A certificate hlder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified Notification is not required, if the certificated holder has a security coordinatior. A minimum of 1 hour A minimum of 2 hours.
When a pasenger notifies the certificate hlder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is un the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage? The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command. The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccesible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccesible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember.
(Refer to appendix 1, Except from CFR 49, Part 172) If not excepted, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containig acetone? No label is required Poison Flammable liquid.
(Refer to appendix 1, Except from CFR 49, Part 172) What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetoyl bromide in one package that may be carried in a cargo-only aircraft? A quart 1 Gallon No limit is specified.
(Refer to appendix 1, Except from CFR 49, Part 172) What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetylene in one package that may be carried in a cargo-only aircraft? Any amount is forbidden 300 pounds No limit is specified.
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172) If not excepted, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containig allerthrin? ORM-A None Corrosive.
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172) What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of aluminum hydride in one package that may be carried in a passenger -carrying aircraft? No limit speficied 25 pounds Any amount if forbidden.
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)Hazardous material shipped on an aircraft must be described and certified on a shipping paper. For what period of time must the originating aircraft operator retain one copy of this document? 30 days 60 days 90 days.
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) The aircraft operator discover that the label on a container of hazardous material is missing. How should the appropiate replacement label be determined? Shipping paper Hazardous material index Hazardous material tables of CFR 49.
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) Which class of hazardous material must be loaded aboard an aircraft in a position that allows no contact with containers of corrosive materials? Organic chemicals Oxidizing materials Catalytic agent.
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) What is the maximum, if any, number of package of ORM material that may be transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft? No limit applies A number whose combined transportation indices total 50 A number whose combined transportation indices total 100.
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) If trasnported in a passenger-carring aircraft, what is the maximum combined trasnportation indices of packing containing radioactive materials? 100 50 25.
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) What is the munimum distance that a package of radioactive materials bearing the label 'RADIOACTIVE YELLOW' and having a transport index of 15, may be placed from a space continously occupied by people? 3 feet 4 feet 5 feet.
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) What is the minimum quentity of flammable liquid fuel that may be carried in the cabin of a small, nonscheduled, passenger carrying aircraft being operated in a remote area of the United States? 10 gallons 15 gallons 20 gallons.
What period of time must be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a 'serious injury' ? 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. 48 hous; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury 10 days, with no other extenuating circunstances.
Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office b notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which result in substancial damage? Immediately 7 calendar days 10 days.
Which of the following constitutes 'substancial damage' according to NTSB Part 830? Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires Damage to wingtips ( or rotor blades, in the case of helicopters) Failure of a component which would adversely affect the perfomance, and which would required replacement.
Which of the folowing meet the requirements of a 'serious injury' as defined by the NTSB? A simple fracture of nose or other extremity An injury which caused severe tendon damage First-degree burn over 5 percent of body.
Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB? Aircraft colliding on the ground Flight control system malfunction Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimate to exceed $10.000.
Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB? 3 days 7 days 10 days.
When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report tohe nearest field office of the NTSB? Within 7 days Within 10 days Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.
An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not avaluable is a/an: destination airport provisional airport alternate airport.
A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of obtaining provisions and fuel when inable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport having the aircraft catered (food, beverages, or supplies) providing services to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.
The kind of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the Air carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. certificate holder's operations specifications application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant.
The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flwn in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1.700 AGL and 3.5 NM from the airport is 200 kt 230 kt 250 kt.
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clounds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9.500 feet with a VFR-on Top clearence during daylight hours 3 statute miles, 1.000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2.000 feet horizontal. 5 statute miles, 500 feel above, 1.000 feet below, and 2.000 feet horizontal 3 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1.000feet below, and 2.000 feet horizontal.
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 128) A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12.500 feet MSL (above 1.200 feet AGL) What is the in flight visitbility and distance from clounds required for operations during the daylight hours for the circle 1 area? 5 miles (A) 1.000 feet; (B) 2.000 feet; (D) 500 feet. 5 miles (A) 1.000 feet; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1.000 feet. 3 miles (A) 1.000 feet; (B) 2.000 feet; (D) 1.000 feet.
If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach is inoperative the RVR required to begin the approach is increased in 20%. the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in-minimums. the DA/DH is increase by 50 feet.
In a 25-hour consecutive period, what in the maximun time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may intruct other pilots in air transportation services? 6 hours 8 hours 10 hours.
The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to 30 hours in any 7 - consecutive-day period 7 hours in any 24- consecutive-hour period 36 hours in any 7 - consecutive-day period.
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Security Division? No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. No later than 60 days the motor vehicle action. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is required to have at least a current thirt-class medical certificate. no required to have a medical certificate. required to have a first-class medical certificate.
