Mancomunidad 11

What happens if the leading edge of a variable incidence stabilizer is moved downwards?. There will be a stabilizing effect on the aeroplane, if variable incidence stabilizer is moved downwards. There will be a nose up moment on the aeroplane, if variable incidence stabilizer is moved downwards. There will be a nose down moment on the aeroplane, if variable incidence stabilizer is moved downwards.

How do flaps increase the coefficient of lift of a wing?. Flaps increase the coefficient of lift of a wing by decreasing the overall camber of the wing. Flaps increase the coefficient of lift of a wing by increasing drag on the upper surface of the wing. Flaps increase the coefficient of lift of a wing by mechanically lowering a section of the wing.

When do spring tabs provide an aerodynamic assistance to movement of the control surfaces. All aircraft speeds are viable for spring tabs aerodynamic assistance. Low aircraft speeds only, are viable for spring tabs aerodynamic assistance. High aircraft speeds only, are viable for spring tabs aerodynamic assistance.

How does an aerodynamic balance panel work?. An aerodynamic balance panel works on the principle of differential pressure. An aerodynamic balance panel works on the principle of spring pressure. An aerodynamic balance panel works on the principle of a servo tab and spring pressure.

What is a Critical Design Configuration Control Limitations (CDCCLS) procedure?. 'CDCCL' means that a strict adherence to configuration, methods, techniques, and practices as prescribed is required. 'CDCCL' means that no electrical cables or equipment can be installed in the fuel tanks. 'CDCCL' means that no electrically powered tools, including battery sources, can be used during the maintenance procedure.

What statement is true, regarding the fuel tank configuration of multi-engine aeroplanes?. Generally, multi-engine aeroplanes have a separate fuel tank for each engine with transfer facility by using boost pumps. Generally, multi-engine aeroplanes have a single common supply tank. Generally, multi-engine aeroplanes have a separate fuel tank for each engine completely isolated from each other with no transfer option.

What is fitted to each boost pump in multi engine aircraft?. Each boost pump is fitted with a venturi to increase the flow. Each boost pump is fitted with a non-return valve and a pressure switch. Each boost pump is fitted with a pressure balance valve.

At what pressure is the pressure refueling done?. 15 PSI value is the pressure refueling value. 20 PSI value is the pressure refueling value. 50 PSI value is the pressure refueling value.

What are typical warnings, in any normal fuel systems?. Tank level (high and low) only. System components malfunctions and impossible fuel transfer. Tank level (high and low), system components malfunctions, fuel imbalance and impossible fuel transfer.

Tank level (high and low), system components malfunctions, fuel imbalance and impossible fuel transfer. The Jettison pushbuttons (or switches) are most likely to be guarded. The Transfer pushbuttons (or switches) are most likely to be guarded. The Engine master pushbuttons (or switches) are most likely to be guarded.

What condition of the tanks is the zero-Fuel test done in?. A zero-Fuel test is carried out with the tanks in any fill condition. A zero-Fuel test is carried out with the tanks completely full. A zero-Fuel test is carried out with the tanks empty, apart from unusable fuel.

Where is a flame arrestor located?. The ventilation system incorporates a flame arrestor. The engine supply system incorporates a flame arrestor. The fuel refill port incorporates a flame arrestor.

What is the purpose of transferring fuel forward or aft during flight?. To maintain the horizontal stabiliser at zero degrees, or as close to zero degrees, as possible. To maintain the horizontal stabiliser at a positive offset incidence during flight. To maintain the horizontal stabiliser at a negative offset incidence during flight.

How will the centre of gravity of the aeroplane change during flight?. The centre of gravity moves aft as fuel is burned during flight. The centre of gravity moves forward as fuel is burned during flight. The centre of gravity does not move as fuel is burned during flight.

Why is differential pressure sensor used in filters?. To give clogging indication. To measure the flow of hydraulic fluid. To give hydraulic pressure indication.

What types of seals should be used with mineral oil hydraulic systems?. Teflon seals should be used with mineral oil. Synthetic rubber seals should be used with mineral oil. Pure rubber seals should be used with mineral oil.

How is the false clogging indication, caused by high fluid viscosity at low temperature, prevented, in a differential pressure indicator?. It is prevented by the use of a relief valve which prevents fluid from activating the indicator button at low temperatures. It is prevented by the use of a bi-metal spring which inhibits indicator button movement at low temperatures. It is prevented by the use of a bl-metal spring and a check valve which inhibit indicator button movement at low temperatures.

Which statement is true, regarding the gear teeth configuration of an 'internal gear' hydraulic pump?. An 'Internal gear' hydraulic pump is a pump which has gears in which the teeth project outwards on both gears. An 'internal gear' hydraulic pump is a pump which has gears in which the teeth project inwards on both gears. An 'internal gear hydraulic pump is a pump which has gears in which the teeth project outwards on one gear and inwards on the other gear.

How does the pump operate in a hydraulic power pack, as used on many light aircraft?. The pump operates continuously to maintain the optimum hydraulic system pressure. The pump operates only when a service (such as landing gear UP or DOWN) is selected by the pilot. The pump operates whenever the hydraulic system pressure falls below a pre-set value.

What does the nitrogen pressure gauge indicate when the hydraulic pump is switched on, and the hydraulic system pressure reaches 3,000 PSI?. The nitrogen pressure gauge indicates 3,000 PSI. The nitrogen pressure gauge indicates 950 PSI. The nitrogen pressure gauge indicates 3,950 PSI.

For what services is a Ram Air Turbine (RAT) hydraulic pump used?. A Ram Air Turbine (RAT) hydraulic pump is used for nose wheel steering. A Ram Air Turbine (RAT) hydraulic pump is used for landing gear and auto-brake systems. A Ram Air Turbine (RAT) hydraulic pump is used for flying controls if hydraulic power lost.

What is the primary purpose of digitalization of hydraulic systems?. The digitalization of hydraulic system parameters makes possible the parameters display on the EFIS in the flight deck. The digitalization of hydraulic system parameters makes possible the parameters data to be stored on the DFDR. The digitalization of hydraulic system parameters makes possible the hydraulic power management and balance.

Where does hoarfrost most likely to accumulate on wings?. Hoarfrost is more likely to accumulate on wings with bladder type fuel tanks. Hoarfrost is more likely to accumulate on wings with root mounted internal engines. Hoarfrost is more likely to accumulate on wings with integral tanks.

When should a 'hot rod' ice detector be switched on?. A 'hot rod' Ice detector should be switched on at times, both on the ground and in the air. A 'hot rod' ice detector should be switched on at all times when in the air. A 'hot rod' ice detector should be switched on, only when selected by the flight crew.

What does a chemical de-icing system, using porous panels, directly de-ice?. Windshield is directly de-iced with a chemical de-icing system. Wing and stabilizer leading edges are directly de-iced with a chemical de-icing system. Whole of the aeroplane skin is directly de-iced with a chemical de-icing system.

What statement is true, regarding the supply of electricity to electrical de-icing mats?. Electrical de-icing mats are normally supplied continuously with electricity, whereas anti-icing mats are intermittently heated. Electrical de-icing mats are normally supplied intermittently with electricity, whereas anti-icing mats are continuously heated. Electrical de-icing mats are normally supplied continuously with electricity, as are anti-icing mats.

Why are intake anti-ice systems used?. Intake anti-ice systems are used to break away the accumulated ice on the engine intake. Intake anti-ice systems are used to prevent ice accumulation on the engine intake. Intake anti-ice systems are used to delay ice accumulation on the engine Intake.

What component determines the flow rate of anti-icing chemical fluid?. The rotational speed of pump determines the flow rate of anti-icing chemical fluid. A flow control valve determines the flow rate of anti-icing chemical fluid. The flow control tubes determine the flow rate of anti-icing chemical fluid.

What statement is true, regarding the method with which the windscreen wipers on large aircraft are driven?. Windscreen wipers are driven independently, to ensure that in the event of a malfunction of one system, at least one windscreen has clear visibility. Windscreen wipers are driven from the same motor, for simplicity and weight saving. Windscreen wipers are driven by a dual supply system, such as electrical and hydraulic, to ensure a failsafe functionality.

When can windscreen wipers be used, during normal operation of the aircraft?. Windscreen wipers can be used in the air or on the ground providing rain condition prevails. Windscreen wipers should be used only during flight to ensure proper use of air pressure. Windscreen wipers should can be used in the air or on the ground in wet or dry conditions.

Which statement is true regarding chemical rain repellent?. Chemical rain repellent must be used prior to the use of wipers to protect the windshield from damages. Chemical rain repellent must be used only on the wet windshield before the wipers are used to protect the windshield from damages. Chemical rain repellent must be used only in rainy conditions while the aircraft is in motion and should not be discharged on dry windshield.

