A person is acting as pilot in command of a multi-engine, reciprocating engine powered airplane operated in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If five takeoffs and landings have been accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirement for designations as the pilot in command? Two takeoffs and landings, and 8 hours. Five takeoffs and landings, and 5 hours. Three takeoffs and landings, and 7 hours.
A person is acting as pilot in command of a turbojet powered airplane operated in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If 10 takeoffs and landings have been accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirement as pilot in command? 10 hours. 15 hours. 10 hours, and five takeoffs and landings.
A pilot's experience includes 8 hours in a particular make and basic model multiengine, turboprop airplane while acting as pilot-in-command. Which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirements for designation as pilot in command of that airplane when operated by a commuter air carrier in passenger-carrying service? Twelve takeoffs and landings. Five takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours. Ten takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours.
A person is acting as pilot in command of a single engine airplane operated in passenger.carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If six takeoffs and landings have been accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirements for designation as pilot in command? 4 hours 5 hours 6 hours.
Which person, other than the second in command, may the pilot in command permit to manipulate the flight controls? A member of the National Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot certificate appropriate for the aircraft. An authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations. A pilot employed by an engineering firm who is authorized by the certificate holder to conduct flight tests.
A flight attendant crewmember is required on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration excluding any pilot seat, of 15 or more. 19 or more. 20 or more.
Before each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the location of normal and emergency exits, oxygen masks, and life preservers. use of safety belts, location and operation of fire extinguishers, and smoking. use of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use of survival equipment.
Before takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall wnsure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the normal and emergency use of oxygen if the flight involves operations above 12,000 feet MSL. regardless of the altitude at which the flight will operate. if the flight involves operations at or above 12,000 feet MSL for more than 30 minutes.
The oral before flight briefing required on passenger-carrying aircraft shall be supplemental by an actual demonstration of emergency exit door operation by a crewmember. presented by the pilot in command or another flight crewmember, as a crewmember demonstrates the operation of the emergency equipment. conducted by a crewmember or the pilot in command and supplemented by printed cards for the use of each passenger.
A commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to assign a pilot as pilot in command of an aircraft having eight passenger seats to be used in passenger-carrying operations. Which experience requirement must that pilot meet if the aircraft is to be flown with an operative approved autopilot and no second in command? 100 hours as pilot in command in the category class, and type. 50 hours and 10 landings as pilot in command in the make and model. 100 hours as pilot in command in the make and model.
Which is a conditions that must be met by a commuter air carrier certificate holder to have an aircraft approve for operation with an autopilot system and no second in command? The passenger seating configuration is 10 or more, including any pilot seat. The autopilot system is capable of operating the controls to maintain flight and to maneuver the aircraft about the three axes. The operation is restricted to VFR or VFR over-the-top.
An autopilot may not be used in place of a second in command in any aircraft being operated in commuter air carrier service. having a passenger seating configuration excluding any pilot's seat, of 10 seats or more. having a total seating capacity of 10 or more seats and being operated in commuter air service.
What is the minimum passenger seating configuration that requires a second in command? 15 seats. 12 seats. 10 seats.
When is a pilot not required to keep the shoulder harness fastened during takeoff and landing while at a pilot station? When operating an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat of 10 seats or less. When the pilot cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened. When serving as pilot in command or second in command of an aircraft having a total seating capacity of eight seats or less.
To serve as pilot in command in an IFR operation, a person must have passed a line check aircraft competency, an instrument proficiency, and autopilot check within the previous 6 calendar months prior to the date to serve. instrument proficiency check in the airplane in which to serve, or in an approved aircraft simulator, within the previous 12 calendar months. instrument proficiency check under actual or simulated IFR conditions, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month prior to the date to serve.
A pilot in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a second in command, may take the autopilot check concurrently with the instrument proficiency check, but at 12 months intervals. in any aircraft appropriately equipped, providing the check is taken 6 month intervals. concurrently with the competency check, providing the check is taken at 12 month intervals.
Pilot flight time limitations under 14 CFR part 135 are based on the flight time accumulated in any commercial flying. solely on flight time accumulated in air taxi operations. solely on flight time accumulated during commercial flying, in the last 30 day and/or 12 month period.