Whar recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category I authorization? Within the previous 6 month, six ILS apporoaches flown manually to the Categori I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months six ILS apporaches flown by use os an approach coupler to the CategoryI or Category II DH Within the previous 6 months, six ILS appoaches, three of which mat be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type ratingto be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an aproved simulator, is required to have a first-class medical certificate. required to have a secon-class medical certificate. not required to have a medical certificate.
A pilot , acting as second in command, succesfully completes the instrument competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flight are made? 12 months 90 days 6 months.
An applicant who is scheduled for a preactical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs a first-class medical certificate at least a current thirt-class medical certificate a second-class medical certificate.
What instruments flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? All of the time the second in command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments One- half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan One half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is schedule in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is required to have at least a thirt-class medical certificate required to have a first-class medical certificate is not required to have a medical certificate.
To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be to the Category I DH by use an approach coupler. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.
Whe may a Category II ILS limitations be removed? When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision heigh and landing. When sic ILS approaches to Category I minimum and landings have been completed in the mast 6 months 120 days anter issue or renewal.
A Category II ILSpilot autorization, when originally issue, is normally limited to Category II operations not less than 1.600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. pilots who have complete an FAA-aproved Category II training program Category II operations not les than 1.200 RVR and a 100 foot DH.
When a type rating is to be added to an airline trasnport pilot certificate,and the practical test in scheduled in an aprove flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is required to have at least thirt-class medical certificate required to have a current first-class medical certificate not required to hold a medical certificate.
Unless otherwise authorized, whe is the pilot in command required to hold a type rating? When operating an aircraft that is certificate for more than one pilot When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12.500 pounds When operating a multiengine aircraft having a groos weight of more than 6.000 pounds.
When facsimile replacement is received for an airman' medical certificate, for what maximun time is this document valid? 30 days 60 days 90 days.
Which publication includes information on operations on Nort Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Perfomance Specifications Aispace? 14 CFR Part 121 ICAO Annex 1, Chapter 2 14 CFR Part 91.
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic deverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding. 8 hours 12 hours 24 hours.
For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used? Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigations by the NTSB Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence Indentifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting in investigation under NTSB Part 830.
How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? 60 days 90 days 30 days.
If a pilot is being a radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? Fly directly to the next point show on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearence.
A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instruments approach? At the EFC, if this within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC At the EFC time as amended by ATC.
When must the pilot initiated approach procedure from an ILS approach At the DH when the rumway is not clearly visible. When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway enviroment is not clear visible. At the DH, if the visual reference for the intended runway are not distictly visible or anytime thereafer that visual reference is lost.
A pilot is operating in class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearence received prio to take off if weather are below IFR minimum entering controlled airspace entering IFR weather conditions.
What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR agains the other. 4 grades on the ground and in flight 6 grades on the ground and in flight 6 grades in flight and 4 grades on the ground.
Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check? Frecuency, eadial and facility used, and bearing error. Flight hours and number of days since last check, and bearing error Date, place, bearing error, and signature.
A large or turbine powered airplane approaching to lans on a runway served by a VASI may disregard the VASI for any runway shall not touch down on the runway until over or past the touchdown zone marking shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necesary for landing.
During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the required to submit a written report? To the manager of general aviation district Office within 10 days to the manager of the facility in control within 10 days upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.
What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Continued as cleared and file a written repor to the administrator if requested. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary Report the malfuntion inmediately to ATC.
What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? Notify ATC immeditely Squawk 7600 Monitor the VOR receiver.
Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the misses approach should be initiated upon arrival at the DA/DH on the glide slope arrival at the visual descent point expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.
What action should be taken when a pilot is"cleare for approach" while being radar vectored on an unpulished route? Descent to minimum vector altitud Remain at last assigned until established route segment Dscent to initial approach fix altitud.
What altitud is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude must maintain the last assigned altitude until stablished on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitude may descend from the asigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.
While fluing in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails What action is required? Descend below Class A airspace Advise dispatch via company frequency Notify ATC immeditely.
While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two way radio communications failure. Which route should be flow in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advise to expect in a further clearence? The most direct route to the field alternate airport An off-airway route to the point of departure The route filled in the flight plan.
The visibility criteria for a particular instruments approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value? 5/8 SM 3/4 SM 7/8 SM.
When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA The actual minimums show on the IAP chart for the airport.
What is the maximum indicated aispeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10.000 feet MSL 288 kt 250 kt 230 kt.
What action should a pilot take when a clearence in received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation? Read the clearence back in its entirely Request a clarifications from ATC Do not accept the crearence.
Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? VOR?DME FIX Surveillance radar Compas locator.
If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is. plus or minus 6 grades plus 6 grades or minus 4 grades plus or munis 4 grades.
A function of the minimum equipment list to indicate required items which are required to be operative for overwater passenger air carrier flight may be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. may be inoperative prior to begining a flight in an aircraft.
In what altitude structure is a transporder required when operating in controlled airspace? Above 12.500 ft MSL, expluding the airspace at and below 2.500 feet AGL Above 10.000 ft MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2.500 feet AGL Above 14.500 ft MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2.500 feet AGL.
Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorder shall be use only for determining Who was responsible for any accident or incident evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action possible causes of accidents or incidents.
When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdawn zone elevation during a Category II ILS instruments approach when only the approach lights are visible? After passign the visual descent point (VDP) When the RVR is 1.600 feet or more, or the PIC has more than 50 ILS landing in type. When the red terminal bar of the apporach light system is in sight.
In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Categoy II instruments approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL RCLS and REIL Radar and RVR TDZL, RCLS and RVR.
A certificate holder must have "exclusive use" of at least one aircraft that meet the requirements of each kind of operation authorized in the operations Specifications At least one aircraft that meet the requirements of at least one kind of operation autorized in the certificate holder's operations specifications. At least one aircraft that meet the requirements of the specific operations authorized in the certificate holder's operations specifications.
Which document specially authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? Operations Specifications Operating Certificate Dispatch Release.
If previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, where can the procedures for servicing the aircraft be found? Certificate holder's maintenance manual Certificate holder's manual Pilot's handbook.
Where is the certificate holder required to list the name and title of each person authorized to exercise operational control for a particular flight? Operatioanal Specifications Attached to the load manifest Certificate holder's manual.
Who is directly responsible for determining the status of each mechanical irregularity previouly entered in the aircraft maintenance log? Aircraft dispatcher Line maintenance supervisor The next pilot in command.
Where must a certificate holder keep copies of complete load manifest and for what period of time? 1 month at its principal operations base, or at a location approved by the administrator. 30 days at its principal operations base, or another locations used by it and approved by the administrator 30 days, at the flight's destination.
Which is NOT a required item on the load manifest? List of passenger names and the weight of each Aircraft registration number of flight number Identification of crewmember and their crew position.
Who is responsible for the preparation of a required load manifest? PIC or the Dispatcher Company official designating by the Administrator The certificate holder.
An aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign country, by a 14 CFR part 135 operator must comply with the International Civil Organizations (ICAO), Annex 3, Rules of the Air. regulations of the foreign country rules of the U.S State Departmen and the foreigh country.
Who is resposible for keeping copies of the certificate holder's manual up to date with approved changes or additions? Each of the certificate holder's employees who are furnished a manual An employee designared by the certificate holder A representative of the certificate holder approved by the Administrator.
What document contains procedures that explain how the required return-to-service conditions have been met? Maintenance manual Pilot's handbook Certificate holder's manual.
Which person, other than the second in command, may the pilot in command permit tomanipulate the flight control s? A member of the national Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot certificate appropiate for the aircraft. An authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations A pilot employed by an enginering firm who is authorized by the certificate holder to conduct flight test.
Procedures for kkeping copies of an aircraft maintenance log in the aircarft and avaluable to appropiate personnel shall be set forth in the certificate holder's manual the maintenance procedures handbook the operations Specifications.
Which is a pilot requirement for oxigen? Each pilot of a pressurized aircraft at FL 180 and above shall have an approved quick-donning type oxigen mask. On pressurized aircraft requiring a flightcrew of two pilots, both shall continously wear oxigen mask whenever the cabin pressure altitude axceeds 12.000 feet MSL On unpressurized aircraft, flying above 12.000 feet MSL, pilot shall use oxigen continously.
Which requirement appies when oxigen is stored in liquid form? Smoking is not permited within 50 feet of stored liquid oxigen. Liquefied oxigen is a hazardous material and must be kept in an isolated storage facility The equipment used to store liquid oxigen must be covered in the certificate holder's approved maintenance program.
Which is a condition that must be met when a person is administered medical oxigen in flight? The distance between a person using medical oxigen and any electrical unit must not be less A person using oxigen equipment must be seaten to avoid restricting access to, or use of, any required exit. A person being administered oxigen must be monitored by equipment that displaya and records pulse and respirations.
Before each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carring passenger shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the Location of normal and emergency exits, oxigen mask, and life preservers. use of safety belts, location and operation of fire extinguishers, and smoking use of seatbelt, smoking, and location and use of survival equipment.
