Laboratorio M 11 PART 3

Toilet fire detection issues can be found in. AWN 83. CAAIPs. AWN 80.

The outside casing of a firewire has. same potential as ground. 28VDC potential above ground. 115VDC potential above ground.

A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class. D. A. C.

Smoke detectors consist of a. photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke. lamp detecting 2% smoke. photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke.

In a toilet smoke condition, what would be the indication?. Light in the cabin. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin. Audible warning in the cabin.

What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?. The outside of the firewire to earth. The firewire. The firewire, sensor & controlle.

When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a. red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on. red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off. red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline.

An indicator pin is protruding from a portable fire extinguisher. What does it indicate?. The bottle is still pressurized. Bottle is empty. Bottle is full.

A hand held fire extinguishers weight is stamped on the. base of container. head. support bracket.

The weight of an extinguisher is stamped. on base of body. on bracket. on head fitting.

How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 - 500 passengers?. 8. 5. 6.

What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201- 300 people?. 4 Methyl Bromide. 3 BCF. 4 Fire Extinguishers.

Portable fire extinguishers are operated by. turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger. breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle. one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty.

How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?. 7. 5. 6.

How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used. Check the tell-tale wire. Weighed. Check the pressure.

How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?. Bi-annually. Every 5 years. Annually.

CO2 fire extinguishers are used on. engines only. all fires in fuselage. baggage holds only.

Hand held fire extinguishers are weighed. in accordance with the approved maintenance schedule. every 24 months. every 5 years.

In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs, the installation of external ground locks to the main control surface. would also prevent movement of the control column. would not prevent movement of the control column. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by the wind.

An artificial feel system is required with. proportional controls. power operated controls. power assisted controls.

If aerodynamic balancing is increased, what is the effect on the centre of pressure of the control surface?. It moves forward. It is not effected. It moves back.

A control system in the parallel mode,. when the rudder moves the control pedals stay in position. the pedals deflect with the rudder deflection. the control pedals moves only in the approach.

What is a Bowden cable designed for?. Both pull and push operations. Push operations only. Pull operations only.

A full time yaw damper system detects. all frequencies. only low frequencies. band pass frequencies.

Fly-by-wire systems rely on inputs from. electrical signals. the pilot via control rods, and electrical signals. air-data and 'Q' feel.

The yaw damper. disengages when an engine fails. augments aircraft stability. disengages during a coordinated turn.

Operation of the stick shaker during landing means. the aircraft is about to land. the aircraft is approaching the stall speed. the aircraft has stalled.

A static friction check is carried out during control surface rigging using. a spring balance to measure control 'break-out force'. a cable tensiometer to ensure cable tensions are correct. a spring balance to ensure there is a minimum amount of feel when the controls are moved.

If flaps try to move asymmetrically on selection, they. stop moving and stay in the same position. drive to the down position and lock. drive to the up position and lock.

A stick-shaker comes into operation when the aircraft. is approaching a stall. is approaching the 'critical mach number'. goes supersonic.

Automatic trim systems on some aircraft installations are actuated with two speeds of operation. Operation at high speed is used during. aircraft at altitude and straight and level. flaps down. mach trim.

With respect to flight spoilers, they. only operate in flight. only operate on the ground. can operate both on the ground and in flight.

Considering an aileron to rudder crossfeed, in a left wing down turn, the. rudder moves left. rudder moves right. rudder remains in the centre.

Flight control locks are used. when working with hydraulics. are only used in flight. during gusty weather conditions.

A stick shaker acts. at stall. after stall. before stall.

Dutch roll is eliminated by. differential ailerons. the Dutch Roll damper. the yaw damper.

A mach trimmer counters. azimuth instability. lateral instability. longitudinal instability.

The bearing used in a fibre pulley is. a plain bearing. a roller bearing. a ball bearing.

When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted. the secondary stops will just be in contact. a clearance exists at the secondary stops. the secondary stops have been over-ridden.

Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of. pulley misalignment. excessive cable tension. cable misalignment.

A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed. with the aileron in the neutral position. with the aileron in the down position. when the aircraft is in level flight attitude.

A flying control static friction check. demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls.. can only be carried out during flight.

What is an aileron balance cable for?. To allow aircraft to fly hands off. To allow the cable to be tensioned. To correct for wing heaviness.

The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the. stagnation point. point of lowest pressure. centre of pressure.

With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft. (nose up), range of movement of the elevator is restricted. for 'up' travel movement. neither up nor down, as movement of the trim tab would make no difference to the movement. for 'down' travel movement.

On the ground, spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to. 60°. 30.°. 15°.

Stick shaker stall warnings should be activated at. VS. 1.2 VS. 1.05 VS.

Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when. the aircraft is directional unstable. the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling requirements by normal category. the aircraft has no yaw damper installed.

A horn balance on a control will. increase degree of movement at high speed. decrease degree of movement at low speed. decrease degree of movement at high speed.

In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will. move up. move down. remain in line with the elevator.

In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing will initially. decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing. keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant. increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing.

Which of the following is the speed in level flight that would activate the stall warning?. VS1G + 15kts. 1.05VS1G. 1.2VS1G.

On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons will. both move down. remain stationary. both move up.

The function of the stick pusher is. to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker. to vibrate the controls. to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack.

The input to a stick shaker comes from. the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed. the angle of attack only. angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of attack.

Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall characteristics include: excessive wing drop and deep stall. pitch down and minor wing drop. pitch down and increase in speed.

The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the. transition region. centre of lift. stagnation point.

To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with. integrated fuel monitoring system. symmetrical flight control trim. automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements.

A yaw damper gain could be fitted with. decreases sensitivity for decreased speed. increased sensitivity for increased speed. decreases sensitivity for increased speed.

In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks between the control surface and the balance tabs. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible. would prevent the movement of the control column. would not prevent the movement of the control column.

The two switches for pitch trim are located. on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch. on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch. on the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer..

If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be. bearing seized. flap tracks out of rigging. flap motor internal leakage.

Speed brakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft. to prevent aquaplaning. for speed reduction after landing. to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of descent.

In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by. transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another. symmetrical application of ailerons. operation of the elevator.

Yaw damping rate changes with. altitude. airspeed. flap position.

What is the main purpose of a frise aileron?. Increase drag on the up going wing. Decrease drag on the up going wing. Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads.

What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?. Droop. Remain in last position. Go to neutral.

Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by. feedback from control surface. fitting a tachogenerator. feedback from the servo motor.

Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by. 7%. 10.321%. 4%.

A wing mounted stall warning vane. moves up at impending stall. gives a visual indication of impending stall. moves down at impending stall.

During an autopilot controlled turn. ailerons and rudder will move. ailerons, rudder and THS will move. ailerons, rudder and elevators will move.

On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the. flight control computer. flight management and guidance computer. flight augmentation computer.

In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?. Flight augmentation computer. Flight control computer. Flight management computer.

Mass balance weights are used to. balance the tabs. balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces. counteract flutter on control surfaces.

Active load control involves. intervention & monitoring the human pilot. limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed. varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft.

Active load control uses. elevator and stab. elevator and aileron. aileron and spoiler.

The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to. protect the servo motor. prevent control surface runaway. damp the system oscillation.

In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground and. weight on ground switch is activated. brakes are deployed. thrust reversers are deployed.

In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the. Flight Augmentation Computers. electric flight control unit. Flight Guidance and Management Compute.

Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to. prevent nose pitching up. prevent nose pitching down. prevent adverse yaw in a turn.

Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by. continued pitch input. pitch of aircraft in cruise. C of G movement.

Differential aileron control will. cause a nose up moment. cause a nose down moment. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.

On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?. ELAC and SEC. ELAC. SEC.

In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?. During either manual or automatic control. During automatic control only. During manual control only.

Flutter can be prevented by. balance panels. trim tabs. mass balance.

In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power. servos remain stationary and provide damping. servos move to neutral and lock. servos lock at last position.

In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate. operation of the trim controls is required. autopilot need not be engaged. autopilot must be engaged.

In an autopilot coordinated turn, when the turn angle is reached. both ailerons are down. the ailerons are faired. one is up one is down.

How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?. Fast/Slow indication. Reduce flap deployment. Autothrottle applying more power.

A single failure of fly by wire. will limit the flight profile. will reduce the operational height and speed. has no effect on the aircraft's operation.

Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in. ailerons moving symmetrically upward. spoiler moving symmetrically upward. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upwa.

Autotrim will switch to 'slow' when. flaps are retracted. landing gear up and locked. flaps are extended.

How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?. Mach/Speed Trim. Pitch Trim. Electric Trim.

Spoiler position feedback is provided by a. an R.V.D.T. a S.C.M. a microswitch.

Rudder 'Q' limiting. increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed. increases feel as airspeed increases. restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed.

Elevons combine the functions of both. rudder and elevator. elevator and aileron. rudder and aileron.

A differential aileron system is designed to. prevent adverse yaw. compensate for aileron reversal. minimise flutter.

An artificial feel system is required. for power operated control systems. for proportional control systems. for power assisted control systems.

A tandem P.F.C.U. has the actuator rams co-axial. has two control surfaces under its control. has the actuator rams parallel.

What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?. To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn. To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn. Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn.

Active load control uses. elevator and stab. ailerons and spoilers. elevator and ailerons.

An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to. increasing the sensitivity of the control system. prevent overloading of the power control units. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces.

In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual reversion is that it must be. possible, but not recommended. operated by the standby hydraulic system. automatic and instantaneous.

The purpose of control cable regulators is to. maintain preset cable tensions during flight. compensate for low temperature only. compensate for high temperature only.

Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by. travel of the jack ram. travel of the jack body. mechanical stops in the control system.

The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the. elevator. rudder. ailerons.

The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the. elevator. rudder. ailerons.

The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is. to revert the system to manual operation. to provide pressure to operate the control. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilot's control in cockpit.

A stick shaker is a device which. vibrates the control column near stalling speed. helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground. gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off.

The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the. rudder. elevator. ailerons.

Ruddervators when moved, will move. together only. either opposite each other or together, depending on the selection. opposite to each other only.

As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit. the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high. the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability.

An anti-balance tab is moved. hydraulically. when the C.G. changes. via a fixed linkage.

A servo tab is operated. by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved. automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.

When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned by. operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops. moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops. moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops.

The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag than the low wing, this may be compensated for by. increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators. use of the rudder control. operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached.

The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a. split flap. plain flap. Fowler flap.

Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?. Fowler flap. Slotted flap. Split flap.

Which of the following is not a primary flying control?. Tailplane. Elevator. Rudder.

A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a. trim tab. geared balance tab. servo tab.

What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the 'Never Exceed Limit'?. Wheel brakes. Lift dumpers. Air brakes.

When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with. rudder. ailerons. elevators.

What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?. Balance tabs. Trim tabs. Spring tabs.

With hydraulic ram operated flying controls, when the pressure is reduced to zero, the flying control surfaces. remain in the position they were when power was removed. droop. stay at neutral.

Powered flying control actuators. are operated by the autopilot only. provide feedback to the pilot. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces.

A stick shaker operates. after the stall. just before the stall. at the onset of the stall.

In a power assisted flight control system, the feel required is normally supplied by. air loads on the control surfaces. stretching springs. 'Q' feel.

Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is provided by. air loads on the control surface. nulling of the servo valve. the jack ram being attached to structure.

'Q' feel units use. pitot pressure only. static pressure only. pitot and static pressures.

Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed. no yaw takes place. roll will not occur. pitch trim is not affected.

Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft. because at low level air density is high. because the pilot has too many tasks to perform.

A differential aileron control system results in. aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn. aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements.

Spoiler panels are controlled by. the aileron control wheel only. the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever. a speed brake lever only.

A lift transducer is normally fitted. to the nose area of the aircraft. on the leading edge of the wing. on the elevator control system.

If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system, the spoiler panels. go to full up. go to down if any are not already down. remain where they are.

The outboard ailerons on some aircraft. are isolated to prevent aileron reversal. are isolated to improve sensitivity. are isolated at slow speeds.

In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to. the control system computer. the hydraulic actuator. the pilot's input.

The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to. lock the speed brakes down during flight. allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown. prevent inadvertent operation.

Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of. pitch changes. yawing. rolling.

High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads. greater than 50%. greater than 75%. greater than 90%.

A differential aileron control is one which gives. a larger aileron up travel than down. equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable for stick movement. the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one.

When the control column is moved back and the hand-wheel turned to the left. the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down. the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down. the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up.

A series type yaw damper. moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll. moves the rudder only. moves the rudder pedals and the rudder.

A stick shaker. vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe. is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column. is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column.

If the control column is moved forward and to the left. left aileron moves down, right aileron up, elevator down. left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator up. left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down.

On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by. left spoiler extending, right spoiler remaining retracted. both spoilers extending. right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted.

When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low, an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will. move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree. move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral.

You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was the direction of travel of the trim tab?. The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down. The elevator trim tab has moved down. The elevator trim tab has moved up.

Pulleys in a flight control system are made from. brass. Tufnol or aluminium alloy. stainless steel.

A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to. increase cable tension in cold weather. decrease cable tension in cold weather. retain a set tension.

An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism. dampens the rudder movement. locks the ailerons and elevators. restricts movement of the throttles.

The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's. dutch roll frequency. roll frequency. pitch Frequency.

The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall. fast/slow switch. throttle lever. flap position.

Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the. aircraft tends to roll to the right. aircraft tends to go nose up. aircraft tends to go nose down.

Ground spoilers are used to1639. prevent FOD ingestion into the engines on landing and taxiing. decrease wing loading on landing. increase wing loading on take-off.

Fuel tanks are numbered. aft to fwd. right to left. fwd to aft.

The fuel surge tank. acts as a separate fuel supply tank. reduces wing bending moment. acts as a vent in the main tank.

A fuel crossfeed valve is normally powered by. .AC. Battery. DC.

When refuelling, as the fuel level increases. capacitance increases. capacitive reactance increases. capacitance decreases.

A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in. its last position. the open position. the closed position.

Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on. low pressure systems. air or vapour systems. high pressure systems.

The two switches for pitch trim are located. on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch. on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch. on the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer..

Fuel surge is prevented by. having baffles within the tank and supports on the outside to resist fuel surge. incorporation of an additional surge tank. having separate compartments within the tank.

Speed brakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft. to prevent aquaplaning. for speed reduction after landing. to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of descent.

When carrying out an insulation check on a fuel probe, what is the Maximum voltage to use. 500 V. 30 V. 250 V.

Yaw damping rate changes with. altitude. airspeed. flap position.

A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated. by air. by the fuel. by internal cooling.

What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?. Droop. Remain in last position. Go to neutral.

Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by. feedback from control surface. fitting a tachogenerator. feedback from the servo motor.

Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the. 115 V AC. battery. 28 V DC bus.

