival of the animals at the slaughterhouse and less than 8 hours before slaughter. 12 hours of arrival of the animals at the slaughterhouse and less than 24 hours before slaughter. 8 hours of arrival of the animals at the slaughterhouse and less than 8 hours before slaughter.

How is called the primary bundle, or the grain of meat that is surrounded by connective tissue?. 1. endomysium. 2. Perimysium. 3. Epimysium. 4. Capillaries. 5. Fat tissue.

How is called the fat between muscles or « intermuscular fat »?. 1. Marbling. 2. Depot fat. 3. Suet. 4. Seam fat. 5. Subcutaneous fat.

To what refers Suet?. 1. Refers to the hard fatty tissue around the kidneys and other organs of cattle and sheep.
. 2. Refers to the hard fatty tissue around the kidneys and other organs of horses only. 3. Refers to soft fatty tissue around the lungs 
. 4. Refers to soft fatty tissue in the skin 
. 5. Refers to hard fatty tissue in heart 
.

How is called the fat within muscles, placed at perymisium level or « intramuscular fat »?. a. Marbling. b. Depot fat. c. Suet. d. Seam fat. e. Subcutaneous fat.

What is the best represented protein in animal organism?. 1. collagen. 2. Reticulin
. 3. Hemoglobin. 4. Elastin 
. 5. Troponin 
.

hich protein is responsible for color of meat? 1. myoglobin 
 2. Hemoglobin 
 3. Reticulin
 4. Elastin 
 5. Troponin. 1. myoglobin. 2. Hemoglobin 
. 3. Reticulin
. 4. Elastin 
. 5. Troponin.

Which compartment of water is the smallest and strongest that can be found in meat?. 1. Immobilized Water. 2. Mobilized Water
. 3. Free Water. 4. Bound Water. 5. Pure Water 
.

Which protein is converted into water-soluble gelatin when meat is cooked?. 1. Myosin
. 2. Collagen. 3. Actin
. 4. Troponin
. 5. Elastin.

Regarding the chemical composition of meat, what is the component that varies the least?. 1. Water. 2. Fat. 3. Protein. 4. Ash. 5. Calories/100g.

Meat is an important source of vitamin: 1. E. 2. D3. 3. B12. 4. C. 5. A.

Which Lymph nodes are very inconstant and not usually examined during post- mortem inspection?
. 2. Lateral retropharyngeal lymph nodes. 3. hyoideus rostralis and hyoideus caudalis of the ox. 4. Medial retropharyngeal lymph nodes
. 5. Parotid lymph nodes 
. 6. Mandibular lymph nodes
.

After every use, head hooks shall be rinsed and sanitized with the following water temperature: 
. 1. 76°C
. 2. 50°C. 3. 43°C. 4. 82°C. 5. 95°C
.

Tonsils are well developed especially in: 1. Horse. 2. Pig. 3. Goat. 4. Sheep. 5. Bovine.

The inspection of the head requires the evaluation of the three main lymph node formations (parotid, submaxillary, retropharyngeal). The retropharyngeal lymph nodes are divided into two parts: 1. Medial and lateral parts. 2. Medial and cranial parts. 3. caudal and cranial parts. 4. lateral and caudal parts. 5. cranial and rostral parts.

The hyoideus rostralis and hyoideus caudalis of the ox are: 1. very constant and usually examined during post-mortem inspection. 2. very inconstant and not usually examined during post-mortem inspection. 3. very constant and always examined during post-mortem inspection. 4. very firm and always examined during post-mortem inspection. 5. very inconstant and usually examined during post-mortem inspection.

Which of the following statements regarding muscle is false?. 1. The more myoglobin, the lighter the color of the meat. 2. Myoglobin is a protein that stores oxygen for active muscles. 3. Type I muscle fibers are red, with a slow contraction speed and are resistant to fatigue. 4. Type II muscle fibers are white, with a fast contraction speed and have an anaerobic activity type. 5. Type I muscle fibers are mostly found in the postural and respiratory muscles.

Regarding the post-mortem changes, which of the following statements is true?. 1. Glycolysis leads to a drop in pH as it converts glycogen into lactic acid. 2. pH of blood can drop to 4,5 or lower as this is the pH at which the enzymes involved in glycolysis will start becoming denatured. 3. Glycolysis will consume the remaining ATP and therefore the muscles will not have enough to contract. 4. Calcium ions will be pumped out of the sarcoplasm once Glycolysis stops. 5. Poultry and Swine are considered “slow-glycolysis” animals.