How is rain repellent fluid forced onto the windscreen when the rain repellent pushbutton is depressed?. An electrically operated pump runs to drive the rain repellent onto the windscreen when the rain repellent pushbutton is depressed. Compressed gas in the rain repellent canister drives the rain repellent onto the windscreen when the rain repellent pushbutton is depressed. Gravity due to a high mounted canister, drives the rain repellent onto the windscreen when the rain repellent pushbutton is depressed.

When is autobrake system automatically disconnected?. When brake pedals are operated. When brake fuse is reset. Autobraking can not be automatically disconnected.

What condition does a red line painted on a tyre and wheel is intended to indicate?. A red line indicates that the tyre is to be replaced. A red line indicates where the inflation valve is located. A red line indicates tyre creep, when misaligned.

What is the function of the selector lock?. To prevent inadvertent retraction of the landing gear when the aircraft is resting on its wheels. To assist with the extention of the landing gear when the aircraft is resting on its wheels. To prevent prevent landing gear operation during heavy winds.

Why is the drag strut in the main landing gear fitted?. The drag strut is fitted to absorb braking and take-off acceleration loads. The drag strut is fitted to absorb cross-wind and side loads on landing. The drag strut is fitted to absorb turning loads while taxiing.

What controls the electrical power supply, for the unlock of the landing gear selector lever?. A switch installed on the shock strut controls the electrical power supply. A selector lock solenoid controls the electrical power supply. The movement of the shock strut controls the electrical power supply.

What is the anti-skid control box used for?. To apply the brakes automatically when armed in the cockpit. To assist the anti-skid control system by monitoring the anti-skid valves. To process the signals of the transducers, to calculate the necessary brake pressure.

What controls the electrical power to the solenoid that locks the landing gear selector lever, when the landing gear is compressed?. Electrical power to the solenoid is controlled by a switch mounted on the shock-absorber strut, once the strut is compressed the switch is open and the solenoid power supply is cut off. Electrical power to the solenoid is controlled by a switch mounted on the shock-absorber strut, once the strut is compressed the switch is closed and the solenoid is power-supplied. Electrical power to the solenoid is controlled by a switch mounted on the landing gear doors, once the doors are opened the switch is open and the solenoid power supply is cut off.

How is brake pressure varied in an anti-skid system?. Brake pressure is released on increasing torque. Brake pressure is released on decreasing torque. Brake pressure is modulated to give the most efficient braking.

Which type of air-ground switch is most difficult to troubleshoot?. The proximity-type of air-ground switch is the most difficult type of switch to troubleshoot. The mechanical-type of air-ground switch is the most difficult type of switch to troubleshoot. The proximity-type and mechanical-type of air-ground switch is the most difficult to troubleshoot.

Which statement is true, regarding a tail strike?. Tail strike is commonly observed in fixed-wing aircraft with tricycle undercarriage during touch and go, when the pilot rotates the nose up too slowly or in landing, where the pilot raises the nose too sharply during the final approach. Tail strike is commonly observed in fixed-wing aircraft with a tail wheel during take-off, when the pilot rotates the nose up too quickly or in landing, where the pilot raises the nose too sharply during the final approach. Tail strike is commonly observed in fixed-wing aircraft with tricycle undercarriage during take-off, when the pilot rotates the nose up too quickly or in landing, where the pilot raises the nose too sharply during the final approach.

What are the advantages of LED lighting?. LED lighting is very low heating, low power consumption and long life. OLED lighting is very low heating, low power consumption and easy to replace individual LEDs. LED lighting is very low heating and works on any voltage.

How is the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp reset if it operates?. The 'blow-back' device cannot be reset. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced. The 'blow-back' device can be reset by selecting full 'RETRACT on the lighting control panel. The 'blow-back' device can be reset if the linkage is repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground.

Why must self-illuminating signs be handled with care?. Self-illuminating signs are very high voltage and must not get wet or exposed. Self-illuminating signs contain radioactive tritium gas and must not be inhaled or absorbed into the body. Self-illuminating signs contain extremely high pressure and must not be dropped or otherwise stressed.

What are the main reasons for providing emergency oxygen onboard an aircraft?. Emergency oxygen is provided for use at flight levels higher than 30,000 ft. Emergency oxygen is provided for use in event of a smoke filled cabin. Emergency oxygen is provided for use in event of a rapid cabin decompression.

How long must the onboard oxygen equipment supply oxygen at an altitude of 8,000 ft., according to EASA requirements?. The time that the onboard oxygen equipment supplies oxygen at tan an altitude altitude of of 8,000 8,000 ft. is of 15 minutes. The time that the onboard oxygen equipment supplies oxygen at an altitude s oxygen at an altitude of 8,000 ft. is of 30 minutes. The time that the onboard oxygen equipment supplies oxygen at an altitude of 8,000 ft. is of 1 hour.

Which statement regarding the passenger cabin chemical oxygen generator is true?. A passenger cabin chemical oxygen generator normally has a flow indicator and a regulator. A passenger cabin chemical oxygen generator normally has a flow indicator but no regulator. A passenger cabin chemical oxygen generator normally has a regulator but no flow indicator.

How long can a chemical oxygen generator, once activated, supply oxygen for?. A chemical oxygen generator can supply oxygen for at least 5 minutes. A chemical oxygen generator can supply oxygen for at least 15 minutes. A chemical oxygen generator can supply oxygen for at least 30 minutes.

What does "PNEUM MANFLD FAIL" mean?. The "PNEUM MANFLD FAIL" Indicates a pneumatic system high pressure and/or high temperature has been detected. The "PNEUM MANFLD FAIL" indicates a duct rupture or leak in the pneumatic distribution system has been detected. The "PNEUM MANFLD FAIL" Indicates that no or low pressure has been detected in the pneumatic system supply manifold.

How is the pressure of the engine bleed air supplied for various systems?. The pressure of the air supplied is reduced for some of the systems, as appropriate. The pressure of the air supplied is the same, regardless of the system it is being supplied to. The pressure of the air supplied is adjusted higher or lower, to all systems, as required.

What is the purpose of the drain valve in the bottom of a pneumatic system reservoir?. The drain valve in the bottom of a pneumatic system reservoir is used to drain moisture and sediment. The drain valve in the bottom of a pneumatic system reservoir is used to dump system pressure for maintenance. The drain valve in the bottom of a pneumatic systern reservoir is used to connect the reservoir to the system water trap.

Where is the pressure warning transmitter fitted in the compressor of a pneumatic system?. The pressure warning transmitter is fitted at the first-stage outlet. The pressure warning transmitter is fitted at the second-stage outlet. The pressure warning transmitter is fitted at.

What does the compression of a multiple-cylinder pneumatic system pump depend on?. Compression depends on the volume of each successive stroke being smaller than the stroke preceding it. Compression depends on the volume of each successive stroke being larger than the stroke preceding it. Compression depends on the volume of each successive stroke being the same as the stroke preceding it.

Why are multiple compressor stages required of a pneumatic system pump?. Multiple compressor stages required of a pneumatic system pump in order to raise the pressure to a sufficiently high level for the operation of a pneumatic system. Multiple compressor stages required of a pneumatic system pump in order to provide the necessary level of redundancy in the event of failure of one of the stages. Multiple compressor stages required of a pneumatic system pump in order to ensure the pump is a positive displacement type as required by the pneumatic system.

What statement is true, regarding the rinsing of toilet tanks?. Toilet tanks can be both rinsed with clean water and pre-charged with chemical/water solution from the exterior servicing panel. Toilet tanks can be rinsed with clean water from the exterior servicing panel but can only be pre-charged with chemical/water solution at each toilet location internally. Toilet tanks must be both rinsed with clean water and pre-charged with chemical/water solution only at each toilet location Internally.

How are waste water drain masts heated?. Waste water drain masts are electrically heated to the same temperature on the ground, as in flight. Waste water drain masts are electrically heated only during flight. They are not heated on the ground. Waste water drain masts are electrically heated to a higher temperature during flight than when on the ground.

Which types of metals presents the greatest risk of corrosion of toilet products?. Tollet products in contact with aluminium and magnesium alloy presents the greatest risk of corrosion. Toilet products in contact with titanium and copper alloy presents the greatest risk of corrosion. Toilet products in contact with steel and titanium alloy presents the greatest risk of corrosion.

What does the expression 'electronic library system' refer to?. An 'electronic library system' is a system used by passengers to save on hard copy costs of books and magazines carried on board. An 'electronic library system' is a system that stores all the aircraft information for passenger entertainment requests for that flight. An 'electronic library system' is a system of CD or disc data that lists all data configurations and systems for that aircraft and carried on board.

Why are modern aircraft fitted with printers?. Printers are used to provide the flight crew with a means to print out flight maps. Printers are used to print faults recorded by CMC to aid in rectification. Printers are used to print out ATC instructions should the radios fail.