Before takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the normal and emergency use of oxygen. if the flight involves operation above 12.000 feet MSL regardless of the altitude at which the flight will operate. if the flight involves operations at or above 12.000 feet MSL for more than 30 minutes.
The oral before flight briefing required on passenger-carrying aircraft shall be supplement by an actual denomination of emergency exit door operation by a crewmember. presented by the pilot in command or another flight crewmember, as a crewmember demostrates the operation of the emergency equipment. conducted by a crewmember or the pilot in command and supplemented by printed cards for the use of each passenger.
Which is a required regarding the carriage and operation od oxigen equipment for medical use by passengers? No person may smoke within 10 feet of oxigen storage and dispensing equipment. When oxigen equipment is used for the medical treatment os a patient, the rules pertaining to emergency exit access are waived. No person may connect oxigen bottles or any other ancillary equipment until all passengers are aboard the aircraft and seated.
If a certificate holder deviates from the provisions of regulations which pertain to medical use of oxigen by passenger, a complete report of the incident shall be sent to the FAA within 7 working days 10 working days 10 days of the deviation.
Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment? It is package or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure of the aircraft. Cargocarried in passenger seat must be foward of all passenger.
Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment? It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants. All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure of the aircraft. Cargo carried in passenger seat must be foward of all passengers.
Who may be allowed to carry a deadly weapon on board an aircraft operated under FAR Part 135? Official bodyguards attached to foreing legations Crewmembers and/ or others authorized by the certificate holder. Employees of a municipally or a state, or of the United States.
Which is a condition that must be met by a computer ais carrier certificate holder to have an aircraft approved for operation with an autopilot system and no second in command? The passenger seating configuration is 10 or more, including any pilot seat. The autoilot system is capable of operating the controls to maintain flight and to maneuver the aircraft about the three axes. The operations is restricted to VFR or VFR over the top.
An autopilot may not be used in place of a second in command in any aircraft being operated in commuter air carrier service having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot's seat, of 10 seat or more. having a total seating capcity of 10 or more seats and being operated in commuter air service.
The altitude loss for a particular malfuntioning autopilot with an approach coupler is 60 feet. If the reported weather is below basic VFR minimum and an ILS approach using the appoach coupler is to be used, what minimum altitude may be used? 50 feet AGL 55 feet AGL 60 feet AGL.
Which person may be carried aboard an aircraft without complying with the pasenger-carryieng requirements of FAR Part 135? An individual who is neccesary for the safe handling of hazardous material on the aircraft A representative of the Adminstrator, traveling to attend a meeting A member of the united Sates diplomatic corps on an official courrier mission.
In a cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded so that it does not obstruct the aisle between the crew and cargo compartments. in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all occupants in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is avaluable to all crewmembers, if an emergency occurs.
Which is a requirement governing the carriage of cargo, on a scheduled passenger flight? Cargo not stowed in an approved bin must be secured by a safety belt or approved tiedown device. Cargo must be carried in an approved rack, bin, or compartment. All cargo carried in the passenger compartment must be package and stowed ahead of the foremost seated passenger.
Which is a requirement governing the carriege of carry-on-baggage? All carry-on baggage must be retrained so that its movements is prevented during air turbulence. carry on baggage must be stowed under the seat in front of the owner. Pieces of carry-on baggage weiting more that 10 pounds must be carried in an approved eack or bin.
Which is a requirement governing the carriage of carry-on baggage? All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during air turbulence. Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the seat in fron of the owner. pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in an approved rack or bin.
If carry-on baggage or cargo is carried in the passenger compartment, it must be stowed ahead of the foremost seated pasengers and secured by approved means. placed in an approved rack, bin, or compartment installed in the aircraft. so located that it does not obstruct the acces to, or the use of, any required emergency or regular exit.
The load manifest must be prepared prior to each takeoff for any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 10 seat or more. any arcraft with more than one engine all helicopters and large aircraft operated by a commuter air carrier.
What is the minimum passenger seating configuration that requires a second in command? 15 seats 12 seats 10 seats.
During wich time period must a required voice recorder of a pasenger-carrying airplane be continuously operated? From the beginning of taxi to the end of the landing roll From engine start at departure airport to engine shutdown at landing airport From the use of the checklist before the flight to completionof the final check at the end of the flight.
Information recorded during normal operations by a required cockpit voice recorder must be erased or obliterated, except for the last 30 munites. may be erased or obliterated, only once each flight may be erased or obliterated, except the last 30 minutes.
The weight and CG of an aircraft used in air taxi services must have been calculated from those values established by actual weighing of the aircraft within what period of time? Multiengine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months Multi engine and single- engine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months Multiengine aircraft, last 36 calendar month; single-engine, last 24 calendar months.
