juan guzman

1. (ATA 23) What is the benefit of a low frequency underwater locator device (LF-ULD) compared to an underwater locator beacon (ULB)?. A. The LF-ULD has a longer range. B. The LF-ULD does not require a battery. C. The LF-ULD operates in fresh and salt wate.

2. (ATA 23) Where can ACARS frequencies and scan rate be selected in the DCMF?. A. Manager ACARS pages of the FDCF. B. ACARS function on the CDU. C. The front face of the ACARS control unit.

3. (ATA 23) When you select an offside radio, offside tuning lights comes on: A. RTp that the flight crew uses to make the selection only. B. Onside RTp of the selected radio only. C. Both RTp (radio tuning panel).

4. (ATA 23) To make direct access announcements, flight attendants use cabin attendant handsets (CAHs) at: A. Any door. C. Doors 1 left and 3 left. B. Doors 1 left only.

5. (ATA 23) What should you do on the radio tuning panel to reset a SELCAL call received on the right high frequency (HF) radio?. A. Push the right HF MIC switch. B. Push the cancel switch. C. Reselect the HF MIC switch.

6. (ATA 23) What type of cameras are fitted to the Flight Deck Entry Video surveillance system?. B. Infrared. A. Ultraviolet. C. High resolution optical.

7. (ATA 23) The passenger address system accepts and sends announcements at these levels of priority: A. Flight interphone: Direct access and Cabin interphone; Recorded announcements, Video system audio and Boarding music. B. Boarding music, Recorded announcements, and Video system audio; Direct access and Cabin interphone; Flight interphone. C. Direct access and Cabin interphone; Flight interphone; Recorded announcements, Video system audio and Boarding music.

8. (ATA 23) What is the first test you should run if there is a CSS problem on a turnaround?. A. Quick test. B. All test. C. Engineering test.

9. (ATA 23) In the event of an ACP (audio control panel) or AMU (audio management unit) station card failure the crew may recover Audio control by: A. Using the Observers audio selector. B. Deselecting the Data Mode on the FDCF. C. Using the Flight deck handset.

10. (ATA 23) What time of voice conversation does the cockpit voice recorder record?. A. 30 minutes. B. 2 hours. C. 25 hours.

11. (ATA 23) The Cabin Attendants Handsets connect to the PA/CI controller via the: A. ZMU's. B. SDM's. C. AMU.

12. (ATA 23) Position & Frequency data for each satellite is contained within the: A. SDU. B. BSU. C. HGA.

13. (ATA 23) Any ELT of the correct type may be fitted to any aircraft. What makes this possible?. A. Pins must be shorted at the plug connectors to the aircraft wiring. B. The mount/programming module automatically sends user identification data on connection. C. The ELT must be pre-programmed prior to fitting with the code switches on the unit.

14. (ATA 23) The HF couplers receive single phase power from: A. The Battery buses. B. The Transceivers. C. The AIMS power modulators.

15. (ATA 23) What is the purpose of the CSS ALL TEST?. A. Collects real-time failures for 20 seconds and shows them. B. Lets you do special tests for detailed troubleshooting. C. Does a full BITE of the CSS (cabin service system).

16. (ATA 23) In what format is the SELCAL code provided?. A. Programming module on the E1-2 rack. B. Coding switch with 16 switches in groups of four. C. Jumpers in the rear of the decoder.

17. (ATA 23) When does the in seat power supply master control unit (MCU) enter the standby mode?. A. On the ground. B. During critical flight phases. C. If the system is overloaded.

18. (ATA 23) What conditions must be met to allow you to erase the cockpit voice recorder?. B. Parking brake released and aircraft on Ground. A. Aircraft on Ground and Parking brake On. C. Aircraft on Ground and both engines off.

19. (ATA 23) The Ground crew call horn sounds for 3 sec. What does this signify?. A. The Flight Deck are calling the ground. B. The Equipment cooling system has failed. C. The AC Power is off and the ADIRU's on.

20. (ATA 23) Panel switches on the P5 & P61 panel directly interface with: A. PDCU units. B. OPBC units. C. OPCF units.

21. (ATA 23) How is the service interphone connected to the flight interphone?. A. Through the RTP's. B. Through the AMU. C. Through the AIM's.

