M2 2022

According with SAE ARP4754, which general principle shall be verified in order to allow for a DAL downgrading of two items whose failures contribute to the same failure condition: They shall be dissimilar and independent. It is not allowed to downgrade the DAL requirement. One shall be developed DAL A and the other down to DAL C or both shall be developed DAL B. Their failure rate must be such that ensures compliance with the probability objective of the failure condition.

A Functional Hazard Assessment is: A systematic analysis that identifies individual common mode failures or external events that has to be precluded as common cause events for Catastrophic Failure Conditions. A systematic, bottom-up method of identifying the failure modes of a system, item, or function and determining the effects on the respective and next higher level. A systematic examination of proposed system architecture(s) to determine how it can meet the safety requirements and how failures can cause the identified failure conditions. A systematic, comprehensive examination of a/c and system functions to identify and classify Failure Conditions of functions according to their severity. It describes all FCs identified in terms of Safety repercussions, detection means, crew action, a/c condition after crew action.

The part 25 airworthiness standards (JAR/CS & FAR) are based on and incorporate the objective and principles of the fail-safe design concept. The fail-safe design concept uses, among others, the following design principles: Isolation and/or segregation of systems, components and elements so that the failure of one does not cause the failure of another. Use of equipment which never fails. Use of equipment whose failure probability is extremely improbable. Redundancy or back-up systems to enable continued function. Failure warning or indication to provide detection.

Related to the Certification Tests: ETSO equipment does not require Certification Tests. The tests must be witnessed by the airworthiness authority. It is required a Declaration of Conformity stating that the test specimen is representative of the design to be certified for the test purpose. If the company is DOA, the authority has not the right to witness the tests.

Related with the CAE of INTA. To obtain a CAE it is required an Statement of Airworthiness signed by the industry stating that the aircraft is safe to perform the intended flights. Is subject to DGAM approval. If the company is ROD, it can have the privilege to issue the CAE.

The FMEA/FMES: Has to be prepared by the equipment supplier. Is used as input for the fault tree analysis, as it provides the probability of occurrence of the equipment failure modes. Lists all the aircraft failure conditions in which the equipment participates. Is only performed for simple hardware components, such as valves or relays, but not for more complex elements, like computers.

For a turboprop aircraft, which methods are appropriate to analyze the safety repercussions of powerplant failures resulting elements or debris being released, with potential risk of impacting the aircraft: Propeller Blade Release. It is not necessary to analyze this condition, as it is mandatory to include shieldings to avoid damage to the aircraft as result of powerplant (engine and propeller) failures. A Functional Hazard Assessment in which the "engine explosion" failure condition is included. Uncontained Engine Rotor Failure.

Related to the certification process: The system specialists of the industry have not an important participation in it. It is managed and directed mainly by the authority. If the company is DOA, it is not needed. All the new and modified equipment part of the Type Design must be adequately qualified.

The following material provide guidelines on how to develop a piece of equipment or function to satisfy a given DAL: AMC 25.1309. DO-178B. DO-254 for complex electronic hardware. DO-254 for software.

CONOPs can be used as a tool to (choose the right one): Validating the test means against the customer verification plan. Verifying requirements of the customer against the architecture. Validating the system against user needs. Checking integrity of your L2 requirements against the L1 needs.

Series Production Test Process Objectives are: Get the Type Certificate. Get the Customer Type Concept approval. Check out the functioning of the overall system, as defined and built by design. Get the Airworthiness Certificate.

During the project life time, taking decisions is needed many times. Which one(s) of the following statements is(are) true: Involve all the levels needed of the "Vee" to avoid repeating the same decision in the future. A decision taken by an expert is always the right one. Good decisions can never result in a bad solution. Kepner Tregoe Analysis (KTA) is used in trade-offs to justify the selection of candidates.

When are logical architectures defined?. At each level of system design. Only if SysML notation is used. When sw development starts. Always after physical architectures.

Requirement Validation implies to check: Requirements are transmitted to all stakeholders. Requirements are not exceeding an specified quantity. Requirements are correctly documented and stored. Requirements are complete and consistent, and reflect user needs.

When Integration strategy shall be defined?. When defining the CONOPS. At the start of testing. On the left side of the "Vee" for every level of functional analysis / architectural design. At the bottom of the V (implementation).

Which of the following activities is(are) repeated at each level of functional analysis / architectural design?. Perform architectural trade-offs. Allocate functions and interfaces to the elements of the architecture. Develop the System Engineering Plan. Establish SW requirements.