No person may serve as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under IFR, that person must have accomplished within the last 6 months, the recent instrument requirements of using the navigation systems for interception and tracking of courses, 6 instrument low approaches and holdings. using the navigation systems to intercept and track 3 inbound/3 outbound courses, 6 holding patterns and 6 instrument approaches. holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6 instrument approaches.
You are on the last day of a four day trip and haven't slept well. What is the warning sign that you are fatigued? Improved dexterity. Head bobbing. Mental acuteness.
Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive day period? 48. 52. 32.
The second in command of an aircraft in domestic operation under 14 CFR 121 must hold an airline transport pilot certificate and a first class medical. an airline transport pilot certificate with an SIC aircraft type rating. a commercial pilot certificate with instrument rating, a second-class medical, and a type rating appropriate for the aircraft being flow.
Fatigue can be evident in others if they talk more than usual. yawn excessively. are overly helpful.
You did not get a good night's rest and have been on duty for several hours. A sign you may have been on duty for several hours. A sign you may be fatigued is improved dexterity decreased short term memory. mental acuteness.
Bird strikes in flight will be reported to the nearest state of federal wildlife office on company letterhead. FAA on an FAA form 5200-7. nearest FSS via telephone.
You are a pilot operating under 14 CFR Part 121 and are in a required rest period. When can you be contacted about you next day duty assignment? At any time during your required rest period. At the end of your required rest period. No earlier than 1 hour before the end of your required rest period.
(Refer to Figure 125.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? 285°. 055°. 135°.
What document(s) must be in a person's possession for that person to act as a flight navigator? Third-Class Medical Certificate and current Flight Navigator Certificate. Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a current Second-Class (or higher) Medical Certificate. Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a valid passport.
Reliance on automation can translate to decreased cockpit workload. increased error awareness. lack of manual handling skills.
Lights which indicate the runway is occupied are strobe lights located next to the PAPIs. flashing PAPIs. yellow flashing lights located below the PAPIs.
(Refer to Figure 251.) In the RNAV (RNP) RWL 26L at HNL profile, what does the shaded triangle below the DA indicate? The visual segment below the DA is not clear of obstacles. The approach does not have a visual glide slope landing aid. The visual segment is clear.
Airport "hot spots" are Reserved for contaminated aircraft. Parking spots for military aircraft. Known hazardous runway intersections.
(8199) A flight navigator or specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United Stated and District of Columbia when operations are conducted IFR or VFR on top. operations are conducted over water more than 50 miles from shore. the airplane's position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour.
What is the conditions that may occur when gusts cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? Mach buffet. Wingover. Dutch roll.
Free directional oscillation (dutch roll) is the result of three oscillations, pitch, roll, and yaw, about the respective axis. a coupled lateral/directional oscillation that is usually dynamically stable. a coupled lateral/vertical oscillation that is usually dynamically unstable.
Precise roll control using a rudder on a transport category airplane can be effective when turbulence is encountered. is difficult and therefor not recommended. should be considered to assist the yaw damper.
(Refer to Figures 98, 99, 100, and 102.) Determine the TAS required to arrive at CUGAR, 29 minutes after level-off. 285 knots. 290 knots. 295 knots.
Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
A hot start in a turbine engine is caused by failed ignition. the engine's failure to accelerate. too much fuel in the combustion chamber.
A jet airplane is flying at .72 Mach with an OAT of -40 degrees C. What is the true airspeed? 430 knots. 452 knots. 464 knots.
(Refer to Figure 417.) You find on air data computer listed on the MEL as inoperative, leaving one ADC operative during your preflight logbook inspection. This means the flight must fly non-RVSM flight levels above FL330. can only fly between FL290. must remain below FL290 unless dispatch obtains a deviation from ATC.
How are turbine engines classified? The type of compressor or combination of compressors they use. The method in which the air/fuel mixture is ignited. The flow of air through the engine and how power is produced.
(Refer to Figure 177A.) An air carrier is going to depart LWS from RWY 8. There are no special company procedures for this airport. As pilot-in-command you know that at 180 knots ground speed you must be able to climb at 270 feet per minute with one engine inoperative with visibility 2 miles. 1000 feet per minute with both engines operating with visibility of 1 mile. 810 feet per minute with one engine inoperative with visibility of 2 miles.