22. (ATA 23) What type of connection to the PMAT ports has the B-router?. A. ARINC 629 bus. B. ARINC 818 bus. C. 10 Base T interface.

23. (ATA 23) What is the purpose of the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) crosstalk tuning bus?. A. Allows fault data to be displayed on the panel. B. Allows any RTP to tune any receiver. C. Allows AIMS to control the RTP data.

24. (ATA 23) During a cabin PA test it is found that the normal PA controller is inoperative. To easily restore PA you need to select the alternate PA controller at the: A. CACP. B. ASP. C. CSCP.

25. (ATA 23) In the event of an ACP (audio control panel) or AMU (audio management unit) station card failure the crew may recover Audio control by: A. Using the Flight deck handset. B. Deselecting the Data Mode on the FDCF. C. Using the Observers audio selector.

26. (ATA 23) The operator can transmit on: A. Only one HF (high frequency) system at a time. B. Both HF systems at one time, at the same frequencies. C. Both HF systems at one time, but at different frequencies.

(ATA 28) What statement about fuel tank temperature indication is true?. A. Three sensors - measures each main tank. B. One sensor - measures only the left fuel tank. C. Five sensors - measures each fuel tank.

28. (ATA 28) What controls the fuel pump low pressure light?. A. Low pressure switch. B. Fuel quantity processor unit (FQPU). C. Electrical Load Management System (ELMS).

29. (ATA 28) Where can you see operation of APU fuel feed system: on Fuel synoptic display or on fuel management maintenance page?. A. Fuel synoptic display. B. Fuel management maintenance page. C. On both of these displays.

30. (ATA 28) Where does the APU DC pump take fuel from?. A. Left main tank. B. Left side of center tank. C. Right main tank.

31. (ATA 28) How can you reset fueling system after overfill test?. A. Move test switch to RESET, then to NORMAL. B. Push reset knob on each refuel valve. C. Close and then open refueling panel door.

32. (ATA 28) During inspection you found fuel tank pressure relief valves opened. What do you have to check?. A. Surge tank flame arrestor for blockage only. B. Fuel tank vent scoop and flame arrestor for blockage. C. Fuel tank vent scoop for blockage only.

33. (ATA 47) What statement about NGS shut off valve is true?. A. It is spring loaded to open position. B. It is pneumatically controlled and operated. C. It can be manually de-actACARS FR.

34. (ATA 47) Which NGS sensor monitors system health and performance?. A. Differential pressure sensor. B. Temperature sensor. C. Oxygen sensor.

35. (ATA 26) How can you check engine bottle discharge indication?. A. Engine bottle discharge light comes on only. B. Advisory and status messages show only. C. Engine bottle discharge light comes on and advisory and status messages show.

36. (ATA 26) RR RB211 Trent 800. Flight Deck Fire warnings maybe initiated by: A. IP turbine Ovht thermocouples. B. T30 thermocouples. C. LP turbine Ovht thermocouples.

37. (ATA 26) What will happen if you pull and rotate fire switch on cold airplane (No ground power and battery off)?. A. Fire extinguisher bottle will discharge. B. Nothing, fire switch can't be pulled due to locking solenoid. C. Nothing, due to no power.

38. (ATA 26) An automatic test of all the fire extinguishing squibs is done by: A. The maintenance access terminal (MAT). B. The fire and overheat test switch (FIRE/OVHT TEST). C. The electrical load management system (ELMS).

39. (ATA 26) GE 90. What is the access to the strut overheat detectors?. A. Through the forward strut fairing. B. Through two panels on the bottom of the fixed leading edge. C. Through the pressure relief door in the right side of the strut.

40. (ATA 26) What fuselage areas do body duct leak detectors monitor?. A. APU compartment, fuselage from aft pressure bulkhead to APU firewall. B. Air Driven pumps area and main wheel wells. C. Main wheel wells and RAT compartment.

41. (ATA 26) What will do cargo smoke detector fans during cargo handling?. A. Increase air flow through detectors. B. Stop operation. C. Decrease air flow through detectors.

42. (ATA 26) What statement is true for APU unattended mode?. A. No automatic shut down in case just one fire detection loop has a fire. B. The fire extinguishing system operates automatically. C. The fire detection Loop 1 and Loop 2 must have a fire to cause fire alarms.