A wing mounted stall warning vane. moves up at impending stall. gives a visual indication of impending stall. moves down at impending stall.

Fuel systems that are interconnected must have. separate venting for each tank. no airspace. air spaces interconnected.

On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the. flight control computer. flight management and guidance computer. flight augmentation computer.

In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?. Flight augmentation computer. Flight control computer. Flight management computer.

Mass balance weights are used to. balance the tabs. balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces. counteract flutter on control surfaces.

As fuel level increases, system capacitance. no change. decreases. increases.

EERFG. GDFGF. DFGDF. FGFG.

When refuelling. it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank. the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full.

When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment. it is added to the fuel and burnt. it is applied dry and left. it is applied wet and flushed out.

Microbial growth is. red dots. brown black slime. green sludge.

Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to. prevent nose pitching up. prevent nose pitching down. prevent adverse yaw in a turn.

Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by. continued pitch input. pitch of aircraft in cruise. C of G movement.

Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by. press type rivets. contact adhesive. bolts.

A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with. tanks completely empty. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel. tanks completely full.

After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at. tank outlet. engine inlet. tank shut-off valve point.

In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place. the top of the tank. the bottom 2 inches of the tank. below the fungal colonies.

If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to. shut off fuel before structural damage. stop engine from using tank during transfer. provide overflow facility to dump fuel.

In a fuel system with interconnected vents. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity. the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity. an expansion space is not required.

Fuel tanks interconnected must have. vents to allow overfueling. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system. tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet.

How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?. Fast/Slow indication. Reduce flap deployment. Autothrottle applying more power.

A single failure of fly by wire. will limit the flight profile. will reduce the operational height and speed. has no effect on the aircraft's operation.

Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in. ailerons moving symmetrically upward. spoiler moving symmetrically upward. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward.

When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to. hard reversion. soft reversion. mechanical reversion.

How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?. Mach/Speed Trim. Pitch Trim. Electric Trim.

Pressure refuelling is carried out at. 20 PSI. 15 PSI. 40 PSI.

Rudder 'Q' limiting. increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed. increases feel as airspeed increases. restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed.

Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from. left tank to right tank. tank to tank. any tank to any engine.

A differential aileron system is designed to. prevent adverse yaw. compensate for aileron reversal. minimise flutter.

What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vapour ignition?. A nozzle. A corona device. An anti-corona device.

What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?. Depends on altitude. Increases. Decreases.

When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel tanks should. be full. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out. be empty.

Integral fuel booster pumps. require no cooling. require ram air cooling. lets the fuel do the cooling.

An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to. increasing the sensitivity of the control system. prevent overloading of the power control units. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces.

In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual reversion is that it must be. possible, but not recommended. operated by the standby hydraulic system. automatic and instantaneous.

The purpose of control cable regulators is to. maintain preset cable tensions during flight. compensate for low temperature only. compensate for high temperature only.

The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is. to ensure that all available fuel can be used. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination. to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently.

The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the. elevator. rudder. ailerons.

In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light indicates. ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail. the tank does not pressurise. pump failure.

The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is. to revert the system to manual operation. to provide pressure to operate the control. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilot's control in cockpit.

How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?. By suction from the engine driven fuel pump. By a fuel boost pump. By a gravity feed pump.

A fuel tank suction valve will open when. the engine driven pump fails. the booster pump fails. both the engine driven and booster pump fail.

To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank. the tank should be filled as full as possible. the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible. the filler cap should be left open.

As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit. the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high. the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability.

At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a. self draining non-return valve. NACA duct. float valve.

To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up. ram air is circulated around the tank. cabin air is bled around the tank. a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted.

When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned by. operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops. moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops. moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops.

The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag than the low wing, this may be compensated for by. increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators. use of the rudder control. operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached.

Which device allows the free flow of fluid in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?. Check valve. Metering piston. Shutoff valve.

Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?. Fowler flap. Slotted flap. Split flap.

When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic indicator would show. amber and cross line. green and in line. amber and in line.

When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction, which of the following is most prone to leaks?. Rigid,. Flexible. Integral.

What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the 'Never Exceed Limit'?. Wheel brakes. Lift dumpers. Air brakes.

On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is observed running out of the boost pump canister, this could be caused by. fuel leaking past the inlet screens. fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated.

Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with. two 28V DC motors. two single phase AC motors. two three-phase AC motors.

With hydraulic ram operated flying controls, when the pressure is reduced to zero, the flying control surfaces. remain in the position they were when power was removed. droop. stay at neutral.

Powered flying control actuators. are operated by the autopilot only. provide feedback to the pilot. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces.

A stick shaker operates. after the stall. just before the stall. at the onset of the stall.

To replace a water drain valve seal. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks. the tank must be de-fuelled. the seal is not replaceable, the whole drain assembly must be replaced.

A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on. fuel tank vent pipes. fuel jettison system. the APU fuel feed.

'Q' feel units use. pitot pressure only. static pressure only. pitot and static pressures.

To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would. close the cross bleed valve. pull the fire handle. close the HP fuel lock.

Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft. because at low level air density is high. because the pilot has too many tasks to perform.

A differential aileron control system results in. aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn. aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements.

Spoiler panels are controlled by. the aileron control wheel only. the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever. a speed brake lever only.

A lift transducer is normally fitted. to the nose area of the aircraft. on the leading edge of the wing. on the elevator control system.

A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a. stain. seep. run.

Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted with. Water. Methylated Spirit. Kerosene.

A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to. prevent the centre from being defuelled. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks. automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time.

Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of. pitch changes. yawing. rolling.

The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they. are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel. are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight.

A differential aileron control is one which gives. a larger aileron up travel than down. equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable for stick movement. the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one.

On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using. a separate system for each engine. the same system for each engine. a parallel system.

A series type yaw damper. moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll. moves the rudder only. moves the rudder pedals and the rudder.

A stick shaker. vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe. is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column. is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column.

In a constant volume hydraulic EDP, the short shaft which engages with the engine gearbox would have. 2 female splined portions separated by a waisted section. an inner female splined portion and an outer male splined portion. 2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section designed to shear should the pump seize.

On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by. left spoiler extending, right spoiler remaining retracted. both spoilers extending. right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted.

When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low, an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will. move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree. move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral.

You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was the direction of travel of the trim tab?. The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down. The elevator trim tab has moved down. The elevator trim tab has moved up.

What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion?. A hydraulic pump. An actuating cylinder. An accumulator.

A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to. increase cable tension in cold weather. decrease cable tension in cold weather. retain a set tension.

An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism. dampens the rudder movement. locks the ailerons and elevators. restricts movement of the throttles.

The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's. dutch roll frequency. roll frequency. pitch Frequency.

What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into rotary motion?. A hydraulic motor. An actuating cylinder. A hydraulic pump.

Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the. aircraft tends to roll to the right. aircraft tends to go nose up. aircraft tends to go nose down.

Ground spoilers are used to. prevent FOD ingestion into the engines on landing and taxiing. decrease wing loading on landing. increase wing loading on take-off.

The outboard ailerons on some aircraft. are isolated to prevent aileron reversal. are isolated to improve sensitivity. are isolated at slow speeds.

The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be increased by 1642. decreasing the velocity of the aircraft. increasing the altitude of the aircraft. increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity.

Which device allows the free flow of fluid in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?. Shutoff valve. Metering piston. Check valve.

A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system. is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid. is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture.

Hydraulic pressure can be restored by. compressing the air charge in an accumulator. the use of a pressure/heat exchanger. compressing the fluid in a reservoir.