Any aircraft modification after release to the Operator shall be documented: Only in case of minor modifications. Depending of the Airworthiness Authority. Depending of the Type Certificate holder in agreement with EASA/FAA. There is no need to be documented if the aircraft has been certified by EASA/FAA. Always with a Service Bulletin and/or a Vendor Service Bulletin. Only in case of major modifications.

Which processes belong to the technical processes group in the INCOSE Handbook?. Integration. Transition. Requirements analysis. Development.

Which of the following are attributes of good requirements?. Implementation specific - includes "how to" aspects of design. Consistent - one requirement shall not conflict with another. Clear - there shall be only one semantic interpretation. Verifiable - it shall be possible to very that the solution meets the requirement.

Which is the correct order of Phases in Project life cycle?. Closing – Concept – Definition – Planning – Execution. Planning – Concept – Definition – Execution – Closing. Concept – Definition – Planning – Execution – Closing. Definition – Concept – Planning – Execution – Closing.

Which if the following is a valid statement regarding work packages. The total sum of WP represents all the work and products necessary for the project. Work packages are each WBS element. It is not necessary that the WP are understood by stakeholders. WP include just the major deliverables and not the minor ones.

Which of the following is not part of the definition of a project?. Constraints. Repetitive activities. A well-defined objective. Operations.

Particularities of the military market projects: A significant level of customization is still required for each end user. Although the operating cost is a very important parameter the fundamental aspect is the ability to achieve the mission. The Customer base is not standard and the evaluation criteria may have significant variation among them. The operation and certification rules are well established, standardized and worldwide recognized.

There are three projects that are possible to be executed in your company: Project A: Payback period = 6 years & NPV = $ 3,000,000 Project B: Payback period = 4 years & NPV = $ 2,000,000 Project C: Payback period = 2 years & NPV = $ 1,000,000 Based on Net Present Value (NPV) criterion, which project should be selected?. None of them, they all have equal value. Project C. Project B. Project A.

Risk Management. What is a Risk?. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on at least one project objective (time, cost, scope or quality). An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on project quality. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on project time. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on at least on project cost and scope.

Preliminary Design Review (PDR). Outcomes of this review are: To make available to the design organization all the installation drawings of equipment including interface data in order to issue a mature version of the EDR and Principle Diagrams documents. To freeze the systems architectures. Validate the aircraft general arrangement and the location of the main components is part of future reviews. Freeze the design layouts is not required or essential.

Chief Engineer responsibilities: Manages engineering and technical activities. Manages all stakeholders in the project with technical and non-technical activities. Responsible for cost, schedule, and risk related decisions. Approves concepts and architectures proposed by system architects.

Regarding the Configuration Management Functions, indicate which of the following statements are true. Product operational information is derived from the product definition information. Purposes of Configuration Verification and Audit are to ensure that the product design validates the integrity of the product configuration information and to verify the consistency between a product and its configuration. The form and format of the planning documentation are critical for the Configuration Management process achievements. The establishment of uniform access privileges for users is essential for data protection and dissemination.

In relation to Data for Manufacturing, indicate which of the following statements are true. A welded element is a detail part as it is not possible to dismount. An installation drawing represents the instructions to install a set of parts, assemblies, equipment, standards, etc. The Dash Number is part of the Part Number and needs to evolve when the part changes physically. The Engineering Change Note, or Document Change Note, describes in detail the changes and explains the reasons to do them.

In the classic overview Product Structure: Relationships are managed (established) with the change or modification number. Configuration Item (CI) corresponds to a management point / node in the Product Structure. It is not a real part or subassembly. If the Product evolves, the Product Structure must evolve too. PS consists in various trees build-up by different organizations in accordance with their necessities.

The Declaration of Design and Performance document: Contains the Statement of Compliance or the Deviation List with respect to the Specification. Is not required to the equipment supplier in the chapter Supplier Data Requirement List (SDRL) of the Equipment Specification since it is always mandatory. Cannot be substituted by other official certification documents (TSO, FAR33, etc.). Is to be signed by the Purchaser as evidence of acceptation of Equipment Supplier Documentation.

Indicate the true sentence(s): The system EDR is equivalent to the SIRD plus the system equipment EIRD's. An Equipment is always represented in the architecture scheme of the system. A Component is always represented in the architecture scheme of the system. A detail part with a heat treatment is, in fact, an assembly.

When Standard Change Process is applied: The impact assessments should be performed during Creation phase. The effectivity information is fully managed through the change process. One(Several) Work Authorization(s) is(are) issued by the change leader to trigger the ECN implementation at shop floor / in service level on the MSN. CCB1 cannot reject an Enterprise Change Request.