What is the most complete built in test that can be performed on an electronic system, such as after a replacement of an LRU?. Power Up Test is the most complete built in test. Cyclic Test is the most complete built in test. System Test is the most complete built in test.

What electronics hardware provides data routing and management functions in an AFDX network?. Data routing and management functions are provided by end system processors. Data routing and management functions are provided by network switches. Data routing and management functions are provided by hosting modules.

What do primary components in an integrated modular avionics system architecture include?. A virtual backplane network and the hosting modules are the primary structures of an integrated modular avionics system architecture. A virtual backplane network and ARINC 429 databus system are the primary structures of an integrated modular avionics system architecture. A virtual backplane network and the Fibre Optic Translators are the primary structures of an integrated modular avionics system architecture.

How is the radome protected from lightning strike?. Diverter strips protect the radome from lightning strike. Special paint protects the radome from lightning strike. Special grease on the hinges protect the radome from lightning strike.

What is the value of bonding tester if If you short the two spikes of bonding?. Zero value will be indicated by shorting the two spikes of bonding tester. Full scale deflection will be indicated by shorting the two spikes of bonding teste. Centre value will be indicated by shorting the two spikes of bonding teste.

What is a Fuselage Station?. A Fuselage Station is a longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage. A Fuselage Station is a lateral point on aircraft fuselage. A Fuselage Station is a vertical point on aircraft fuselage.

What resistance value measured between the extremities of the aircraft during a bonding test should not be exceeded?. The resistance measured between the extremities of the aircraft during a bonding test should not exceed 0.05 ohms. The resistance measured between the extremities of the aircraft during a bonding test should not exceed 50 ohms. The resistance measured between the extremities of the aircraft during a bonding test should not exceed 1 megohm.

Which of the following are the three different kinds of primary loads (or stresses) that can be imposed on structural members?. Compression loadings, tension loadings, and shear loadings. Torsion, bending, and axial loads. Transverse loads, compression loads, and bending loads.

What does levelling an aeroplane involve?. Levelling an aeroplane involves checking for any distortion in the wings and stabilisers. Levelling an aeroplane involves bringing it to the rigging position with horizontal datum lines. Levelling an aeroplane involves checking for any bend or twist in the fuselage.

Which statement is true, regarding a water drain valve in the fuselage?. A water drain valve in the fuselage is closed by a 'flight mode' switch. A water drain valve in the fuselage is closed by the cabin pressurization. A water drain valve in the fuselage does not close.

What type of structural member is a stringer?. A stringer is a lateral structural member. A stringer is a vertical structural member. A stringer is a longitudinal structural member.

Why might a doubler be fitted to a stressed skin structure?. A doubler is used to increase electrical bonding effectiveness. A doubler is used to provide increased abrasion resistance where an adjacent part may chafe. A doubler is used to increase strength where attachments are located for provision of system installation.

What are the structural elements of the floor structure of a large transport aircraft passenger cabin?. Crossbeams and struts, and plywood panels make the floor structure. Stringers and aluminium alloy sheet material make the floor structure. Beams, Intercostals and composite/honeycomb sandwich panels make the floor structure.

What system manages the interface between cockpit/cabin crew and cabin systems?. The Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS) manages the interface between cockpit/cabin crew and cabin systems. The Flight Attendants Panels (FAPs) manage the interface between cockpit/cabin crew and cabin systems. The Flight Management System (FMS) manages the interface between cockpit/cabin crew and cabin systems.

What is the purpose of the passenger address system?. The passenger address system enables the passengers to communicate to one another. The passenger address system distributes announcements from the flight deck through cabin speakers. The passenger address system enables the passengers to communicate with cabin crew.

When can a Portable Maintenance Access Terminal (PMAT) be connected to the Network Server System?. A Portable Maintenance Access Terminal (PMAT) can be connected to the Network Server System only whilst the aircraft is on the ground. A Portable Maintenance Access Terminal (PMAT) can be connected to the Network Server System only whilst the aircraft is in flight. A Portable Maintenance Access Terminal (PMAT) can be connected to the Network Server System at any time, whether aircraft is in flight or on the ground.

When can the Onboard Maintenance Terminal be used?. The Onboard Maintenance Terminal is used in flight only. The Onboard Maintenance Terminal is used on the ground only. The Onboard Maintenance Terminal is used either in flight or on the ground.

How are the seat tracks positioned on a commercial aircraft?. The seat tracks are positioned longitudinally. The seat tracks are positioned laterally. The seat tracks are positioned vertically.

What statement is true, regarding passenger entry doors on large transport aircraft ?. Passenger entry doors on large transpert aircraft are usually plug-type doors. Passenger entry doors on large transport aircraft are usually non-plug type doors. Passenger entry doors on large transport aircraft are usually electrically operated doors.

How is the grapple hook designed to prevent it from digging into the ground?. The grapple hook is designed to prevent it from digging into the ground by rounding and bending back its prongs. The grapple hook is designed to prevent it from digging into the ground by connecting it to a front boom. The grapple hook is designed to prevent it from digging into the ground by deploying a parachute during take-off.

When is the power supply to a cargo loading system available?. The power supply to a cargo loading system is available at all times. The power supply to a cargo loading system is available only when the aircraft is on the ground. The power supply to a cargo loading system is available only when the cargo door is fully open.

What kind of load does the 'web' of a wing spar carry?. Shear load. Tension. Bending.

What kind of hinge is some distance behind the leading edge of the flight control surface?. Inset hinge. Balance panel hinge. Internal balance hinge.

How are control surfaces attached to the wing?. Control surfaces are attached to the main spar. Control surfaces are attached to the trailing edge spar. Control surfaces are attached to the leading edge spar.

How are the ribs of the tail surfaces positioned?. The ribs are positioned longitudinally on both the horizontal stabiliser and the vertical stabiliser. The ribs are positioned longitudinally on the horizontal stabiliser and laterally the vertical stabiliser. The ribs are positioned laterally on the horizontal stabiliser and vertically on the vertical stabiliser.

Which empennage configuration must the vertical stabiliser be constructed to be strongest?. A high horizontal stabiliser ('T tail) requires a stronger vertical stabiliser. A low horizontal stabilizer requires a stronger vertical stabiliser. A mid-mounted horizontal stabiliser requires a stronger vertical stabiliser.

Which components cannot be found in an elevator structure?. Honeycomb structural components are not found in an elevator structure. Ribs are not found in an elevator structure. Skinning panels are not found in an elevator structure.

Any control surface area which is forward of the hinge line is what type of balance?. Any control surface area which is forward of the hinge line is Mass balance. Any control surface area which is forward of the hinge line is Aerodynamic balance. Any control surface area which is forward of the hinge line is Internal balance.

What are the two types of hinged engine cowlings?. The hinged engine cowlings are: hot section and cold section cowlings. The hinged engine cowlings are: compressor and turbine cowlings. The hinged engine cowlings are: inlet and outlet cowlings.

Why are metal strips fitted to the surface of the composite cowling?. Cowling metal strips are used for heat conduction. Cowling metal strips are used for additional structural strength. Cowling metal strips are used for lightning protection.

What units are used to show cabin altitude in the cockpit?. Cabin altitude is displayed in pounds per square inch (PSI). Cabin altitude is displayed in feet. Cabin altitude is displayed in feet per minute (FPM).

When does the "RATE LIMIT" warning light come on?. The "RATE LIMIT" warning light comes on when a high altitude is reached. The "RATE LIMIT" warning light comes on when a low cabin rate is detected. The "RATE LIMIT" warning light comes on when an excessive cabin rate is detected.

When activated, how can the cabin altitude warning be stopped?. The cabin altitude warning sound cannot be stopped. The cabin altitude warning can be stopped by pressing the horn cut-out push-button. The cabin altitude warning can be stopped by decreasing the cabin pressure.

Where can the air for the engine anti-ice (TAI) be taken from?. The air for the engine nose cowl TAl is tapped off downstream of the 9th-stage non-return-valve, only. The air for the engine nose cowl TAI is tapped off downstream of the 5th-stage non-return-valve, only. The air for the engine nose cowl TAl can be tapped off downstream of the 5th-stage non-return-valve or from the APU.

What diameter is the standard bayonet connector for ground air supply (low pressure supply) to an air conditioning system?. 8 inches (200 mm) is the diameter of standard bayonet connector for ground air supply. 12 inches (300 mm) is the diameter of standard bayonet connector for ground air supply. 4 inches (100 mm) is the diameter of standard bayonet connector for ground air supply.

When will a Pack Valve on an air conditioning system supply, switch to a HIGH flow rate?. If both air conditioning packs are operating, the Pack Valve will switch to a HIGH flow rate. If one air conditioning pack falls, the Pack Valve will switch to a HIGH flow rate. At start-up of the air conditioning system, the Pack Valve will switch to a HIGH flow rate.