An hydraulic accumulator has low air/nitrogen pressure. What will be the indications?. Full pressure indicated. Zero pressure indicated. The cut-out valve chatters.

To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components with different pressures, a. pressure reducing valve is used. pressure regulating valve is used. pressure relief valve is used.

Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to. control rate of system operation. limit the maximum pressure. restrict the rate of pressure build-up.

What type of valve prevents pressure from building up until a demand is placed in an opencenter hydraulic system?. An unloading valve. A selector valve. A bypass valve.

In an open-centre hydraulic system, system pressure is provided. only when the selector valve is set to ON. only when the selector valve is set to OFF. continuously.

In an open-centre hydraulic system, selector valves are positioned. in parallel. either in series or in parallel depending on the system design. in series.

What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?. White. Green. Yellow.

A maintainer valve in a hydraulic system will. maintain a high pressure to all systems. allow continued pressure to essential systems during times of reduced supply. dampen pressure inputs.

Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?. In the suction line. In the case drain. In the pressure line.

What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?. Increase in fluid pressure. Increase in fluid temperature. Fluid loss.

What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?. Increase alkalinity. Increase viscosity. Increase acidity.

How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?. Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection. Energised Closed for fail-safe. Energised Open.

How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?. By pressurising. Vent Reservoir to atmosphere. Pass over a tray.

Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems. are only ever used in an emergency. store fluid under pressure. provide additional fluid if leaks occur.

A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of. natural rubber. synthetic rubber. butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon.

Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in. alkalinity. acidity. viscosity.

A normal hydraulic system will. show fluid temperature and quantity. show pressure and source of hydraulics. illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready.

A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being used?. ACOV. Pressure relief valve. Return line back to pump.

The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by. restriction valve. angle of swashplate. IDG.

Hydraulic systems normally operate at. 1800 PSI.. 3000 PSI. 300 PSI.

When flushing hydraulic systems. flush with any hydraulic oil. flush with same hydraulic oil. flush with methylated spirit.

When replenishing a hydraulic system. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid. use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer. use any hydraulic fluid.

When replacing a flexible pipe. tighten only hand tight. do a bonding check. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting.

How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?. Pass over a tray . Vent to atmosphere . Pass through a restriction.

A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is. used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure . de-energised to start the pump . energised to the run position.

A constant delivery pump has its output varied with. regulators . gears. servo pressure.

A variable angled pump starts at. half way position . maximum stroke. minimum stroke.

A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents. overpressure. pump cavitation. reverse flow.

A duplex seal consist of. a square section rubber ring within a steel washer . a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings. a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring .

When is a hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?. When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available . When selected off . When selected on .

A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts: Drive Shaft, variable Swash Plate and Cylinder Block . Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate and Cylinder Block . Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate and Valve Block.

An hydraulic closed system is one where. most of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit . there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all ti.

What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?. Hydraulic oil accumulator . Variable swashplate pump. Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter .

If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be. rapid fluctuations of instruments . rapid depressurisation of system. pump cavitation.

A marker number on a pipe indicates. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run . the thickness of the wall on the pipe. the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe.

One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. relieve excess pressure. absorb pressure surges.

A thermal relief valve is fitted to a hydraulic system to. relieve excess pressure . prevent a leak back of pressure. prevent excess temperature .

A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is. selector. engine driven pump. accumulator.

A shuttle valve is used for. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure. preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack. maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails.

Restrictor valves in a hydraulic system are used to. restrict the rate of pressure build up . control the rate of system operation. limit the maximum pressure.

The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of. landing gear and doors. safety switches . brake anti-skid units.

The purpose of a non-return valve is to. isolate one component from another. restrict the movement of components. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuato.

The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to. prevent incorrect installation . allow a full flow from the valve . facilitate bleeding of the system.

A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial nitrogen pressure of 1000 PSI . When the hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the nitrogen pressure is. 4000 PSI. 3000 PSI. 1000 PSI .

Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by. low accumulator pressure . relief valve set too high. moisture in the fluid.

Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the. two NRVS fitted . piston ram displacement . relief valve .

During a leak test of a hydraulic system, system pressure. must be minimum working. is not important. must be at maximum.

Constant delivery hydraulic pumps. require an automatic cut-out valve in the system. are self idling. require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system.

Mechanical sequence valves are operated by. the operation of a NRV. the pilot. a striker pin.

Pressure relay valves are fitted. before a pressure sequence valve. before a pressure gauge. before a pressure relief valve.

Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator. the reservoir must be checked for correct level. the fluid pressure must be released. all air must be bled from the system.

Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to. provide a reserve of stored energy. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. maintain a constant fluid level.

In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use. any fluid of the same specific gravity. any hydraulic fluid available. only the specified fluid.

The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an. accumulator and relay valve. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve. accumulator and shuttle valve.

An automatic cut-out valve will. limit pump wear. prevent the hydraulic lock forming. raise fluid boiling point.

A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system. relieve excessive pressure to return. to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure.

A thermal relief valve. senses fluid pressure. provides cooling for the fluid. senses fluid temperature change.

Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with. any clean hydraulic fluid. methylated spirits. the same type of fluid as used in the system.

Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?. Butyl Rubber. Natural Rubber. Synthetic Rubber.

A RAT hydraulic pump is for. flying controls if hydraulic power lost. landing gear and auto-brake systems. nose wheel steering.

Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from. a tap into a convenient return line. the bottom of the reservoir. a stack pipe higher than the normal level.

Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally. double acting. low pressure. single acting.

To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures. a pressure reducing valve is used. a pressure relief valve is used. a pressure regulating valve is used.

The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to. pressure x stroke. area x pressure. area x volume.

A tandem PFCU. has the rams parallel. has two control surfaces under its control. has the actuator rams co-axial.

The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation, is a flexible hose under pressure. contracts in length and expands in diameter. contracts in length and diameter. expands in length and diameter.

An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with. a fixed volume pump. pressures above 3000 PSI. a variable volume pump.

When should rain repellent be applied to a windscreen?. When windscreen is wet. When windscreen is dry. When windscreen is either wet or dry.

A pressure operated ice detector would. have a build up of ice that causes a torque switch to illuminate a flight deck annunciator. be completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to sound on the flight deck. have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck.

The flow rate of anti-icing fluid is determined. by speed of pump. by flow control valve. by flow control tubes.

Details entered in the operational log regarding the De-Icing is. area on which used. type of fluid used and its percentage dilution. volume of fluid used.

The ice protection system that is manufactured on the aircraft skin is. heater mat. overshoe. spraymat.

What are the chemicals used in modern chemical de-icing?. Isopropyl alcohol. A mixture of ethylene glycol and alcohol. Either Isopropyl alcohol or ethylene glycol.

Where does ice form on the aircraft?. Leading edges only. Areas with larger curvature radius. Area with smaller curvature radius.

Window anti-icing supply is. DC. AC or DC. AC.

Ice formed on the object or surface will change its shape, this changes is more detrimental and vulnerable to a. fast moving object. large object. small object.

In which ice detection method, the activation of warning system is through accumulation of ice on a probe projected into the airstream?. Inferential method. Ice accretion method. Impingement method.

The inflatable tube of the de-icer boots is made of. natural rubber. synthetic rubber. rubberised fabric.

How is rain repellent stored on an aircraft?. Reservoir, pressurised by the pneumatic system. Self pressurised container. Remote container.

When testing windshield wipers, you should. lift the wipers away from the windshield. use a continuous flow of water on the windshield. operate them on a dry windshield.