Tick the right statement(s): The planning and supporting processes run sequentially and the development process is continued throughout the project. The planning and development processes run sequentially and the supporting process is continued throughout the project. None of the listed options is correct. The supporting and development processes run sequentially and the process is continued throughout the project.

What is the main way to drive Reviews?. Checklists. Testing. Inspections. Analysis.

Mark the incorrect statement. A C prograrm can have more than one .c file and more than one .h file. A header file may contain variable and constant definitions. In C, a source file has extension .c and header files .h. The main function can be in both a .c file and a h file at the same time.

Related to the Certification Context for Airborne Software, mark the correct statements between the following: DO-254 specifically covers the Complex Hardware aspects related to certification. ARP4754 first introduces the concept of Development Assurance as a mean of compliance with the certification requirements. ARP4761 specifically deals with the Safety Assessment process related to the Software items. DO-178B specifically covers the Software aspects related to certification.

What is a Problem Report (PR)?. A PR is an invalid ICD signal. A PR is a wrong test case definition. A PR is a software bug. A PR is a mean to identify and record defects in the functional requirements, ICD and software.

Mark disadvantages of federated architectures: Problems with spare parts logistic. Difficult to implement. Increased weight and power consumption. Not fault-tolerant.

Related to the DO-178B Software Planning Process, mark the correct statement(s): The verification, mainly through reviews, of the Software Development Plan (SDP), the Software Verification Plan (SVP), the Software Configuration Management Plan (SCMP) and the Software Quality Assurance Plan (SQAP) is not specifically required by the DO-178B. The main objective of the Plan for Software Aspects of Certification (PSAC) is to communicate the Software Project Schedule to the Certification Authority. The proposed means of compliance of every DO-178B objective have to be declared in the Plan for Software Aspect of Certification (PSAC). The Software Requirements Standard/s, the Software Design Standard/s and the Software Coding Standard/s shall be declared within the Software Development Plan (SDP) and shall be approved by the Certification Authority.

What is/are the leading paradigm/s of federated architectures: Limit weight of systems. Partitioned systems are mandatory. One function, one system. Maximize fault-tolerance.

Which of these solutions is the worst in terms of shielding protection of a wire that ends in and equipment: The shield is terminated with a 5 cm long pigtail to the equipment connector, being then grounded externally trough the equipment conductive box. The shield is terminated with a 10 cm long pigtail to a local ground in the a/c structure. The shield is terminated using a 360 degree backshell, without using any pigtail, being then grounded externally through the equipment conductive box. The shield is terminated in a pin of the equipment connector, being then grounded internally to the equipment ground reference through a wire.

When an equipment is installed in a protected zone (e.g a closed avionics bay), and you specify the required protection levels regarding HIRF Conducted threat for its wiring, you have to ask for: Exposed zone levels. Protected zone levels. Semi protected zone levels. Any of the other levels (a., b., c.). It depends on where the other equipment that interfaces with your equipment are located, and therefore where the wiring that connect them is routed. It must be the same zone as requested for the equipment location regarding HIRF radiated levels.

Design Margin of Electromagnetic Protection is. The difference between the demonstrated level of upset and worst case environment. A balance between the demonstrated level of upset and worst case environment. The difference between the targeted design level and worst case environment. The difference between the damage level and worst case environment.

The massive use of composite materials (CFC) in new aircrafts: Improves the protection that the aircraft structure provides to the systems installed inside. Increases the probability that the aircraft receives a lightning strike. Represents an improvement of the electrical properties of the aircraft structure. Increases the local damage resulting from a lightning strike with regards to an equivalent metallic structure.

If you follow recommendations of FAA AC20.136B for certifying the protection of electric/electronic systems against the indirect effects of lightning you can use equipment qualification without specific aircraft-level test or analyses (mark the correct option(s)): Aircraft test or analysis activities are mandatory in any case. For Level B and Level C Systems. For Any System. For Level X Control and Display Systems. For Level A Display Systems.

Regarding EMC Equipment Testing, indicate which of the following statements is (are) true: Test levels do not depend on equipment location. RF susceptibility (HIRF) test levels depend on equipment criticality. EMC test setup does not need representative installation and interconnection, only adequate interference test levels. Limits in MIL-STD 461 or RTCA DO160 represent the test levels necessary to show the equipment capability to maintain the required performance when exposed to the expected EM environment. All EMI/EMC test levels depend on equipment criticality. Equipment software can have effect on test results.

What is the preferred electrical bonding method taking into account risk of corrosion?. Face to face bonding. Bonding by fasteners. Either face to face bonding or bonding by fasteners, but avoiding bonding jumpers when possible. There is not a preferred method providing that electrical conductivity is ensured.