Which of the following statements is correct: preferences. 1. PSE (Pale, Soft, Exudative) are the desired characteristics of meat. 2. DFD (Dark, firm, dry) are the desired characteristics of meat. 3. DFD meat has a low water-holding capacity. 4. The ideal meat is reddish-pink in color, with a firm consistency and is non-exudative. 5. There is no ideal aspect of meat. It depends only on the consumer’s preferences.

Regarding the onset of Rigor Mortis, which is the correct order of events once the animal is slaughtered: 1. Cessation of circulation, oxygen supply fails, glycolysis, onset of rigor mortis, denaturation of proteins, autolysis, pH rises
. 2. Cessation of circulation, glycolysis, pH falls, autolysis, oxygen supply fails, onset of rigor mortis, denaturation of proteins
. 3. Oxygen supply fails, cessation of circulation, pH rises, glycolysis, denaturation of proteins, onset of rigor mortis, autolysis
. 4. Cessation of circulation, oxygen supply fails, glycolysis, pH falls, onset of rigor mortis, denaturation of proteins
. 5. Cessation of circulation, oxygen supply fails, glycolysis, onset of rigor mortis, denaturation of proteins, autolysis, pH falls
.

Which of the following statements is correct: 1. PSE (Pale, Soft, Exudative) are the desired characteristics of meat. 2. DFD (Dark, firm, dry) are the desired characteristics of meat
. 3. DFD meat has a low water-holding capacity. 4. Meat should be having firm consistency and not release too much drip
. 5. Meat consistency and drip are not subject of official inspection.

5. Regarding meat aging, which of the following statements is correct: 1. the cytoskeletal proteins are C-protein, M-protein. 2. the muscle structural proteins are titin, nebulin, desmin, dystrophin, vinculin
. 3. Meat aging relies on the activity of endogenous enzymes known as calpains. 4. Calpain is a cytosolic specific inhibitor of calpastatin in the living muscle, with optimal activity at pH of around 7,5
. 5. Cathepsins are not involved in long-term aging.
.

Which species have the slowest aging process?. 1. Pork. 2. Horse. 3. Sheep. 4. Beef. 5. Poultry.

Which species have the highest aging process?. 1. Pork. 2. Horse. 3. Sheep. 4. Beef. 5. Poultry.

Which factor reduces the aging process?. 1. Certain enzymes that activate calpains. 2. Meat of intermediate pH of 8,5-9. 3. Injection of zinc salts. 4. Marinating meat with acids. 5. Injection of calcium solution 5%.

Which affirmation is false?. 1. Freezing and thawing do not influence aging process. 2. The extent of aging depends on pre-slaughter and immediate post rigor conditions. 3. The rate of aging depends on the temperature post rigor. 4. Low pH and high temperature will lead to calpain inhibition. 5. Tenderness depends only on the extent of aging.

The specific post-mortem inspection minimum requirements are provided by?. 1. Regulation n°12/2003. 2. Regulation n°1/2022. 3. Regulation n°627/2019. 4. Animals. 5. The owner of the slaughterhouse.

In which species the palatine tonsil is absent?. 1. Birds. 2. Pigs. 3. Cats. 4. Bovines. 5. Small Ruminants.

During meat inspection, special attention is paid to the mandibular lymph nodes in pigs, for which disease?. 1. Swine dysentery 
. 2. Infectious Poly-arthritis. 3. Strangles 
. 4. Pleuropneumonia. 5. Tuberculosis
.

Which sentence is true?. 1. The tonsils must not be removed for horses, just like for ruminants.
. 2. Guttural pouches are found in all slaughter species.
. 3. Like for small ruminants, in case of horses, none of the head lymph nodes is incised during routine post-mortem inspection. 4. We can not find the parotid lymph centrum in horses. 5. The palatine tonsil is present in the pig.

Which lesion is NOT commonly found during post mortem inspection in horses?. 1. Glanders. 2. Strangles. 3. African horse sickness. 4. Guttural pouch empyema. 5. Laminitis.