What is the purpose of the zone trim air valve in an air conditioning system?. The zone trim air valve achieves a zoned temperature control. The zone trim air valve achieves a zoned ventilation. The zone trim air valve achieves a zoned temperature measurement.

What happens to the refrigerant vapour temperature when the refrigerant is compressed?. Vapour temperature increases when the refrigerant is compressed. Vapour temperature decreases when the refrigerant is compressed. Vapour temperature is unchanged when the refrigerant is compressed.

Where will water from the air condense during the operation of a vapour cycle cooling system?. Water will condense at the receiver/dryer, on a vapour cycle cooling system. Water will condense at the condensor, on a vapour cycle cooling system. Water will condense at the evaporator, on a vapour cycle cooling system.

What happens to the outflow valves if the cabin altitude climbs above (typically) 14,500 ±350 ft.?. A pressure switch in each outflow valve electronic actuator sends a signal to close the outflow valve. A pressure switch in each outflow valve electronic actuator sends a signal to open the outflow valve. A pressure switch is in each outflow valve electronic actuator sets the outflow valve to manual control.

Why is a cockpit warning provided for the cabin pressurization system?. A cockpit pressurization warning system warns when there is a cabin altitude below 10,000 ft. A cockpit pressurization warning system warns when there is a cabin altitude above 10,000 ft. A cockpit pressurization warning system warns when there is a cabin differential pressure of 10,000 ft.

What instruments are supplied with heading by the flux valve used on older larger aeroplanes?. The directional gyro is connected to a flux valve. It then provides the heading Information on the HSI. Both the ADI and the HSI are connected directly to a flux valve. The HSI is connected directly to a flux valve to drive the compass card.

What statement is true, regarding the magnetic heading provided by the Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS)?. An AHRS provides magnetic heading information to the EFIS without any other external input. An AHRS cannot provide magnetic heading information to the EFIS unless it has an input from an Air Data Computer (ADC). An AHRS cannot provide magnetic heading information to the EFIS unless it has an input from a magnetometer.

Which EGPWS mode is used for excessive terrain closure due to rising terrain?. Mode 1 of GPWS is excessive terrain closure due to rising terrain. Mode 2 of GPWS is excessive terrain closure due to rising terrain. Mode 3 of GPWS is excessive terrain closure due to rising terrain.

How many antennas does Rad Alt require?. A Rad Alt has 1 antenna. A Rad Alt has 2 antennas. A Rad Alt has 3 antennas.

What information does a standard VOR system provide? (5-70). A VOR system provides bearing information only. A VOR system does not provide range information. A VOR system provides bearing information and it provides range information. A VOR system provides range information only. A VOR system does not provide bearing information.

How frequent must a Navigation Database (NavData) installed on an aeroplane EFIS, be updated? (5-96). NavData must be updated every 28 days. NavData must be updated every 56 days. NavData must be updated every year.

What type of system is weather radar? (5-112). Weather radar is a HF system. Weather radar is a VHF system. Weather radar is a microwave system.

What segment is the aeroplane equipment in a GPS system? (5-102). The aeroplane equipment is the user segment. The aeroplane equipment is the control segment. The aeroplane equipment is the space segment.

What statement is true, regarding communication using the VHF comm radio? (5-46). Each party transmits on one channel and receives on another channel. Each party transmits arid receives on the same channel. Each party can only the receive, they cannot transmit.

What supplies the power to the Generator Control Unit on an aircraft that uses a brushless PMG type generator?. The main generator stator output ensures the power supply for the Generator Control Unit. The PMG output ensures the power supply for the Generator Control Unit. The aircraft battery ensures the power supply for the Generator Control Unit.

Where is the Point of Regulation of a brushless PMG type generator?. The Point of Regulation of a brushless PMG type generator is on the PMG stator. The Point of Regulation of a brushless PMG type generator is on the main generator stator. The Point of Regulation of a brushless PMG type generator is on the exciter armature.

Which statement is true, regarding the acid trap of a battery installation?. When a battery installation includes an acid trap, a venturl affect causes the trapped acid to go back into the battery. When a battery installation includes an acid trap, the acid trap has a neutralising agent to prevent acid being sprayed on to the aircraft fuselage. When a battery installation includes an acid trap, the acid trap must be drained at regular intervals to prevent it overflowing.

What are the possible reasons for performing a BIT check on a VSCF generator?. The possible reasons for performing a BIT check are an AC system malfunction with the Illumination of a fault light, or a scheduled maintenance check. The possible reasons for performing a BIT check are an AC system malfunction with the illumination of a fault light, high output residual voltage, or a scheduled maintenance check. The possible reasons for performing a BIT check are an AC system malfunction with the illumination of a fault light, low residual voltage (5-10 V), or a scheduled maintenance check.

What statement is true, regarding the operation of a bus tie contactor?. When a bus tie contactor is closed, the battery supplies power to the generator bus. When a bus tie contactor is closed, the generator supplies power to the battery bus. When a bus tie contactor is closed, the battery supplies power to the battery bus, and the generator supplies power to the generator bus.

What special requirements must passenger seats meet?. They must be removable by a quick-release attachment. They must be manually adjustable for height. They must have a seat-belt and a life vest.

Where are the replacement stitches sown if a seat belt stitching is worn and can be repaired?. Stitches are sown alongside the original. Stitches are sown over the originals. Stitches are sown diagonally.

How can electrically operated seat be operated, if there is an electrical power failure?. The seat can always be moved manually. The seat will be stuck in a fixed position. The seat can be moved using the other pilot's seat controls.

Where are life jackets typically stowed in an aircraft?. Under passenger's seats and in easily accessible positions for crew members. In overhead compartments only. In a dedicated storage compartment near the exit doors.

Where are minimum specifications for flammability and smoke production of cabin furnishings?. EASA EU-OPS. EASA Certification Specification (CS) 25. EN 13501-1.

Which statement is true, regarding the configuration of the cabin layout?. Cabin layout can be configured for either passengers or cargo but not for both. Cabin layout can be configured for passengers only, and cargo can be carried only in the cargo holds. Cabin layout can be configured for a combination of passengers and cargo.

What are unit Load Devices (cans) for a large transport category aircraft usually made of?. Glass reinforced plastic is used to manufacture Unit Load Devices. Kevlar is used to manufacture Unit Load Devices. Polycarbonate is used to manufacture Unit Load Devices.

What does overheat cause on a Fenwall Continuous-Loop fire detector to close the electrical circuit?. An overheat condition causes a drop in resistance of the eutectic salt, closing the electrical circuit. An overheat condition causes a rise in resistance of the eutectic salt, closing the electrical circuit. An overheat condition causes a thermal expansion of the eutectic salt, closing the electrical circuit.

What does the efficiency of any fire detector system generally depend on?. The performance of its sensors influences the efficiency of any fire detector system. The length of the wiring of its sensors influences the efficiency of any fire detector system. The sensors proper positioning influences the efficiency of any fire detector system.

How many extinguishers can usually be discharged for an engine fire?. One (1) extinguisher is usually discharged for an engine fire. Two (2) extinguishers are usually discharged for an engine fire. Three (3) extinguisher are usually discharged for an engine fire.

What do photoelectric detectors measure?. Photoelectric detectors measure the amount of CO in a sample of air. Photoelectric detectors measure the amount of smoke in a sample of air. Photoelectric detectors measure the degree of light reflection in a sample of air.

What colour are halon fire extinguishers?. The colour of halon fire extinguishers is green or red. The colour of halon fire extinguishers is blue or yellow. The colour of halon fire extinguishers is black or white.

What effect does turning the control yoke anticlockwise has on the ailerons/spoiler?. Left aileron rises, and the right aileron drops if the control yoke is anticlockwise turn. Right aileron rises, and the left aileron drops if the control yoke is anticlockwise turn. Right spoiler deploys if the control yoke is anticlockwise turn.

When are the Horizontal Stabiliser trim switches set to 'fast mode'?. When flaps are retracted the Horizontal Stabiliser trim switches are set to 'fast mode'. When flaps are extended the Horizontal Stabiliser trim switches are set to 'fast mode'. When gear is down and locked the Horizontal Stabiliser trim switches are set to 'fast mode'.

Which system uses artificial feel?. A cable operated system requires artificial feel. A hydraulically power operated system requires artificial feel. A push-pull rod operated system requires artificial feel.

What surfaces are primary control surfaces on a large aeroplane?. Aileron, elevator, spoiler and flaps make up the primary control surfaces. Aileron, elevator, spoiler and rudder make up the primary control surfaces. Flaps, elevator and rudder make up the primary control surfaces.

What is fitted on the wings to help slow down the aircraft after touchdown?. Lift dumpers. Anti-skid system. Speed brakes.

How does a hydraulic power-operated control system prevent the shock wave buffeting affect the control system?. It is an irreversible system so the shock wave buffeting cannot feed back into the control system. It prevents the formation of shock waves so there is no buffeting is felt on the control system. It is fitted with filters that absorb the shock wave buffeting and prevent it reaching the cockpit controls.