To operate an aircraft with the certain equipment inoperative under the provisions of a minimum equipment list, what document authorizing it must be issued to the certificate holder? Letter of Authorization from the Regional Airworthness Office authorizing such an operation. Operations specifications issue by the FAA distric office having certification responsibility. Letter of Authorization issue by the FAA distric having certifications responsability.
At altitudes above 10.000 feet throught 12.000 feet MSL, each pilot of an unpressurized airplane must use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that is of a duration of more than 20 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes.
A pilot may make an IFR departure from an airport that does not have an approved standard instrument approach procedure if. There is a departure alternative within 60 minutes and the weather is above landing minimums The administrator has issue Operations Specifications to the certificate holder approving the procedures. The departure airport is within 30 munites flying time of another airport that has an approved standard isntruments approach procedure.
When a crash ax is required equipment on an aircraft, where should it be located? In the flight crew compartment At a location inaccessible to the passengers during normal operations At a location accessible to both the crew and passengers during normal operations.
How many, if any, approaved first aid are required on an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration od 20 seats and passenger load of 14. None One Two.
An aircraft has a passenger seating configuration of 19 seats, excluding any pilot seats. How many, if any, approved first aid kits are required? One Two None.
Airborne weather radar equipment must be installed in large trasnport category aircraft, in the conteminous 48 United States. that are engaged in pasenger-carrying operations that are engaged in either cargo or passenger-carring operations and be fully operational, although weather forecast indicate no hazardous conditions.
In which aircraft, or under what conditions, is airborne thuderstorm detection equipment required? Large multiengine turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configurations of 19 seats or more being operated by a commuter air carrier. Any aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 19seat or more that is engages in passenger-carrying operations under IFR or at night. Small aircraft having apassenger seating configuration of 10 seats or mose, excluding any pilot seat, that are engaged in passenger-carrying operations.
Assuming the required cailing exist, an alternate for the destination airport is not required if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the forecast visibility is at least. 5 miles, or 3 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instruments approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater. 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument approach procedure to be used, which ever in gratter. 3 NM, or 2 NM more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the approach procedure to be used, which ever in gratter.
A pilot may not designate an airport as an alternate unless the weather reports, or forecasts, or any combination of them indicate that it will be at or above alternate airport landing minimum at the time of departure estimated time of arrival, plus or minus 1 hour estimated time of arrival.
Atakeoff may noy be made from an airport that is below the authorized IFR landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport with the required IFR landing minimums within 60 munites flying time, at nomal cruising speed in still air. the departure airport is forecast to have the required IFR landing minimums within 1 hour there is an alternate airport with the required IFR landing minimums within 60 minutes flying time, at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inperative.
A pilot may not begin an IFR operations unless the next airport of intended landing in forecast to be at or above authorized IFR landing minimum at the estimated time of arrival +-1hour the estimated time of arrival the estimated time of arrival, +- 30 minutes.
What are the empty weight and balance currency requirements for aircraft used air taxi service? The empty weight and CG of multiengine and single engine aircraft must have been calculated from ana ctual weighting within the previous 36 calendar months The empty weight and CG must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 24 calendar months unless the original airworthiness certificate was issue within the previous 36 calendar months. The empty weight and CG of multiengine aircraft must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 36 calendar months.
Which contidions must be meet to conduct IFR operations from an airport that is not at the location where weather observations are made? An "Authorization letter" permiting the procedure must be issue by the FAA distric office charged with the overall inspection of the certificate holder. A"letter of Waiver" authorizing the preocedure must ne issue by the administrator, after an investigation by the U.S. National weather services and the FSDO with fing the standard of safety to be satisfactory The administrator must issue Operations Specifications that the procedure.
When is a pilot not required to keep the shoulder harness fastened during takeoff and landing while at a pilot station? When operating an aircaft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or less. When the pilot cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened When serving as pilot in command or secon in command of an aircraft having a total seating capacity of eight seat or less.
Which group of aircraft must have a shoulder harness installed at each flight crewmember station? Aircraft having passenger seating configurations, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. All pasenger-carrying aircraft operating under FAR Part 135, having a seating configuration for 10 persons. Large aircraft being operated in commuter air service, having a passenger seating configuration of 9, excluding any pilot seat.
Which is a requirement for life preserves during extended overwater opetarions? Each life preserver must be equipped with a dye marker an approved survivor locator light one flashlight having at least two size "D" cells or equivalent.
In addition to fully-equipped liferafts and life preservers, what emergency equipment must be provide ruring extended overwater operations? One water resistand, self-buoyant, survival-type emergency radio trasnmitter for each liferaft. Each aircraft must have at least on liferaft, equipment with a survival-type emergency for each liferaft. One pyrotechnic signaling device for each aircraft.