43. (ATA28) WHAT IS THE OPERATION OF ENGINE/APU FUEL SPAR VALVE BATTERY POWER SUPPLY?. A. CLOSE THE SHUTOFF VALVE WITH NO POWER AVAILABLE. B. FUEL PUMP [ilegible] WITH NO POWER AVAILABLE. C. OPENS AND CLOSES SHUTOFF VALVE FOR NORMAL OPERATION.

44. what allows the page one of the flight deck communication function acars sub-menu?. A. page two of acars sub-menu let the flight crew select acars frequency and scan rate. B. page one of acars sub-menu let the flight crew select acars frequency. C. Page one of acars sub-menu lets the flight crew select acars frequency and scan rate.

45. in the event of an acp audio control panel or amu audio management unit station card failure the crew may recover audio control by: b. Using the observer audio selector. a. Selecting the data mode on the fdcf. c. Using the flight deck handset.

46. How can a squib be in service?. A. for 5 year after the data stamped on the squid unit. b. for 20 year after the data of the manufacture. c. .for 10 year after the data stamped on the squid unit.

47. WHICH THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS ENERGIZES THE FIRE HANDLE SOLENOID WHEN A FIRE HAS NOT BESN DETECTED?. A. IN FLIGHT WITHE BATTERY ON AND THE FUE CONTROL LEVER IS IN CUT OFF POSITION. B. BOTH ENGINES SHUT DOWN AND APU IS RUDDING. C. ON GROUND ANTI ICE SELECTED AND EPR > 1.66.

48. THE PAX OXYGEN SYSTEM COMPARMET OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TRUE. A. O2 OXYGEN BOTTLE IN THE FWD CARGO COMPARTMENT. B. O2 OXYGEN BOTTLE IN THE AFT CARGO COMPARTMENT. C. CHEMICAL GENERATOR.

49. How is Nacelle temperature indication calculated?. a. By measuring the average temperature of the fire elements. b. By measuring spikes of temperature of the fire elements. c. By measuring individual loops and adding the loops together.

50. Which of the following statements is correct? Engine fire detection elements are: a. Inconnel filled tubes filled with thermistor core material. b. Gaseous filled tubes with pressure switches. c. Both of the above.

51. When will Overheat detection occur?. a. when the element detects 80% of an overheat condition. b. As soon as a pre determined value occurs. c. After 7.2 seconds delay to prevent error signals.

53. Which of the following statements is correct? The Turbine Overheat detection system: a. Is a single thermocouple measuring air temperature at the IPT vane front face. b. Is monitored by the EEC sending an overheat signal to the Fire Detection Cards for Fire warning generation. c. Is a pair of thermocouples monitoring air temperature at the HPT vane front and aft face.

54. 6. Which of the following statements is correct? Engine fire detection elements are: a. A resistance type element. b. Gaseous filled tubes with pressure switches. c. Both of the above.

55. If the detector reads low resistance what will occur?. a. A fire warning is generated. b. A dual loop fault is signalled to EICAS. c. The detection cards will disregard the signal to fire wire grounding.

56. If only ONE loop detects a fire what will occur in the card files?. a. A fire STBY is initiated down in the fire switch solenoid. b. The squibs are energised to the arming position. c. A 15 second timer is initiated awaiting a second fault loop signal.

52. What will generate a status message “Fire loop”?. a. A single fire detector element fault. b. A double fire detector element fault. c. An ACIPS card power failure.

57. What solenoid is energised on fire detecting?. a. The squib firing solenoid. b. The WEU inhibit relay is energised. c. Fire switch unlock solenoid.

58. 16. Automatic O2 deployment can ONLY be initiated when?. a. Cabin pressure is reduced to < 65 psi. b. Altitude is above 13,500 ft and airspeed > 80 knots. c. When cabin differential pressure exceeds 4.5 psi in a 10 second period.

59. 17. When selecting O2 deployment from the flight deck switch, what does the signal passes through?. a. OPAS to ELMS and the CSS. b. ELMS Only. c. OPAS, O2 Monitors and CAS.

60. What is the cockpit of low oxygen pressure. Caution message if pressure below 1000 PSI. Advisory message if pressure below 1000 PSI. Advisory message if pressure below 500 PSI.

cuantas le caben a smillie dormido?. 1. 2. 5. todas las anteriores.