How is torque limiting on flight controls done during autoflight?. By limiting the torque applied by the servo-actuators, and by allowing the servo-actuators either to slip or to be completely disengaged if pre-set torque limits are exceeded. Such safeguards are implemented by decreasing the torque applied by the servo-actuators, and by allowing the servo actuators either to slip or to be completely disengaged if pre-set torque limits are exceeded. Such safeguards are implemented by limiting the torque applied by the servo actuators, and by allowing the servo actuators to be completely disengaged if pre-set torque limits are exceeded.

What is the flight control system operation by electrical power alone is sometimes used for?. Primary flight controls, such as ailerons, elevators and rudder only can be electrically operated. Secondary flight controls, such as flaps and slats only can be electrically operated. Both primary and secondary flight controls can be electrically operated.

How is a fly-by-wire control system defined?. A fly-by-wire control system uses electric motors to move the control surfaces, which are controlled directly from the pilot's inputs. A fly-by-wire control system uses computers to control the control surface movements, based upon electrical inputs from the pilot's controls. A fly-by-wire control system uses the autopilot computer to control the movement of the control surfaces with electric motors.

What happens to the ailerons if both ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 fail (Airbus A320)?. If both ELACS (ELAC 1+ ELAC2) fail, the allerons revert to the damping mode. If both ELACS (ELAC 1+ ELAC2) fail, the ailerons freeze on the last commanded position until the SEC 1 takes over. If both ELACS (ELAC 1+ ELAC2) fail, the ailerons freeze on the last commanded position until the FAC 1 takes over.

What is control surface mass balancing used for?. Control surface mass balancing is used to eliminate control surface flutter. Control surface mass balancing is used to reduce the weight of the control surface. Control surface mass balancing is used to make it easier for the pilot to move the control surface.

Where are the override stops usually fitted on a manually operated (cable) control system?. The override stops, also known as 'secondary stops', are usually fitted at the control surface. The override stops, also known as 'primary stops', are usually fitted at the control surface. The override stops, also known as 'secondary stops', are usually fitted at the cockpit control.

What is the likely cause if after carrying out a full rigging check on an aeroplane's control system, the pilot reports that the ailerons cannot be moved from their neutral position?. The likely cause is the aileron cables have been cross-connected. The likely cause is the aileron cables are not mounted on the pulleys correctly. The likely cause is a rigging pin has not been removed.

What is used to counteract adverse aileron yaw?. Frise ailerons and differential ailerons both counteract the adverse aileron yaw. Frise ailerons counteract the adverse aileron yaw. Differential ailerons do not counteract the adverse aileron yaw. Differential ailerons counteract the adverse aileron yaw. Frise ailerons do not counteract the adverse aileron yaw.

What is the purpose of strakes?. Strakes are used to improve the flight characteristics by controlling the airflow (acting as large vortex generators) over the wing. Strakes are used to improve the flight characteristics by producing, vortexes to re-energize the airflow over the wing leading edge. Strakes are used to improve the flight characteristics either by controlling the airflow (acting as large vortex generators) or by the simple stabilising effect on the wing airflow.

What does the term "Wet Wing" mean?. "Wet Wing" means that the aeroplane's fuel tank has a leak. "Wet Wing" means that the aeroplane has an integral fuel tank in the wing. "Wet Wing" means that the aeroplane has a bladder tank in the wing.

What statement is true regarding the minimum flow rate of a gravity feed system?. A gravity feed system must be able to flow 150% of the take-off fuel flow when the tank contains the minimum fuel allowable. A gravity feed system must be able to flow 100% of the take-off fuel flow when the tank contains the maximum fuel allowable. A gravity feed system must be able to flow 150% of the fuel flow required for cruise when the tank contains the minimum fuel allowable.

When should the static bonding lead be attached to the aircraft during refueling?. The static bonding lead must be attached after attaching the fuel nozzle. The static bonding lead must be attached before the fuel cap is opened. The static bonding lead must be attached before attaching the fuel nozzle.

How does system capacitance change on a capacitive type fuel quantity indication system?. System capacitance decreases as fuel level increases. System capacitance increases as fuel level increases. System capacitance does not change as fuel level increases.

What kind of fuel indication must all aeroplanes have?. An Indication of fuel flow is mandatory on any aeroplanes. An indication of fuel quantity is mandatory on any aeroplanes. An indication of fuel temperature is mandatory on any aeroplanes.

What do Certification Specifications for aeroplanes state, regarding fuel tank vent requirements?. Certification Specifications state that a fuel tank must have a vent/expansion space of not less than 2% of the total fuel tank capacity. Certification Specifications state that a fuel tank must have a vent/expansion space of not less than 20% of the total fuel tank capacity. Certification Specifications state that a fuel tank must have a vent/expansion space of not less than 10% of the total fuel tank capacity.

How is the aircraft C of G normally presented to the pilot before take-off?. As a percent of mean aerodynamic chord (%MAC). As a number of feet or metres aft of the zero datum. As a number of feet or metres forward of the aft limit.

What is the purpose of a longitudinal balance fuel system?. The longitudinal balance fuel system prevents the CG of the aircraft from moving backwards as fuel is burned. The longitudinal balance fuel system prevents the CG of the aircraft from moving forwards as fuel is burned. The longitudinal balance fuel system makes the CG of the aircraft move forwards as fuel is burned.

What pressure is shown on pressure gauge on an hydraulic accumulator?. The nitrogen pressure is always indicated by the pressure gauge on an hydraulic accumulator. The hydraulic fluid pressure is always indicated by the pressure gauge on an hydraulic accumulator. Both the nitrogen and the hydraulic fluid are always indicated by the pressure gauge on an hydraulic accumulator.

What is the purpose of a priority valve in a hydraulic system?. A priority valve allows continued pressure to essential systems during times of reduced supply. A priority valve dampens pressure fluctuations during times of high demand. A priority valve maintains a high pressure to all systems in event of pressure supply failure.

The differential pressure indicator warning on a hydraulic system, indicates the condition of what component?. The condition of filter is indicated by the differential pressure indicator warning. The condition of pump is indicated by the differential pressure indicator warning. The condition of reservoir is indicated by the differential pressure indicator warning.

How can hydraulics be pressurized when all normal hydraulic pressure sources have failed on all systems?. By a ram air turbine. By a power transfer unit. By an accumulator.

What statement is true, regarding the operation of a 'double-acting' hydraulic hand pump?. A Double-acting hydraulic hand pump provides hydraulic fluid on each input stroke. A Double-acting hydraulic hand pump provides hydraulic fluid to two services at the same time. A 'double-acting' hydraulic hand pump can be driven either electrically or manually (by hand).

Which type of ice detection system can be tested with a torque screw-driver?. The Serrated rotor type can be tested with a torque screw-driver. The Vibrating rod type can be tested with a torque screw-driver. The Radioactive type can be tested with a torque screw-driver.

What happens when a cockpit window heater system is switched to the HIGH setting?. An autotransformer steps-up voltage for severe icing conditions, as soon as the system is switched to HIGH. An AC power is switched from intermittent supply to continuous supply, as soon as the system is switched to HIGH. A DC power is supplied continuously instead of AC supply, as soon as the system is switched to HIGH.

What is the advantage of leading edge chemical fluid de-icing, compared to inflatable boot de-icing?. The leading edge chemical fluid de-icing system does not disturb the aerodynamic shape of the wing. The leading edge chemical fluid de-icing system is more efficient and effective at de-icing the wing. The leading edge chemical fluid da-icing system is safer because it is less prone to a fire hazard.

What does a 'DISAG' on the control panel indicate?. It indicates that the thermal anti-icing valve is not in the same position as the position selected by the switch or p/b on the panel. It indicates that there atmospheric conditions are conducive to wing icing but the anti-icing system is not currently switched on. It indicates that the thermal anti-icing duct is overheating and the valve should be closed as soon as possible to avoid damage.

What happens to the inflatable boots when icing conditions are suspected and the system is switched on by the pilot?. The inflatable boots are inflated and deflated just once, and remain deflated until the system is switched off and on again. The inflatable boots are inflated and deflated on an alternating cycle until the system is switched off. The inflatable boots are inflated and remain inflated until the system is switched off.

How is leakage from the rain repellent system detected?. Leakage from the rain repellent system can be detected by the smell in the cockpit. Leakage from the rain repellent system can be detected by a pressure leak test. Leakage from the rain repellent system can be detected by heat sensors on the ducts.

What are landing gear components such as shock struts, drag struts, side stays etc. made of?. Steel or aluminium alloy. Titanium and steel alloy. Titanium alloy and aluminium alloy.