What is the correct way of measuring the windshield wiper force prior to adjustment?. With a spring tension scale. By measuring the maximum total angle of sweep. With a torque screwdriver and light thumb pressure.

How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?. Screwdriver torque test. Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement. By a motor load test.

Windshield heating provides. thermal expansion for a tighter fit. impact resistance enhancement. increases strength to resist cabin pressure.

At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?. 7°F at 100 PSI. 70°C at 100 PSI. 70°F at 10 PSI.

The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is. increase in drag. increase in weight. reduction in CLmax.

The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is. less of a fire hazard. more efficient. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed.

On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is. independent on each side but with the same power source. one system for both sides but with the same power source. independent on each side with different power sources.

In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical?. The last part of the rotation. During climb with all engines operating. All phases of the take-off are equally critical.

Prior to securing a cemented leading edge de-icing boot you must. paint the surface. shave rivet to prevent further abrasion. remove all paint.

Prior to securing a screw-fastened leading edge de-icing boot you must. shave rivet to prevent further abrasion. paint the surface. remove all paint.

On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on. when in the air. all the time. when selected by the crew.

Ice formation on wings is due to. ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing. supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing. suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing.

When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck. goes out after a set period of time. goes out after one more cycle. goes out immediately.

De-misting of passenger windows is provided by. sealed window. air from the cabin. an electrical heating element.

A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to. prevent electrical static build up. provide more efficient deicer cycles. provide smoother airflow over leading edge.

In a cockpit window heater system, the autotransformer. supplies DC power for heating. supplies AC Power for heating. steps up output for severe weather conditions.

Windshield rain repellent is applied. when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers. before rain and spread on window surface by wipers.

Pneumatic rain removal systems. use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen. are not permitted on large transport aircraft.

Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at. blade attachment end. the shaft end. centre point of the blade.

Windscreen autotransformers. step down voltage. are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions. step up voltage.

An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and which is dense, tough and sticks closely to the surface is called. rime Ice. hoar Frost. glaze Ice.

When testing pitot head heaters. they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability. they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings. they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe.

A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by. increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.

A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selectionbeing made. The most probable cause would be. normal. a short circuit. an open circuit.

Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from. either engine compressors or a combustion heater. engine compressors. a combustion heat.

The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system. nylon. stainless steel. Monel.

When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make sure to. place soft cloth between blade and window. use water as lubricant when operating. use slow wiper only.

What is run-back ice?. Gleam ice. Glaze ice. Rime ice.

What should be done if a tyre has creeped round the hub?. Remove tyre, reposition, then re-inflate. Remove tyre, reposition the opposite way round to prevent more creep. Remove from the hub for inspection.

Brake temperature readings provide. separate brake indicator gauge indications. master and caution warning. coloured indications on a CRT display.

Spongy brakes are usually a result of. external leakage. air in the system. internal leakage.

Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the. brake drum. wheel hub. wheel flange.

To check if a landing gear leg requires servicing. The aircraft must have an exact load onboard and air charge to give an exact leg extension. The leg extension can vary with aircraft load. The leg pressure and extension should be checked against a chart in the AMM. The leg must be serviced to give an exact extension regardless of aircraft load.

Landing gear comes down and goes up again. A likely cause is. leak in selector valve. leak in actuating cylinder. leak in reservoir.

A tyre valve cap is used to. secure the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of the wheel. prevent a leak. secure the valve by screwing up to the valve base.

The drag strut in the main landing gear is fitted to absorb. turning loads while taxiing. cross-wind loads on landing. braking and take-off acceleration loads.

How is a wheel and tyre assembly stored?. Three quarters of full pressure. With full pressure. Inflated to 20-30 PSI.

Anti skid. applies wheel torque at point of maximum efficiency. is a 3-option system. moderates braking with increasing wheel torque.

The operational hydraulic pressure for the nose wheel steering system of large aircraft normally comes from. the landing gear up line. an independent hydraulic system. the landing gear down line.

When removing the wheel with a multiple disks brake, the wheel brake should be. set OFF (released). disconnected first. set ON (applied).

A tyre blows a fusible plug. You would. just change the one with the blown plug. change the damaged one and the adjacent one. change all tyres on that truck.

Twin contact tread tyres are fitted to the nose wheel to assist in. preventing nose wheel shimmy. deflecting water away from rear mounted engines. preventing aquaplaning.

Whilst taxiing at low speed, a wheel skids. What is the likely cause?. There is no fault. Anti-skid system is disabled at low speed. Anti-skid system is unserviceable. Faulty wheel speed transducer.

A brake debooster valve is provided for. increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly. decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes. applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly.

Anti-skid systems become deactivated at. 5-10 mph. 10-15 mph. 15-20 mph.

The landing gear is in the down and locked position but the red light is still on. The most probable fault is. the landing gear down microswitch needs adjusting. the landing gear up microswitch needs adjusting. there is a short circuit in the microswitch.

Tubeless tyres are stored. vertically. horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top. at 15 to 20 P.S.I.

On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the. top of the wheels are closer together. front of the wheels are closer together. bottom of the wheels are closer together.

A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will. produce a loss of fluid. be serviceable, and provide better grip. wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced.

How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?. 15% by volume. 5% by pressure. 5% by volume.

A tyre specification 32 x 10.75 - 14. What does the 10.75 refer to?. Section Width. Overall diameter. Bead diameter.

When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?. Leaking air/oil seals. Separator plate stuck open. The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed.

The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon. the type of seal material. heat generated in operation of the system. type of fluid most readily available.

A restrictor valve. restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension. speed up the flow in one direction.

The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to. absorb the landing shock. ensure the separator does not bottom. damp the rebound.

The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to. restrict the compression of the air. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension. separate the oil from the air.

Made up wheels should be stored. horizontal no more than 4 high. vertical at working pressure. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge.

After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is illuminated in the flight deck. The possible causes are. shorted sensor. out of adjustment sensor. wiring problem.

When checking for alignment of a MLG, check. symmetry, tracking, camber. symmetry, splay, tracking. symmetry, twist, tracking.

These markings are found on a tyre, 32 x 10.45 R 14. What does the number 32 mean?. Inner diameter. width. Outer diameter.

A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents. breather points. military reference. the light part of the tyre.

In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is secured by. a lock ring. a retainer plate. bolts.

Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are. for overpressure protection. for overtemperature protection. to deflate the tyre before removal.

A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is. to provide strength. to provide a wear indication. to indicate the position for tyre levers.

If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is. due to excessive charging pressure. caused by a leaky seal. normal.

A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means. military reference. breather points. the light part of the tyre.

On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is. a faulty actuator. gear lowered at too high an airspeed. a faulty selector valve.

When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned. opposite the charging valve. adjacent to the charging valve. on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve.

Composite brake units. have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures. weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures. have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures.

A restrictor valve can be used. to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension. to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction.

When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep back up. The fault could be. the emergency system. a leaky selector valve. a stuck relief valve.

Vents holes are found on. tubeless tyres. tubed tyres. tubed and tubeless tyres.

At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?. 250°C. 200°C. 150°C.

The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is. for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension. part of the shimmy damper. to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction.

What is tyre creep related to?. Tyre moving around the wheel. Horizontal movement of the tyre. Vertical movement of the tyre.

'Aquaplaning' can be reduced by. lowering slats. an anti-skid device. increased flaring.

Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?. To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection. To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection. To reduce vibration and shimmy.

What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?. The material of the leg. Neither, any oil can be used. The types of seals the leg uses.

