301. during preflight of a transport category aircraft that undergoes a progressive maintenance program the ELT should: tested and when done, ensure the switch is selected to ARMED. selected to ARMED and if absolutely necessary to test, it should only be done by selecting it to ON for no more than 3 seconds during ONLY the first 5 minutes of every hour.
302 Señalar lo que es cierto El MEL es más restrictivo que el MMEL (Master MEL) El MEL es preparado por el explotador del avión.
303. which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact? entering instrument meteorological conditions. when leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach.
304. for which speed variation should you notify ATC? when the ground speed changes more than 5 knots. when the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.
305. what does declaring "minimum fuel" to ATC imply? emergency handling is required to the nearest usable airport. merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
306. when ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descent at a rate of between: 500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute. 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.
307. for IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory repairing points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways? fixes selected to define the route. at the changeover points.
308. what action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. the No.1 receiver has VOR/localizer/glide slope capability, and the No.2 has only VOR/localizer capability. report the malfunction immediately to ATC. continue the flight as cleared, no report is required.
309. during an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). the pilot should not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance. wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
310. during the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised "radar service terminated." what action is appropriate? set transponder to code 1200. resume normal position reporting.
311. during an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. at 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing? depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach. depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach.
312. which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with EFC time? (the holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.) depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time. depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
313. what altitude and route should be used if you are flying in VMC and have two-way radio communications failure? continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.
314. what altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure? continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA. descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. if not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA´s along the clearance route.
315. in the event of two-way radio communication failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue: the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical. the flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.
316. while flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. in this situation, you should continue your flight under: VFR and land as soon as practicable. VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.
317. what is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."? the pilot must maintain 6,00 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot`s discretion.
318. what is the recommended climb procedure when a non radar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude? maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level. maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.
319. when departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time. ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.
320. what response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft? read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification. read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.
321. which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (assume radar environment.) altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight. destination airport, altitude, DP name, number, and/or transition, if appropiate.
322. on the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED--MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND--SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE--DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. an abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the destination airport and route. requested enroute altitude.
323. when may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated? when priority has been given. when the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
324. which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request? DPs, STARs, and visual approaches. DPs, STARs, and contact approaches.
325. what is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...? the pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. it authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
326. a "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC. climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.
327. while on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. what action must be taken? notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
328. an abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED..." will always contain the name of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.
329. 14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as maximum landing gear extended speed. maximum landing gear operating speed.
330. 14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as maximum landing gear extended speed. never-exceed speed.
331. 14 CFR part 1 defines VY as speed for best rate of descent. speed for best rate of climb.
332. which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed of the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable. VS. VS1.
333 Define Calibrated Air Speed? Is the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument errors, position error Speed corrected by Warm climate.
334. 14 CFR part 1 defines VF as design flap speed. flap operating speed.
335. which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration? VS. VS1.
336. which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator? the never-exceed speed. the maneuvering speed.
337. if a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360º? 1 minute. 2 minutes.
338. to determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to the current altimeter setting. 29.92 inches Hg and the altimeter indication noted.
339. what is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? the turn coordinator indicates bank angle only, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination. indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordinated, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.
340. what is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments? it is a backup in case of vacuum system failure. it is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators.
341. a standard rate turn is: a turn at a rate of 3% min at 100 kts. a turn at a rate of 3º / sec.
342. Magnetic dip is responsible for: northerly turning errors only in the northern hemisphere counteracted by magnetic dip. errors during acceleration or turns on only magnetic compasses.
343. pitot static instruments are connected as follows on a high performance aircraft: airspeed = pitot + static, altimeter = static only, vertical speed = pitot + alternate static. airspeed = pitot + static, altimeter = static only, vertical speed = static only.
344. at higher elevation airports the indicated airspeed: is higher and so is the resultant ground speed/ remains the same but the ground speed is faster than at lower altitude airports.
345. TAS is the actual speed your airplane moves through undisturbed air. As density altitude increases your TAS: should increase about 2 kts / 1.000 Ft increment. should increase for a given TAS corrected for instrument and installation error.
346. pressure altitude is: displayed when the altimeter setting is corrected for temperature at sea level. displayed when 29.92 is set on the altimeter regardless of outside temp. + pressure.