(Refer to Figure 177A.) An air carrier is going to depart LWS from RWY 29. There are no special company procedures for this airport. You as pilot in command know that at 180 knots ground speed, you must be able to climb at 900 fpm with one engine inoperative. 300 fpm with on engine inoperative. 750 fpm with one engine inoperative.
(Refer to Figure 97.) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the RNAV RWY 32 approach at BUF? Climbing left turn, select GANIS Waypoint and establish a direct course, climbing to 2,800 feet. Select and maintain R-302 of BUF VORTAC climbing to 2,800 feet. Establish and maintain R-286.9 of BUF VORTAC climbing to 2,800 feet.
(Refer to Figure 293.) The LA Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearence to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT Intersection? 3,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet.
(Refer to Figure 169A.) The PIC of PTZ 70 will use 25° of bank during the turn after departing RWY 16 at PWK. What is the maximum TAS that the aircraft may maintain during the turn and remain east of the ORD VOR/DME R-345 under a no wind condition? 160 knots. 162 knots. 154 knots.
(Refer to Figure 122.) What is the lowest altitude at which the glide slope may be intercepted when authorized by ATC? 2,500 feet. 3,000 feet. 4,000 feet.
(Refer to Figures 106 and 107.) The radio altimeter indication for the DH at the inner marker on the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX is 101. 111. 201.
(Refer to Figures 106 and 107.) How can DOWNE INT be identified? ILAX 15 DME. LAX 15 DME. LAX R-249 and SLI R-327.
(Refer to Figure 112.) How should the pilot identify the MAP on the IAH VOR/DME RWY 32R? After time has elapsed from FAF. IAH 1.3 DME. IAH 1 DME.
Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact? Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.
How should a pilot describe breaking action? 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent. Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal. Good, good to medium, medium, medium to poor, or nil.
(Refer to Figure 122.) What would be the DME reading at the lowest altitude at which the glide slope may be intercepted when authorized by ATC? 12.4 miles. 9.4 miles. 7.7 miles.
(Refer to Figure 310.) What is the required minimum reported weather to initiate the ILS Rwy 9L approach at PHL in your CAT C turbine-powered airplane with no MEL items? Ceiling at least 200 feet and RVR 2400. Ceiling 300 feet minimum. Visibility 1800 RVR.
(Refer to Figure 1.) What does the 20:1 ratio represent? Displaced threshold. Final approach fix. Obstacle clearance surface (OCS).
(Refer to Figure 259.) When performing the LOC RWY 33R approach and sidestep, at what point would you initiate the missed approach? anytime after the FAF. 4.5 NM after JOLTE. IAH DME 1.0.
In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form? Warm fronts or occluded fronts. Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts. Cold front occlusions.
The most likely condition in which to experience severe inflight icing with the ambient temperature below 0 degrees C is rain. Visible moisture. fog.
A flight is scheduled at daybreak. The current conditions are rainy, but conditions are expected to clear. The forecast temperature is 10 degrees C, dew point 10 degrees C, with winds 330 degrees at 5 knots. What weather conditions can you expect? The conditions are favorable for radiation fog. Dense fog which will deepen during the day. Sever ground icing.
You are approaching an airport to land in 20 minutes. The METAR reports temperature 10 degrees C, dew point 10 degrees C, winds 310/04, scattered clouds and rain. You expect radiation dog. deepening fog. clearing conditions.
When flying in the rain and an air temperature of 1 degrees C, a pilot should not expect icing until the air temperature is 0 degrees C or less. Use autopilot in icing to decrease the work load. be aware of the possibility of airframe icing.
What hazard should you expect for a morning departure from KPDX, based on this METAR?
KPDX 271154Z 00000KT 9SM CLR -10/-19 A2979. Wind shear. Frost on the aircraft. Sea breeze.
You are planning a flight to a coastal area which is currently below published weather minimums for the ILS approach due to fog. The winds are forecast to increase to 20 knots from the west at your scheduled arrival time. What weather should you expect? Surface ice. Advection fog thickening as the winds increase to 20 knots. A low layer of stratus or stratocumulus clouds.
What is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane? Decreased stall speed. Decreased pitchup tendencies. Decreased angle of attack for stalls.
Even a small amount of frost, ice, or snow may increase takeoff performance. hinder lift production to a point where takeoff will be impossible. decrease takeoff ground run.
|