What is the tyre width if a tyre has a designation code of 17.5 x 5.75-87. The tyre width is 1.5 inches. The tyre width is 5.75 inches. The tyre width is 8 inches.

How does tyre pressure change if temperature is increased?. Pressure does not change. Pressure decreases. Pressure increases.

What is used for air-ground sensing on a large aircraft?. A simple microswitch or proximity sensor, usually on one or both main landing gear(s) provides the air-ground sensing. A speed switch in the pitot-static system provides the air-ground sensing. An electronic switch in the barometric altimeter system or the radio altimeter provides the air-ground sensing.

What needs to be done after tailstrike occured?. It is essential to conduct a thorough inspection and repair any damage. Aircraft needs to be scrapped. No inspections are required.

What statement is true, regarding the Pulse Recognition Technology used on a small aeroplane lighting system?. Pulse Recognition Technology allows the same light to be used as a taxi, landing and search light. Pulse Recognition Technology allows strobe lights to be used as navigation lights thus reducing total lighting requirements. Pulse Recognition Technology allows for a lower power landing light whilst making the aeroplane appear larger than it actually is.

How is Teflon applied to the threaded fittings on oxygen pipelines threaded fitting?. Apply Teflon sealing tape of the recommended specification to only the first threads of the male fitting, and the tape should be wrapped in a direction opposite to the running thread. Apply Teflon sealing tape of the recommended specification to all except the first threads of the male fitting, and the tape should be wrapped in a direction opposite to the running thread. Apply Teflon sealing tape of the recommended specification to all except the first threads of the male fitting, and the tape should be wrapped in the same direction as the running thread.

What other system does a high pressure pneumatic system interfaces with?. A high pressure pneumatic system Interfaces with the hydraulic system. A high pressure pneumatic system interfaces with the engine bleed system. A high pressure pneumatic system interfaces with the flight control system.

How many stages of compression does a pneumatic system pump with 2 pistons?. A pneumatic system pump with 2 pistons has 2 stages of compression. A pneumatic system pump with 2 pistons has 3 stages of compression. A pneumatic system pump with 2 pistons has 4 stages of compression.

What is the function of the plunger attached to piston 2 in the compressor of a pneumatic system?. The plunger attached to piston 2 is to draw in air for the first stage of compression. The plunger attached to piston 2 is to prevent the air flowing back to cylinder 1. The plunger attached to piston 2 is to provide the final stage of compression.

What does the term 'potable water' mean?. 'Potable water' is water that is suitable for drinking. 'Potable water' is water that is suitable for toilet flushing and rinsing but not drinking. 'Potable water' is water that is suitable for hand washing but not drinking.

What does this mean if an indicator light on a toilet water heater is illuminated?. If the indicator light on a toilet water heater is illuminated, it means that the water is being heated but has not yet reached full temperature. The light will go out when the water has reached full temperature. If the indicator light on a toilet water heater is illuminated, it means that the water heater is being supplied with electrical power. If the indicator light on a toilet water heater is illuminated, it means that the water heater is overheating and has automatically disconnected the electrical supply to the heater.

What statement is true, regarding the access to a CMC remote maintenance terminal to get CMC fault data?. Access to a CMC remote maintenance terminal is done on the ground only. It cannot be accessed during flight. Access to a CMC remote maintenance terminal is performed during flight only. It cannot be accessed on the ground. Access to a CMC remote maintenance terminal is available with the aeroplane on the ground or during flight, as required.

What statement regarding the use of a data loading system is true?. A data loading system provides the pilot with weight and centre of gravity position of the aeroplane after the aeroplane has been loaded with passengers and/or cargo. A data loading system allows maintenance personnel to upload and download digital software to any digital system that requires data uploads and downloads while installed in the aircraft. A data loading system is a database containing information used by f light crews and maintenance personnel such as maintenance manuals, illustrated parts catalogues and wiring diagram manuals.

How is AFDX Ethernet defined?. AFDX Ethernet is a full duplex. AFDX Ethernet is a half duplex. AFDX Ethernet is a dual layer - half duplex.

How are the CPIOMS lanes designated on the Airbus A380 IMA layout?. Each lane is configured with one CPIOM designated as the command (COM) channel while the other CPIOM is designated as the monitor (MON) channel. Each lane is configured with one CPIOM designated as the Active channel while the other CPIOM is designated as the Standby channel. Each lane is configured with one CPIOM designated as the A channel while the other CPIOM is designated as the B channel.

How are Buttock Line positions measured?. Buttock Line positions are measured horizontally, fore or aft from a datum. Buttock Line positions are measured vertically, above or below from the centreline datum. Buttock Line positions are measured horizontall, left or right from the centreline datum.

How is continuity restored in aircraft structures where insulating intermediate parts interrupt the electric conductibility?. By using bonding strips and screws between metallic assemblies. By laminating a fine aluminium screen under the top layer of insulating intermediate parts. By connecting electrical leads to the main structure.

What is the purpose of the strands of electrically conductive material in the laminates of composite structure?. Strands of electrically conductive material help to dissipate static electricity and protects the aeroplane from damage due to lightning strike. Strands of electrically conductive material provides a return path for the power supply to all the electrical systems throughout the aeroplane. Strands of electrically conductive material provides a ground plane for navigation system and communication system antennas.

What was the next logical step in the evolution of aircraft structure after wooden monocoque?. The next logical step in the evolution of aircraft structure after wooden monocoque was a steel tube fuselage structure. The next logical step in the evolution of aircraft structure after wooden monocoque was an aluminium alloy monocoque. The next logical step in the evolution of aircraft structure after wooden monocoque was a composite structure.

What kind of structure uses multiple load paths to ensure structural integrity?. Safe Life structure. Fail Safe structure. Primary structure.

What is the amount of the hoop stress, compared to the longitudinal stress?. The amount of the hoop stress is half the longitudinal stress. The amount of the hoop stress is twice the longitudinal stress. The amount of the hoop stress is the same as the longitudinal stress.

Which components carry the major portion of the fuselage bending loadings in a semi-monocoque structure?. Stringers and bulkheads carry the major portion of the fuselage bending loadings in a semi-monocoque structure. Longerons and keelsons carry the major portion of the fuselage bending loadings in a semi-monocoque structure. Frames and rings carry the major portion of the fuselage bending loadings in a semi-monocoque structure.

What is a stringer?. A stringer is a horizontal member of a metal structure. A stringer is a vertical member of a metal structure. A stringer is a fiber component of a composite structure.

What is the name of the structural component which forms a solid divider between two parts of a fuselage?. Bulkhead forms a solid divider between two parts of a fuselage. Frame forms a solid divider between two parts of a fuselage. Longeron forms a solid divider between two parts of a fuselage.

What networks does an external communication system uses?. An external communication system uses only satellite networks. It does not use ground based networks. An external communication system uses both satellite networks and ground based networks. An external communication system uses only ground based networks. It does not use satellite networks.

What is the purpose of the cabin monitoring system?. The cabin monitoring system records video data of the cabin from strategic locations and display the image in the flight deck for security purposes. The cabin monitoring system monitors the status of cabin temperature, lighting, passenger warning lights, cabin entry and exit doors etc., and presents this information to flight attendants in real time. The cabin monitoring system monitors the cabin, galleys and tollets for smoke and fire and provide a warning in the flight deck if such condition is detected.

What is an electronic library mass storage system, such as the Electronic Flight Bag?. An Electronic library mass storage system is a library of entertainment files such as films and music, which can be accessed by the passengers via the inflight entertainment system. An Electronic library mass storage system is a database library of airports and navigation features used by the Flight Management System. An Electronic library mass storage system is a general purpose computing platform intended to reduce, or replace, paper-based reference material used by the flight crew.

Which of the following applications is an aircraft maintenance application?. EFB is an aircraft maintenance application. AIRMAN is an aircraft maintenance application. OMS is an aircraft maintenance application.

What construction type are most modern metal aircraft structures?. Semi-monocoque type construction is used for most modern metal aircraft structures. Monocoque type construction is used for most modern metal aircraft structures. Truss type construction is used for most modern metal aircraft structures.

What statement is true, regarding passenger entry doors on large transport aircraft?. Passenger entry doors on large transport aircraft are usually plug-type doors. Passenger entry doors on large transport aircraft are usually non-plug type doors. Passenger entry doors on large transport aircraft are usually electrically operated doors.

Which type of wing structure is the most common for a transport aircraft?. Cantilever high wing is the most common wing structure. Non cantilever wing is the most common wing structure. Cantilever low wing is the most common wing structure.

What can be installed on the wings leading edge?. Elevators are installed on a wing's leading edge, as well as slats. Spoilers are installed on a wing's leading edge, as well as slats. Leading edge flaps are installed on a wing's leading edge, as well as slats.

What is the structural component which can be found in a metal wing but not found on a metal fuselage?. A skin is a component part of a metal wing that cannot be found on a metal fuselage. A stringer is a component part of a metal wing that cannot be found on a metal fuselage. A rib is a component part of a metal wing that cannot be found on a metal fuselage.