347. density altitude is used for: only for flying altitudes below 18.000 Ft. performance calculations with OAT charts.
348. while on the ground with the correct altimeter setting your altimeter should read: within 100 Ft. for CAT I ILS approved airplanes. within 75 Ft. of the actual field elevation.
349. if on a takeoff roll below 80 Kts. one of the airspeed indicators is under reading by exactly 30 Kts., you should: continue the take off and report to maintenance at next stop as you still have 1 reliable ASI available. reject the take off, return to the gate and report to maintenance assuming all the delay consequences.
350. compass correction cards: are not required on transport category aircraft. must be current and installed on all certified aircraft.
351. pitch instruments are: attitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed and VSI. altimeter, airspeed and VSI.
352. when performing a VOR accuracy check at a VOR test point on an airfield, the VOR can be considered serviceable if it is within______of the published radial: 2º to either side. 4º to either side.
353. if a VOR check is desired and no VOT is available, the check: must be made by maintenance personnel with special equipment. can be made between 2 VOR´S within the aircraft and the error must not exceed 4º.
354. what information does a Mach meter present? the ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound. the ratio of aircraft indicated airspeed to the speed of sound.
355. under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value? at standard temperature. when the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.
356. under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude? when standard atmospheric conditions exist. when the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
357. which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)? air temperature lower than standard. air temperature warmer than standard.
358. under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92" Hg? in warmer than standard air temperature. in colder than standard air temperature.
359. altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates: true altitude at field elevation. pressure altitude at field elevation.
360. how can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet? set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg. contact an FSS and ask for the pressure altitude.
361. how can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS? set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated. set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a station within 100 miles and correct this indicated altitude with local temperature.
362. which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg? density. pressure.
363. at an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. the pressure altitude would be approximately: 6,000 feet. 6,500 feet.
364. the pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to: the field elevation. 29.92" Hg.
365. if the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will: increase and true altitude will decrease. increase and true altitude will increase.
366. altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates: true altitude at field elevation. pressure altitude at field elevation.
367. pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above: ground level. the standard datum plane.
368. when an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value? altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower. altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
369. en route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. if the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing? 715 feet. sea level.
370. en route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26" Hg during descent. if the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing? 100 feet MSL. 206 feet below MSL.
371. which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL210? pressure. calibrated.
372. what is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways? set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92" Hg. set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.
373. while you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying? 24,000 feet. 25,000 feet.
374. if you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter. on 29.92" Hg. to the airport elevation.
375. the local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for better vertical separation of aircraft. more accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas.
376. how should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight? set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. the change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting. set the altimeter o the current altimeter setting. the indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.
377. how should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight? set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. the change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting. set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. the indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.
378. one characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the ability to resist precession 90º to any applied force. resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
379. if a 180º steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator will show a slight skid and climb to the right. may show a slight climb and turn.
380. as a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a half bar width on the attitude indicator. two bar width on the attitude indicator.
381. which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable? the horizon bar tits more than 5º while making taxi turns. the horizon bar vibrates during warmup.
382. what pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight? the horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup. the horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.
383. during normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight-and-level flight from a 180º steep turn to the right? the miniature aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left. the miniature aircraft would show a slight descent and wings-level attitude.
384. errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a 180º turn. 360º turn.
385. when an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a climb. descent.
386. when an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a climb. descent.
387. while cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. when entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb. attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.
388. while cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. when entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb. attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
389. prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn-and-slip indicator to determine if the needle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon. needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid.
390. what indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing? the miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered. the miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.
391. what indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi? the ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn. the ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered.
392. what does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display? rate of roll and rate of turn. angle of bank and rate of turn.
393. what indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator? rate of roll and rate of turn. direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
394. what indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator? indirect indication of the bank attitude. direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn.
395. which instrument indicates the quality of a turn? heading indicator or magnetic compass. ball of the turn coordinator.
396. what force causes an airplane to turn? vertical lift component. horizontal lift component.
397. the rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon the horizontal lift component. the vertical lift component.
398. when airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight? decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack. increase the angle of bank and/ or decrease the angle of attack.
399. during a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor? centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased. centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
400. what is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn? horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force. horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
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