Which is one required condition for a pilot to take off under IFR with less-than-standar takeoff minimum at an airport where a straight-in instrument approach procedure is authorized and there in an approved weather reporting source? The pilot must have at least 100 hours as pilot in command in the type airplane to be flown. The certificate holder has been approved for such operation and the visibility at the time of tafeoff must be at least RVR 16. Wind direction and velocity must be such that a straught-in approach can be made to the runway served by the procedure.
After passing the final approach fix on a VOR approach, a weather report is received indicating the visibility is below prescribed minimum. In this situation, the pilot may continue the approach and land, if at the MDA, the actual weather condition are at least equal to the minimum prescribed for the procedure. may continue the approach and land regardless of the visibility observe at the MDA, if prior to beginning the approach, the visibility was reported at or above minimums. should leveloff and continued to fly the approach to the MAP, and execute the missed approach.
An alternate for a destination airport (circling not authorized) is not required if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the required visibility exists, and the forecast ceiling is at least 1.500 feet above the lowest published minimum, or 2.000 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is higher. 1.500 feet above the lowest MDA or 2.000 feet above the runway touchdown zone elevation, whichever is higher. 1.000 feet above the lowest published minimum, or 1.500 feet above the airport elevation, wichever is higher.
If the weather forecast require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the helicopter must carry enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, then to the alternate, and fly thereafter for a minimum of 45 munites at normal holding speed. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed and then complete an approach and landing 30 minutes at normal cruise speed.
At a military airport, a pilot may not take off under IFR unless the reported weather conditions indicate that the visibility is at least 1 mile ceiling is at least 500 feet the visibility is 1 mile or more airport has landing munimums.
A pilot mat not take of under IFR at a foreing airport unless the visibility is 1/2 mile or more above landing minimums 1 mile or more and the ceiling is 500 feet or more. at least 1 mile.
An instrument approach procedure to an airport may not be initiated unless the latest weather report issued by an authorized weather reporting facily indicates that weather conditions are at or above the circling minimum for the runway the pilot intends to use. area at or above the authorized IFR landing minimums for that procedure exceed the straight-in minimums for all nonprecision approaches.
If a certificate holder makes arragements for another person to perform arcraft mantenance, that maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the certificate holder's manual and FAR Parts 43, 91, and 135. provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate holder and approved by the supervising FAA distric office. provisions and standards as aoutlined in the certificate holder's manual.
To serve as pilot in command in an IFR operation, a person must have passed a line check consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, with at least three instrument approaches at representative airports, within the past 12 calendar months, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. within the past 12 months, wich include a portion of a civil airway and one instrument approach at one representative airport, in one of the types of aircraft wich that pilot is to fly. since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, wich included at least one flight over a civil airway, or approved off-airway route, or any portion of either, in one type of aircraft wich that pilot is to fly.
What are the nimimum requirements for the line check required of each pilot in command authorized for IFR air taxi operations? The line check shall be given over ( Please read the Explanation) one route segment in each type of airplane the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landings at one or more representative airports. a civil airway or an approved off-airway route, or a portion of either ofthem, in one type of airplane the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landing at one or more representative airport. a civil airway or an approved off-airway route in each make and model airplane the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landing at one or more representative airports.
No certificate holder may use a person as pilot in command unless that person has passed a line check. since the beginning of the 12th month before serving as pilot in command. since the beginning of the 6th month before serving as pilot in command within the past 6 months.
A person may act pilot in command of both tupe A and type B aircraft unfer IFR, if an instrument proficiency check has been passed in either type A or B since the beginning of the 12th month before time to serve. type A since the biggining of the 12th month, and in type B since the beggining of the 6 th month before timeto serve. type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and in type B since the beginning of the 24th month before time to serve.
A pilot in command is authorized to use an autopilot system in place of a second in command. During the instrument proeficiency check, that person is required to demostrate (without a second in command) the ability to comply with complex ATC instructions with, but no without, the autopilot. property conduct air-ground communications with, but not without, the autopilot. properly conduct instrument operations competently both with, and without, the autopilot.
A person may not serve as pilot in command in an IFR operation unless that person has passed an aircraft competency, an instrument proeficiency, and auto-pilot check within the previous 6 calendar months prior to the date to serve. instrument proeficiency check in the airplane in which to serve, or in an approved aircraft simulator, withinthe previous 12 calendar months instrument proeficiency check under actual or simulated IFR conditions, since the beginningof the 6th calendar month prior to the date to serve.