In an anti-skid system. brakes release on falling torque. brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking. brakes release on rising torque.

If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection, the likely cause is. oil level too high. loss of pressure/leakage. nitrogen pressure too high.

A Maxaret is used in what system?. Self centring landing gear. Tyre inflation. Skid control.

The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land.The most likely reason for this warning is. the landing gear is not locked down. the airspeed is too high. the rate of descent is too high.

A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the. landing gear down line. return line from the landing gear selector. landing gear up line.

Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems. to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped. to ensure the aircraft is still rolling. to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment.

A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents. brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures. over inflation of tyres during servicing. tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking.

If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position. neither system will be available. normal braking will not be available. emergency braking will not be available.

The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted. between the tread rubber and the casing piles. between the apex strip and the casing piles. between the bead and the casing piles.

Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by. rudder pedals. the control column. a separate pilot operated control.

The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will. eliminate the need to check air pressure. melt at a specified elevated temperature. facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly.

Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of. excessive toe-in. over-inflation. under-inflation.

Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to. the top of the tie bar. 1 mm from the rib base. the base of the tie bar.

On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to. spread the weight over a large area. absorb increased landing shock. prevent skidding.

To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a. snubber is used. castoring damper is used. hop damper is used.

On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air. an argon and CO2 mixture. nitrogen.

Brake deboosters. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. assist the operation of the anti-skid unit.

A modulator is fitted in conjunction with. non-return valve. brake control valves. anti-skid units.

In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel bay. is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure. is not pressurized. is subject to cabin pressure.

An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is of which type. Direct Acting. Hydro Mechanical. Articulated.

The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is. 9.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi. 8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi. 8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar.

Tubed tyres are stored. horizontally, up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top. horizontally, up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent distortion of beads. horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points.

On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage centreline. Front of wheels closer to fuselage centreline. Top of wheels closer to fuselage centreline.

When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit indicator shows. no indication. green light. red light.

When checking the alignment of a main landing gear, check. symmetry, tracking, camber. symmetry, tracking, splay. symmetry, tracking, twist.

Tyre creep could be caused by. excessive wear. under pressure. overpressure.

When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem. heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch. carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation.

A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by fitting tyres which have. a plain tread. water dispersing treads. twin contact.

Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored. in the manufactures boxes. horizontally. vertically.

With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the torque links will. assist the wheel to castor. keep the wheel in track. allow the wheel to shimmy.

When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre should be in line with. maker's serial number. the valve assembly. opposite side to the valve assembly.

A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate. balance indicator. heavy spot. light spot.

On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters, brake wear is checked by. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion. using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate. measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released.

What colour is the strobe light on the PORT wing?. White. Green. Red.

What is the arc of a landing light?. This is not covered in European legislation. 20°. 15 °.

With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?. Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white. Starboard light red, port light green, tail light Red. Starboard light red, port light green, tail light White.

Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base. the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired. the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only.

A white navigation light, as viewed in the horizontal plane, will be at least. 20 candela. 50 candela. 240 candela.

A fluorescent tube contains. phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour. orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour. iodine coatings and rare gases.

A white steady light is required. of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern.

How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?. 15%. 25%. 20%.

What is the arc of a landing light?. 20°. 15°. 11°.

The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is. 110°. 11°. 140°.

Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?. 125°. 180°. 110°.

Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the. battery bus and ground services bus. ground services bus. battery bus.

Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured. green. white. red.

Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by. the battery bus. DC handling bus. AC handling bus.

What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?. Dome lights will illuminate. All lights will illuminate. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate.

Escape route lighting must not have more than. 20% obscured. 15% obscured. 10% obscured.

How many escape path lights are allowed to be inoperative?. None. 25%. 10%.

The angle of a runway turnoff light is. 40°. 60°. 50°.

Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with. 28 V AC. 28 V AC. 115 V AC.

How are passenger reading lights normally tested?. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel.

In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during flight?. Armed. OFF. ON.

The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is. 10%. 15%. 25%.

A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of. 50 candelas. 100 candelas. 20 candelas.

Service lights include. avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage compartment lights. baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights. refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo lights.

If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates, how is it reset?. The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground. Select full 'RETRACT'. It cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced.

Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock or burning. That time period is at least. 1 minute. 2 minutes. 5 minutes.

The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show through an inclusive angle of. 110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum. 110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum.

Self-illuminating signs. are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted. require a period of daylight, or intense artificial light to operate.

When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM', the resistor is in. parallel with the light and the transistor is not conducting. series with the light and the transistor is not conducting. series with the light and the transistor is conducting.

Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on. because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight. and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed.

Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be dimmed. individually. together. First Officer's only in emergency mode.

In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured. amber. red. green.

On a CWS, which has the highest priority?. Duct overheat. Hydraulic pump failure. Fire warning.

What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?. Halon. Freon. Xenon.

Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced. at 70 inch intervals. at 60 inch intervals. at 40 inch intervals.

Tritium Gas is used in a. landing Light. self illuminating lights. strobe light.

A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is what?. Neon gas and blue. Xenon Gas and blue-white. Helium gas and white.

The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system. continue with reduced passenger load. ferry flight to main base for rectification. ground the aircraft.

Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit: Single circuit. Individual circuits. Dual circuit.

Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate. below 10,000ft and descending. when landing gear is down. unless switched off by the pilot.

To purge an unpleasant odour/moisture from an oxygen system, you must. completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times. completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3 times. completely empty and fill the system with air at least 3 times.

Oxygen bottles should not be left with less that 500 psi pressure because. it can damage the diluter demand regulator and would require maintenance. the oxygen becomes tainted causing anoxia. it can cause corrosion within the bottle.

A dual demand regulator in oxygen system is for. fitting to either gaseous or chemical oxygen cylinders. altitude selection. allowing two people to breath from one cylider.

The oxygen masks for the passengers drop down by. manual selection from cockpit and automatically by an altitude switch. automatically by an ltitude switch. manual selection from cockpit.

How would you identify an American oxygen bottle?. It is painted the same colour as a British oxygen bottle (black). It is white with green wording. It is green.

When charging an oxygen cylinder, the pressure goes to zero. Where is the likely fault?. In the pressure gauge. In the mask. In the temperature compensator.

How many turns of teflon tape are you allowed on oxygen threads and how many threads should have no tape?. 2 turns except first 2 threads. 2 turns except first thread. 1 turn except first thread.

Anoxia is due to. release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood. lack of oxygen. low air pressure on the body.

The dilutor demand regulator functions. only when the supply valve is opened by the user. when the user breathes in. all the time.

To measure moisture in an oxygen system use. a hygrometer using the dew point method. litmus paper. a glass plate.

Oxygen cylinder test dates. are painted in white on the cylinder. may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder. are variable depending on discharge.

O2 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?. Supernumerator regular. Breathing regulator. Temperature compensator.

If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely find the cause?. Breathing mask. Thermal Relief Valve. Loose connection.

As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres. the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended. the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel. the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit.

Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with. oxygen purity gauge. temperature gauge. pressure and quantity gauges.

A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens. all the time. when breathing. when 100% selected.

Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with. an overpressure indicator. a demand regulator. an over temperature indicator.

American made crew oxygen cylinders are. green in colour with a LH thread. green in colour with a RH thread. black in colour with a RH thread.

Which connector has a left hand thread?. Freon. N2. O2.

What is the principle of an O2 generator?. Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator. Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air. Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.

What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?. 1800 PSI. 300 PSI. 3000 PSI.

Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be. turned on by crew. turned on and safety wire-locked. turned off.

A thermal compensator is used in. an hydraulic system. a fuel system. an oxygen system.

When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down. passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature.

Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?. Line valve. Charging connection. Shut-off valve.

Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when. the user breathes in. 100% is selected. less than 500 psi is in bottle.

A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for. additional flightcrew. extra supply in case of emergency. changes in altitude.

If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14, 000 ft. attendant must drop masks. passenger must get mask from overhead stowage. masks drop automatically.

How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure?. Green rupturing disc. Audible warning. Red rupturing disc.

The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is. 4 years. 10 years. 2 years.

A discharged chemical generator is indicated by. a broken tell-tale wire. a change in colour. a protruding pin.

A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least. 15 minutes. 5 minutes. 30 minutes.

The oxygen line service valve must be. wire locked open. only be wire locked with telltale wire. wire locked closed.

Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above. 4,000 ft. 10,000ft. 8,000ft.

The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately. 4,000 ft. 25,000 ft. 38,000 ft.

If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions, the cabin altitude must be. at a maximum of 12,000 ft. below 10,000 ft. at or below 8,000 ft.

Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes. below 40,000 ft. above 30,000 ft. above 40,000 ft.

In a diluter demand oxygen system. each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply. oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow. each member of the crew has a regulator.

In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied. on passenger inhaling into the mask. when the mask is plugged into the socket. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot.

In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in. 100% oxygen supply as the user inhales. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure. 100% oxygen at positive pressure.

The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of. aluminium. alloy steel. stainless steel.

Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to. 1,800 p.s.i. 2,000 p.s.i. 1,200 p.s.i.

Rate of flow of oxygen is given in. pounds/minute. litres/minute. litres/pounds.

Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested. every 4 years. every 6 years. every 3 years.

Oxygen bottle capacity varies between. 100 - 3200 litres. 200 - 2250 litres. 80 - 2250 litres.

Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found. stencilled on the bottle. stamped on the neck ring. stamped on a metal label.

After installation, the oxygen bottle on/off valve is. left in the 'on' position. left in the 'off' position until required. wire locked in the 'on'.

Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders. is relieved by a thermostat. is relieved by a bursting disc. is relieved by under pressurising the bottle.

To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder. cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i. cylinder pressure is left at 100/200 p.s.i. cylinder pressure is left at 300/400 p.s.i.

What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?. The pressure used in the system. The whims of the aircraft designer. The length of the pipe runs.

The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is indicated. by colour coding. by an arrow. by visual inspection.

Oxygen filters are made of. carbon fibres. sintered bronze. steel wool.

Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is indicated by. pressure indicators. flow indicators. lack of Anoxia.

If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen system. no lubricant may be used whatsoever. Teflon tape may be used. distilled water may be used sparingly.

The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipeline is a series of. rectangles. dots. diamonds.

Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted. white with a black collar. black with a white collar. black.

A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is. grease free medical soap. leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B. soapy water.

When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is. passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down.

In areas closely associated with oxygen systems, particular care must be taken to avoid leaving. traces of oils or greases. magnesium particles. acrylic based plastic materials.

When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system. the area must be well ventilated. no electrical power must be used. oil must not come into contact with the system.

A chemical oxygen generator operates at. 45°K at 10 psi for 15 minutes. 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes. 45°F at 10 psi for 15 minutes.

When charging an oxygen bottle in situ. charge slowly through a water trap. charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph. slacken off the retaining straps first.

The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates. purity. pressure. temperature.

The application of thread lubrication tape in an oxygen system should be. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape. applied to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.

High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of. stainless steel. aluminium alloy. titanium.

Lubricate oxygen connector threads using. WD40. Teflon tape. hellerene.

How is an expended chemical oxygen generator indicated?. A pressure seal would be broken. The indicator pin would be protruding. By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint.

Oxygen purging is a process of. measuring the flow rate from the regulator. pressure testing the system. removing moisture from the system.

To check an oxygen system for moisture. a sniff test is used. a hygrometer is used. pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass.

Two compressors driven by separate engines use. PRVs. NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other. Interconnected to share loads.

When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps. the whole system. just the moisture trap. the system between compressor and regulator valve.

High pressure pneumatic pump is a. butterfly pump. spur gear. reciprocating pump.

A silica gel desiccant is required to be replaced. when half pink and half blue. when all pink. when all blue.

High pressure pneumatic source is a. centrifugal Compressor. butterfly pump. reciprocating pump.

On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of time, the system would. lose pneumatic pressure partially. lose pressure from the compressor side only. lose all pressure.

In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to. essential equipment. all equipment. non-essential equipment.

If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain. all the system. just the moisture trap. between the compressor and the PRV.

What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?. It must be filtered. It must be pressure controlled. It must be temperature controlled.

The pneumatic system pump is a. rotor vane type. piston type. centrifugal type.

What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?. Rotary vane type. Positive displacement type. Spur gear type.

What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard. Prevent toilet freezing. Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable.

The potable water is delivered to the galleys and toilets by. electrical pump. pneumatic pressure. gravity.

Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by. water cooling. thermal protection. cooling fan on timer switch.

Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by. wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons. installation of neoprene foam insulation. placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping.

A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight. Close toilet until landing. It can be overcome by thermal compensating device. You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet.

The process of hyperchlorination is to. fill the tank with potable water. decontaminate the potable system. decontaminate the soil tank.

Waste water drain masts. are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only. are not heated. are heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground.

The heater used on a drain mast would be a. induction heater. ribbon heater. hot air blower.

Toilet waste valves are. spring loaded open. spring loaded closed. not spring loaded.

Toilets are the subject of. AWN 80. AWN 83. AWN 79.

The centralised soil tank system is flushed by. recycled soil water. potable water. racasan.

A modern aircraft CMC uses. a CRT screen. a magnetic fault indicator. an LED display.

A Flight Data Recorder is activated when. the helicopter's engines are started. the helicopter takes off. when power is applied to the helicopter.

An aircraft condition monitoring system. detects the source of a fault. stores information for long term error analysis. sends information to the central maintenance cell.

In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC. all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory. only Primary Faults are recorded. all faults are recorded in Volatile memory.

In a CMC system, where would you find a 'real time' fault?. In Fault. In Test. In Fault History.

In a CMC, warning signals are generated by. Warning computer. FMC. CMC.

One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in. erased only after end of sector. volatile memory. non-volatile memory.

The real time on a CMC is when. ground test page is selected on the CDU. existing faults page is selected on the CDU. fault history page is selected on the CDU.

A MCDU is. to transmit data to ground. to dialog with the central maintenance computer. to store fault data.

With a ACMS quick access recorder. you must use digital tape. the tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk erased. the tape must not have been used before.

Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is. 90 Hz. 90 KHZ. 150 Hz.

In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use. any fluid of the same specific gravity. any hydraulic fluid available. only the specified fluid.

To check an oxygen system for moisture. pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass. a hygrometer is used. a sniff test is used.

What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil. To speed up the operation. To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay.

How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?. Through the latching mechanism. By door stops. By the pressure seal.

To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a. hop damper is used. snubber is used. castoring damper is used.

A fire detection system can pass through one zone to another providing. it is separated by steel. the system is protected. the system is duplicated.

How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?. Annually. Every 5 years. Bi-annually.

Pressure refuelling is carried out at. 40 PSI. 20 PSI. 15 PSI.

For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S. decreases. remains the same. increases.

In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to. ensure positive duct pressure is maintained. ensure conditioned air is distributed. ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.