How are the spars of a vertical stabiliser positioned?. The spars of a vertical stabiliser are positioned longitudinally. The spars of a vertical stabiliser are positioned laterally. The spars of a vertical stabiliser are positioned vertically.

Why is mass balance on a control surface provided?. Control surface mass balance assists the pilot to move the controls during high aircraft speed. Control surface mass balance prevents control surface flutter. Control surface mass balance reduces the weight of the control surface.

How is the aerodynamic balance of control surfaces normally provided?. Building-in weights forward of the hinge line achieves the aerodynamic balance. Building-in weights aft of the hinge line achieves the aerodynamic balance. Arranging some surface area forward of the hinge line achieves the aerodynamic balance.

Which type of engine pylon is sometimes called a 'stub wing'?. Under-wing pylon represents a 'stub wing'. Wing root internal engine mounting represents a 'stub wing'. Aft fuselage engine mount represents a 'stub wing.

Where does the vacuum to operate the outflow valve comes from?. Vacuum is taken from a dedicated vacuum pump, to operate the outflow valve. Vacuum is taken from ambient air, to operate the outflow valve. Vacuum is taken from the aircraft's vacuum system, to operate the outflow valve.

What is the purpose of the "CHK" mode in pressurization system?. The "CHK" mode is used to check the altitude pressure. The "CHK" mode is used to check the cabin altitude. The "CHK" mode is used to test the system on the ground.

What is the purpose of the differential capsule in a pneumatic cabin pressure controller?. Controls the cabin pressure rate of change. Controls the cabin differential pressure. Controls the cabin air flow.

What purposes does the pneumatic manifold serve?. The pneumatic manifold serves as the central reservoir for the supply of pressurised air for air conditioning, hydraulic system pressurisation, water tank pressurisation. The pneumatic manifold serves as the central reservoir for the supply of pressurised air for air conditioning, water tank pressurisation and turbofans. The pneumatic manifold serves as the central reservoir for the supply of pressurised air for air conditioning, hydraulic system pressurisation, water tank pressurisation and turbofans.

When is the pack flow reduced or shut-off, to unload the engines?. During take-off or landing modes, the pack flow will be reduced or shut-off to unload the engines. During low-altitude flights or landing modes, the pack flow will be reduced or shut-off to unload the engines. During descent mode, the pack flow will be reduced or shut-off to unload the engines.

What is the expansion valve in a vapour cycle cooling system used for?. The expansion valve In a vapour cycle cooling system is used to cool the refrigerant. The expansion valve in a vapour cycle cooling system is used to bypass the refrigerant if it is over-pressure. The expansion valve in a vapour cycle cooling system is used to reduce the pressure of the refrigerant.

How is air conditioning achieved in pressurized aircraft which use engine compressor bleed air as the cabin air supply?. Air conditioning is achieved by adding heat to the bleed air. Air conditioning is achieved by extracting heat from the bleed air. Air conditioning is achieved by varying cabin pressure using a venture tube.

What are the minimum requirements for electrically independent standby flight instrumentation?. Turn coordinator, altimeter, airspeed indicator, compass. Heading indicator, attitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed indicator. Airspeed Indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter, attitude indicator.

Which display can show Synthetic Vision Technology (SVT) terrain and obstacles?. The PFD can display SVT. The MFD can display SVT. A dedicated display unit displays SVT.

What technology is used to detect potential ground conflict in a Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS). A TAWS system uses a GPS and a builtin terrain database. A TAWS system uses a radar scanning and display screen. A TAWS system uses a radio communication with Air Traffic Control.

What colour is the Outer Marker Beacon indication? (5-82). The Outer Marker Beacon indication is amber. The Outer Marker Beacon indication is white. The Outer Marker Beacon indication is blue.

How is load sharing performed in a twin engine aeroplane?. Load sharing is performed by a voltage regulator connected to each alternator, and an electronic circuit which controls the field current to each alternator to provide an equal voltage output. Load sharing is performed by an overvoltage protector connected to each alternator, and an electronic circuit which controls the field current to each alternator to provide an equal voltage output. Load sharing is performed by a voltage regulator connected to each alternator, and an electronic circuit which controls the output resistance of each alternator to provide an equal voltage output.

Which electrical components overheat if a lower frequency than the design frequency of an AC is supplied?. Both capacitive and inductive devices become overheated due to the AC supply lower frequencies. Inductive devices become overheated due to the AC supply lower frequencies. Capacitive devices become overheated due to the AC supply lower frequencies.

What is the line voltage on a delta connected AC generator, if the phase voltage is 115 V?. The line voltage is 115 V, on a delta connected AC generator. The line voltage is 200 V, on a delta connected AC generator. The line voltage is 66 V, on a delta connected AC generator.

Which type of battery cell has an open-circuit voltage of between 2.8 and 3.6 V (depending upon the type of cathode material used)?. Alkaline-manganese cells and mercury cells have an open-circuit en-circuit voltage of between 2.8 and 3.6 V. Silver oxide cells and lithium cells have an open-circuit voltage of between 2.8 and 3.6 V. Only lithium cells have an open-circuit voltage of between 2.8 and 3.6 V.

What is the purpose of CO2 gas used together with Nitrogen gas, in the inflation cylinders?. The CO2 gas is used to slow down the rate at which the cylinders vaive expends the gases. The CO2 gas is used to quicken the rate at which the cylinders valve expends the gases. The CO2 gas is used due to its fire proof properties, to mitigate the probability of a fire occurrence.

How is buoyancy achieved in life jackets?. Buoyancy is achieved in life jackets by inflating them with helium gas. Buoyancy is achieved in life jackets by inflating them with carbon dioxide (CO2). Buoyancy is achieved in life jackets by using built-in floatation devices.

What is the minimum occupant mass that a passenger seat must withstand?. 77 kg is the minimum mass a seat must withstand. 79 kg is the minimum mass a seat must withstand. 65 kg is the minimum mass a seat must withstand.

What prevents cargo from shifting during flight, in a cargo compartment?. Cargo nets attached to anchor plates on side walls and loop fittings on ceilings. Vinyl curtains used to close containers prevent cargo from shifting during flight. Cargo liners attached with quick-release studs prevent cargo from shifting during flight.

Which statement is true, regarding these galley installations?. Galley Installations are not provided with electrical power for safety reasons and their function is considered not critical. Galley Installations are provided with electrical power, however the usage may be restricted during periods of high electrical system demand. Galley installations are provided with electrical power which is always fully available during all phases of flight.

What is the location of overhead storage bins?. Overhead storage bins' exact locations are fixed by design. They cannot be moved without an amendment to the Type Certificate. Overhead storage bins' exact locations can be modified to position them correctly in relation to the configuration of seats and other installations. Overhead storage bins' exact locations can be modified but only with a major structural modification approval.

What is the colour of the fire extinguisher blow out disk?. Green is the colour of the bursting disc following the extinguisher discharge by normal firing. Yellow is the colour of the bursting disc following the extinguisher discharge by normal firing. Red is the colour of the bursting disc following the extinguisher discharge by normal firing.

How does a thermal switch work?. Thermal expansion principle explains how a thermal switch works. Capacitance change principle explains how a thermal switch works. Resistance change principle explains how a thermal switch works.

Where must lavatory NO SMOKING placards be displayed?. NO SMOKING placards are displayed outside of lavatories only, so they are prominent to passengers entering the lavatory. They are not required to be displayed inside the lavatory. NO SMOKING placards are displayed only inside the lavatory. They are not required to be displayed outside the lavatory as no- one will read them. NO SMOKING placards are displayed both inside the lavatory and outside of lavatories, so they are prominent to passengers entering the lavatory.

What statement is true, regarding the securing of the operating handle of a hand held portable fire extinguisher?. A hand held portable fire extinguisher operating handle is secured with steel locking wire. A hand held portable fire extinguisher operating handle is fitted secured with any type of wire. A hand held portable fire extinguisher operating handle is fitted with copper 'tell-tale' wire.

What statement is true, regarding the function of a control horn on a control surface?. A horn balance makes movement of the control easier. A horn balance makes movement of the control stiffer. A horn balance adds extra weight behind the hinge line.

Which part of a wing is a stall wedge (or stall strip) fitted to?. A stall wedge is fitted to the wing root leading edge to ensure that the wing stall commences from the root. A stall wedge is fitted to the wing tip leading edge to ensure that the wing stall commences from the tip. A stall wedge is fitted to the wing root leading edge to ensure that the wing stall commences from the tip.

What is the example of active load control?. ANTI-SKID. RMLA. Speed brakes.

How is the hydraulic actuator configured in a hydraulically-assisted control system?. The hydraulic actuator is in series with the manual control system. The hydraulic actuator is in parallel with the manual control system. The hydraulic actuator replaces the manual control system.