A person may not serve as pilot in command in an IFR operation unless that person has passed an aircraft competency, an instruments proeficiency, and auto -pilot check within the previous 6 calendar months prior to the date to serve. instrument proeficiency check in the airplane in wich to serve, or un an approved aircraft simulator, within the previous 12 calendar months. instruments proeficiency check under actual or simulated IFR conditions, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month prior to the date to serve.
A pilot in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a second in command, may take the autopilot check. concurrently with the instrument proeficiency check, but at 12th month intervals in ant aircraft appropriately equipped, providing the check is taken at 6 month intervals. concurrently with the competency check, providing the check is taken at 12 month intervals.
Pilot flight time limitations under FAR Part 135 are based on the flight time accumulated in any commercial flying. solely on flight time accumulated in air taxi operations solely on flight time accumulated during commercial flying, in the last 30 days and/or 12 month period.
No person may serve, as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a commercial pilot certificate with the appropiated category, class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under IFR, that person must have accomplished wihin the las 6 months, the recent instrument requirements of using the navigations systems for interception and tracking of courses, y instrument low approaches and holding. using the navigation system to intercept and track 3 inbound/3 outbound courses, 6 holding patterns and 6 instrument approaches. holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6 instrument approaches.
Whit regard to flight crewmember duties, which operations are considered to be in the "critical phase of flight" All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff,landing,and all other operations conducted below 10.000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. All ground operations involving taxi,axi, takeoff,landing,and all other operations conducted below 10.000 feet MSL, excluding cruise flight.
Who is responsible for submitting a Mechanical Reliability Report? Each certificate holder. Director of maintenance at the facility that discover the reportable condition. Chief inspector at the facility where the condition is found.
Other than in cuise flight, below what altitude are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited? 12.000 feet 10.000 feet 8.000 feet.
Which document would constitute an approved change to the type design without requiring a recertification? An approved Minimum Equipment List The Operations Specifications as aproved by the Administrator. A special flight permit.
No person may operate an aircraft under 14 CFR part 135, carrying passenger under VFR at night, unless each flight crewmembers has a flashlight having at least two size "D" batteries or the equivalent it is equipped with a flashlight having at least two size "D" cell or the equivalent each crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size"D" cells and a apare bulb.
For operations during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise (as published in the air almanac), no certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers unless that person has made three takeoff and three landing, which the preceding 90 days. as the sole manipilator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and, if type rating is required, of the same type in wich that person in to serve. as pilot in command of an aircraft of an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type in wich that person is to serve as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same type in wich that person is to serve.
An employee who performs safety-sensitive functions, for a certificate holder, who has actual knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which he or she performed a safety-sensitive funtion at or near the time of the accident shall not use alcohol. until 4 hours after the accident within 8 hours of the accident until given a release by NTSB or FAA.
What is the maximum number of hours that a pilot may fly un 7 consecuive days as a pilot in commercial flying and as a pilot for a commuteer air carrier? 32 hourd 34 hours 35 hours.
What is the maximum number of hours that a commuter air carrier may schedule a flight crewmember to fly in schedule operations and other commercial flying in any calendar month? 100 110 120.
The pilot in command may deviate from 14 CFR Part 135 during an emergency involving the safety of persons of persons or property only after ATC is notified of the emergency and the extend of deviation required. to the extend required to meet that emergency if required to, by the emergency cockpit checklist.
The training required for flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on an aircraft is upgrade training transition training initial training.
The training required for crewmembers who have been quelified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft is difference training transition training upgrade training.
What is one of the requirement that must be met by a pilot in command to re-establish recency of experience? At least one full stop landing must be made from a cicling approach Three takeoffs and landing must be made as the sole manipulator of the controls, in the type, if a type rating is required, if not in the same category and class aircraft that the person is to serve. At least one nonprecision approach must be made to the lowest minimum authorized for the certificate holder.
Each aircraft being operated in extended overwater operations must have a life preserver for each aircraft occupant seat on the aircraft passenger seat, plus 10 percent.
Life preservers required for extended overwater operations are stored within easy reach of each passenger under each occupant seat within easy access of each seated occupant.
An airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, flying in extended overwater operations must carry enought approved liferaft of a rated capacity nd buoyancy to accomodate the occupants of the aircraft. Each liferaft must be equipped with one approved pytothechnic signaling device colored smoke flares and a signl mirror one fishing kit for each person, the raft is rated to carry.
No person may take off an aircraft under IFR from an airport that has takeoff weather minimums but that is below landing minimum unless there is an alternate airport within 1 hour at normal indicated airspeed of the departure airport 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air of the departure airport 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine one engine operating.