The following takes place at the transition point on a wing: The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer. The total dynamic and static pressure comes to a standstill. The airflow separates completely from the wing surface.

Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant). the aircraft will sink suddenly. the aircraft will yaw. the aircraft will climb.

The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight. are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain. are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel.

When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability. the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted. a hydrometer must be used.

To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.

Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of. wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced drag. induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag. profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag.

When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation. heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch. carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem.

Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight. nose should be raised, increasing AoA. nose should be lowered, reducing AoA. nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA.

What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps?. Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not. Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not. Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not.

Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by. longerons. bulkheads. stringers.

Vortex generators are fitted to. move transition point forwards. advance the onset of flow separation. move transition point rearwards.

Glideslope controls autopilot in. roll. yaw. pitch.

The transition point located on the wing is the point where. airflow starts separating from the wing. the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow. the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow.

Ram Air Turbines have variable fan blades to. maintain a constant speed. produce maximun hydraulic pressure required by the system. provide a constant flow rate.

Critical Mach No. may be increased by. using more powerful engines. sweeping back the wing. using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing.

A wing mounted stall warning vane. moves down at impending stall. moves up at impending stall. gives a visual indication of impending stall.

Bending stresses are a combination of. torsional and compression stresses. tension and compression stresses. tension and shear stresses.

On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?. Milled stringers. The position of the spars. Ribs.

The GPS satellite system consists of. 20 satellites and 5 standby satellite. 24 satellites and 1 standby satellites. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.

FM improvements affect what system?. VHF, VOR and ILS. ADF, VHF and ILS. ADF, VOR and ILS.

The pneumatic system pump is a. piston type. centrifugal type. rotor vane type.

What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?. 1090 MHz. 1030 MHz. 1000 MHz.

In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by. displacement of erection control device. bottom lightness of inner gimbals. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals.

To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components with different pressures, a. pressure reducing valve is used. pressure relief valve is used. pressure regulating valve is used.

Wing bending and shear loads are taken by. spar cap. main spar. skin.

How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?. As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb). As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft. As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer.

Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the. inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger. fan. turbine.

The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called. interfay. brush coat. fillet.

Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). Autothrottle. Flaps/undercarriage. Rudder/ailerons.

When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?. VOR. Heading Hold. ALT Hold.

Stalling speed in a 15° bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will be. 70 kts. 60 kts. 50 kts.

If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will. not be affected. increase. decrease.

When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii). (i) not move, (ii) not move. (i) move aft, (ii) move aft. (i) move aft, (ii) not move.

Upper surface wing skin is usually made from. 5056. 2024. 7075.

Toilets are the subject of. AWN 80. AWN 79. AWN 83.

A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a. trim tab. servo tab. geared balance tab.

How is an aircraft battery rated?. Ampere hours. Joules. Watts.

A capacitive fire wire. will neither work nor test if broken circuit. will work but not test if broken circuit. will work but not test if short circuited.

An over station sensor (OSS) detects. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter.

One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is. by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.. by compression of ambient air across a turbine.

The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will. remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position. increase if the centre of gravity is moved forward. increase if the centre of gravity is moved aft.

The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a. pressure controller/dump valve combination. pressure controller/discharge valve combination. discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination.

If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be. stainless steel. aluminium alloy. plastic.

On passenger aircraft of two or more zones. the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits. the emergency exits are to be clearly signed. there should be at least one exit per zone.

What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon monoxide in occupied aircraft compartment?. 0.01 % (100 p.p.m). 0.02 % (200 p.p.m). 0.005% (50 p.p.m).

How are passenger reading lights normally tested?. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel.

Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per. revolution. minute. second.

Frequency wild' alternators supply. resistive circuits. capacitive circuits. inductive circuits.

You would expect to find a squib connected to. a fire detection system. a fire suppression system. a smoke detection system.

On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?. Under-frequency. Under-current. Under-volt.

When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be. all closed. all open. removed.

When replacing a flexible pipe. do a bonding check. tighten only hand tight. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting.

How is the the glideslope frequency chosen on the navigation control panel?. Via the G/S selector knob. It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the localizer frequency. It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the VOR frequency.

An artificial feel system is required. for power assisted control systems. for power operated control systems. for proportional control systems.

The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is likely to result in. contamination of both types of batteries. normal battery service life. increased explosion and/or fire hazard.

The Turn and Slip indicator employs. a rate gyro. an azimuth gyro. a vertical gyro.

What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?. Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear. Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain. Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress.

When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a. red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off. red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline. red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on.

After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at. tank outlet. engine inlet. tank shut-off valve point.

Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system. pre-heat the system to 100°F. apply suction to remove air and moisture. flush the system with a solvent.

What happens if you reduce the curvature of the leading edge?. Advance the shock wave formation. It will have no effect on shock wave formation. Delay the shock wave formation.

One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it. is easier to manufacture. takes all the loads in the skin. shares the loads.

HF aerials have weak points designed at. both ends. the back end. the front end.

Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to. restrict the rate of pressure build-up. limit the maximum pressure. control rate of system operation.

A fire detection system should be. positioned in a location determined by the manufacture during the design. designed to detect fires only. designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained during normal operation.

In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler. cools the vapour further to prevent slugging. is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour. delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground.

A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication. for when it is disconnected from the generator. for low speed. for low oil pressure.

Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in. ANO 25. JAR 25. CS 25.

The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?. White. Amber. Blue.

On a CWS, which has the highest priority?. Hydraulic pump failure. Fire warning. Duct overheat.

A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed. when the aircraft is in level flight attitude. with the aileron in the neutral position. with the aileron in the down position.

Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends. amplitude of voltage. on time delay circuit. closing of fuel and hydraulic valves.

The cabin altitude is. the actual height of the aircraft above sea level. the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level. the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure.

What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?. 1800 PSI. 300 PSI. 3000 PSI.

How many programs can a FMC store?. Two. One active and one standby. One current. Two. Both active.

What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?. The whims of the aircraft designer. The length of the pipe runs. The pressure used in the system.

The input to a stick shaker comes from. angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of attack. the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed. the angle of attack only.

ATA zone 330 is the. vertical stabiliser. left horizontal stabiliser. right horizontal stabiliser.

From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?. From VOR and ADF systems. From VOR only. From ADF only.

Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted with. Kerosene. Methylated Spirit. Water.

Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in. one inch increments. one foot increments. half inch increments.

A large aircraft air conditioning system's cabin temperature control. is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station. involves modulating the pack valve. all zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch.

Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ. is permitted. is only allowed in the shop. is not allowed.

A redundant structure is. a safe-life structure. on-condition structure. a failsafe structure.

Paint remover substances. should only be used once. are damaging to some aircraft parts. are not damaging to any aircraft parts.

The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by. automatic control devices. engine speed variations. spill valves.

On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the. EADI. EHSI & EADI. EHSI.

Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?. Vertical speed indicator. Air speed indicator. Altimeter.

A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in. the closed position. its last position. the open position.

On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with. nitrogen. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air. an argon and CO2 mixture.

Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at. 2 500 ft radio alt.. 1 000 ft radio alt.. 10 000 ft radio alt.

A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of. 8.4 minutes. 84.4 seconds. 84.4 minutes.

A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the. cells begin to gas freely. S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period. S.G. reaches 1.180.

Voltage is controlled by. the constant speed drive. the voltage regulator. the swashplate.

Deploying a secondary flight control surface will. decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil. increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil. not affect the angle of attack.

Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between. 8,000ft and standard barometric pressure. the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure. sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin.

A flying control mass balance weight. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible. ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.