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 113 and 114) When must the pilots use oxigen, under FAR Part 135, on this flight from 0O2 to LAX? Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10.000 feet until descending below 10.000 feet. 30 minutes after level off until descending below 10.000 feet All the time they are above 10.000 feet MSL.
(Refet to appendix 2, figures 113 and 114) What are the passenger oxigen requirements, under FAR Part, on this flight from 0O2 to LAX? Starting 30 minutes after level off, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants must be suplied oxigen until descending below 10.000 feet. When above 10.000 through 15.000 feet, oxigen must be supplied to at least 10 percent of the aircraft occupants. Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10.000 feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants except the pilots, must be supplied oxigen until descending elow 10.000 feet.
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 162, 163,164,165 and 167) When are the pilot required to use oxigen on this flight from RYN to AEG? Upon climbing through 12.000 feet on ascent, until passing trough 12.000 feet on descent. Starting 30 minutes after level off until descending below 10.000 feet. Starting 30 munutes after climbing through 10.000 feet until desceding below 10.000 feet.
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 162,163,164,165 and 167) What are the passenger oxigen requirements on this flight from Tucson/Ryan to Albuquerque/Double Eagle II? Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10.000 feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants must be supplied oxigen until descending below 10.000 feet Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10.000 feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, except pilot, must be supplied oxigent oxigen until descending below 10.000 feet. When above 10.000 feet through 15.000 feet, oxigen must be supplied to at least 10 percent of thae aircraft occupans, including the pilots.
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 184, 186, 187, 188, and 188A) When are the pilots required to use oxigen on this FAR Part 135 flight from LAS to PVU? (Consider the climb or descent rates to be 500 feet per minute from 10.000' to 15.000' with no intermediate level offs) Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10.000 feet until descending below 10.000 feet. upon climbing through 12.000 feet on ascent, until passing through 12.000 feet on descent. Starting 30 minutes after takeoff until descending below 10.000 feet.
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 184, 186, 187, 188, and 188A) What are the passenger oxigen requirements on this FAR Part 135 flight from Las Vegas to provo? When above 10.000 feet through 15.000, oxigen must be supplied to at least 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, including the pilot. Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10.000 feet. 10 percent of the aircraft occupants until reaching cruise at 15.000 feet then all occupants must be supplied oxigen until descending below 15.000 feet, then 10 percent down to 10.000 feet. Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10.000 feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, except pilots, must be supplied oxigen until descending below 10.000 feet.
(Refer to appendix2, figures 197, and 199) When are the pilots required to use oxigen on this flight from EGE to SLC? Starting 30 minutes after level of until descending below 10.000 feet. Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10.000 feet until descending below 10.000 feet. Upon climbing through 12.000 feet on ascent, until passing through 12.000 feet on descent.
(refer to appendix 2, figures 197, and 199) What are the passenger oxigen requirements on this flight from Eagle Country Regional (EGE) to Salt Lake City Int? Starting 30 munites after climbing through 10.000 feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants must be supplied oxigen until descending below 10.000 feet. Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10.000 feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, except pilots must be supplied oxigen until descending below 10.000 feet. When above 10.000 feet through 15.000 feet, oxigen must be suplied to at least 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, incluiding the pilots.
A crewmenber who has served as second in command on a particular aircarft type (e.g. BE-1900), may serve as pilot in command upon completing which training program? upgrade training trasnsition training initial training.
A person whose deties included the handling or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized must have satisfactory completed, an approved training program established by the certificate holder, within the previous 6 calendar months 12 calendar months 24 calendar months.
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 106 and 107) What is the DH for the ILS RWY 25L at LAX if the pilot has competed the initial Category II certification within the preceding 6 month, but has flown no CAT II approaches? 201 feet 251 feet 301 feet.
What is meant by the term 'sterile cockpit concept'? Maintaining cockpit silence other than reading the checklist during taxi, takeoff, landing, approach birefing, and operations below 10.000 feet other than cruise. Not engaging in any activity during a critical phase of flight that could interfere with the required duties of any crewmember for the safe operation of the aircraft. A security policy requiring cockpit doors to be locked and pasengers seated for the first and las 30 minutes of the flight.
No person may carry more than__________ of hazardous material in a passenger carrying aircraft (disregarding non-flammable gas) 25 pount net 55 pounds net 25 kg gross.
When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for an aircraft? 1SM 1 1/2 SM 300 feet and 1 SM.
The operator of any civil aircraft shall notify the NTSB when a turbine engine wheel or gear fails catostrophically an internal turbine component fails resulting in an engine shutdown an internal turbine engine component escapes thru the cowling.
The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 4500. What minimum ground visivility may be substituted for the RVR value? 5/8 SM 3/4 Sm 7/8 Sm.
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