What happens if an inhibition occurs, when speedbrakes are extended (Airbus A320)?. If an inhibition occurs when speedbrakes are extended, they retract automatically and stay retracted until the inhibition condition disappears. If an inhibition occurs when speedbrakes are extended, they retract automatically and stay retracted until the pilots reset the lever. If an inhibition occurs when When carrying out a control surface friction check, how should the static friction compare with the run speedbrakes are extended, they retract automatically and stay retracted until the inhibition condition disappears and the pilots reset the lever.

What is used in a high "g" manoeuvre, where wing load is at a maximum, in order to perform a manoeuvre load alleviation, in an aircraft equipped with a fly-by-wire system?. The ailerons are deflected downward (15° max) to create an upward force on the wing, which in turn reduces the overall load on the wing. The ailerons are deflected upward (11" max) to create a downward force on the wing, which in turn reduces the overall load on the wing. The lift dampers are deflected upward (18° max) to create an upward force on the wing, which in turn reduces the overall load on the wing.

What statement is true, regarding the occurrence of control surface flutter?. Control surface flutter is most likely to occur at high aircraft speed. Control surface flutter is most likely to occur at low aircraft speed. Control surface flutter is equally likely to occur at any aircraft speed.

What must the repair technician do to prevent the possibility of control surface flutter after the aileron composite repair?. The technician must increase the mass of the ballast weight that is fitted forwards of the aileron hinge line. The technician must decrease the mass of the ballast weight that is fitted forwards of the aileron hinge line. No action is required to adjust the mass of the ballast weight that is fitted forwards of the aileron hinge line, because the possibility of control surface flutter is not affected by the mass of the aileron.

When carrying out a control surface friction check, how should the static friction compare with the running friction?. When carrying out a control surface friction check, the static friction should be greater than the running friction and both should be within the limits provided in the maintenance manual. When carrying out a control surface friction check, the static friction should be less than the running friction and both should be within the limits provided in the maintenance manual. When carrying out a control surface friction check, the static friction should be equal to the running friction within the tolerance provided in the maintenance manual.

Why is a fly-by-wire control system software written by different and independent computer programmers?. Software is secure from hackers, if written by different and independent computer programmers. Channels do not contain a common software bug, if written by different and independent computer programmers. Best of the programmes can be used, if written by different and independent computer programmers.

How does the Load Alleviation Function alleviate the forces caused by an up-gust?. By deflecting both ailerons in the same direction, and operating spoilers, when an up-gust is detected by accelerometers. By an up-gust by deflecting the elevator downwards, and operating spoilers, when an up-gust is detected by accelerometers. By an up-gust by deflecting the elevator, and both ailerons in the same direction, when an up-gust is detected by accelerometers.

What statement is true, regarding trim switches on the control yoke/stick, on aeroplanes that have electrically operated three-axis trim?. Aeroplanes that have electrically operated three-axis trim is most likely to have trim switches on the control yoke/stick for aileron and rudder. Aeroplanes that have electrically operated three-axis trim is most likely to have trim switches on the control yoke/stick for elevator and rudder. Aeroplanes that have electrically operated three-axis trim is most likely to have trim switches on the control yoke/stick for aileron and elevator.

When is a stick shaker designed to operate?. A stick shaker is designed to operate shortly after the stall. A stick shaker is designed to operate in advance of the stall. A stick shaker is designed to operate at the commencement of the stall.

How are the flaps and slats operated at cruising speed?. Flaps are retracted and the slats are extended. Flaps and slats are both retracted. Flaps are extended and the slats are retracted.

Which type of fire cannot be extinguished using pressurised water extinguishers?. Electrical fires cannot be extinguished using pressurised water extinguishers. Flammable liquid fires cannot be extinguished using pressurised water extinguishers. Fires on the flight deck cannot be extinguished using pressurised water extinguishers.

What statement is true regarding ULDs?. ULDs are electrically operated drive units which are used to move cargo from side to side and fore and aft in the cargo compartment. ULDs are certified containers into which cargo is first loaded before the containers are loaded into the cargo compartment. ULDS are restraint systems that prevent cargo from shifting in wide open berths which may upset the centre of gravity of the aircraft during aircraft manoeuvres.

How can airstairs be operated?. Airstairs can be operated from inside the aircraft only. Airstairs can be operated from outside the aircraft only. Airstairs can be operated from either inside or outside the aircraft.

Which statement is true regarding the EASA requirements of evacuation of the aircraft?. EASA requires the evacuation of the entire aircraft in 60 seconds using 50% of the available evacuation exits. EASA requires the evacuation of the entire aircraft in 90 seconds using 50% of the available evacuation exits. EASA requires the evacuation of the entire aircraft in 90 seconds using 30% of the available evacuation exits.

What statement is true, regarding the types of circuits that can be powered from a frequency wild generator?. A frequency wild generator may damage resistive components. Inductive and capacitive components are not affected by frequency wild power supply. A frequency wild generator may damage capacitive components. Resistive and inductive components are not affected by frequency wild power supply. A frequency wild generator may damage capacitive and inductive components. Resistive components are not affected by frequency wild power supply.

What systems does ACARS use? (5-60). ACARS uses HF or SATCOM systems. ACARS uses VHF or HF systems. ACARS uses VHF or SATCOM systems.

What antennas has an ADF system? (5-74). An ADF system has both a sense and a loop antenna. An ADF system has a loop antenna only. It does Dot have a sense antenna. An ADF system has a sense antenna only. It does not have a loop antenna.

What initiates the Dutch roll oscillation in aircraft? (5-40). A sudden gust or a short uncoordinated rudder deflection initiates the Dutch roll oscillation in aircraft. An out of balance Centre Gravity condition initiates the Dutch roll oscillation in aircraft. Excessive movement of the pitch trim system initiates the Dutch roll oscillation in aircraft.

What circuits can the basic moving coil meter (D'Arsonval meter) be used on? (5-158). D'Arsonval meter can be used on AC circuits only. D'Arsonval meter can be used on DC circuits only. D'Arsonval meter can be used on AC or DC circuits.

What happens if the cabin altitude increases above the permitted maximum?. A warning horn operates in the cockpit if the cabin altitude increases above the permitted maximum. Compressor delivery is automatically increased if the cabin altitude increases above the permitted maximum. An inward relief valve opens if the cabin altitude increases above the permitted maximum.

How is the process of heat energy transfer by the vertical currents in a liquid or gas achieved?. Heat energy is transferred by way of conduction through liquids or gas. Heat energy is transferred by way of convection through liquids or gas. Heat energy is transferred by way of radiation through liquids or gas.

What is common for all types of different flow control valves?. They regulate a specific volumetric airflow independent of the pneumatic supply pressure and dependent on the actual altitude pressure. They regulate a specific volumetric airflow dependent on the pneumatic supply pressure and the actual cabin pressure. They regulate a specific volumetric airflow independent of the pneumatic supply pressure and the actual cabin pressure.

When does the "PRESS RELIEF" warning light come on?. The "PRESS RELIEF" warning light comes on when pressure is too low. The "PRESS RELIEF" warning light comes on when pressure is too high. The "PRESS RELIEF" warning light comes on when pressure relief valve is open.

What is the purpose of the outflow valve in a pressurisation system?. The outflow valve allows air to go overboard. The outflow valve maintains cabin pressure. The outflow valve evacuates cabin foul odours.

What type/construction are the engine mounts used on a large turbine engine powered aeroplane?. Turbine engine mounts are forged chrome/nickel/molybdenum steel assemblies. Turbine engine mounts are made of rubber or elastomeric vibration absorbing materials. Turbine engine mounts are forged aluminium alloy with rubber inserts.

How is the THS attached to the fuselage?. The THS is attached to the fuselage at two points, by using two hinge points on either side of the fuselage. The THS is attached to the fuselage at three points, by the THS actuator and by the two hinge points on either side of the fuselage. The THS is attached to the fuselage by rivets and by the two hinge points on either side of the fuselage.

How are wing-mounted engine pylons attached to the wing?. Wing-mounted engine pylons are attached to wing skin. Wing-mounted engine pylons are attached to front and rear spar. Wing-mounted engine pylons are attached to front spar only.

How are the overwing exit doors protected from accidental opening, during flight?. The overwing exit doors cannot be opened during flight due to the difference of pressure between the inside and outside of the fuselage surface. ADC-activated electrical locking system prevents the overwing exit doors from accidentally opening during flight. The difference in air pressure between the two sides of the door and its firm mechanical lock prevents the overwing exit doors from opening during flight.

What should be done if a Tost release mechanism of the towing equipment does not work correctly?. If a Tost release mechanism of the towing equipment does not work correctly you can attempt to repair it yourself. If a Tost release mechanism of the towing equipment does not work correctly you must contact the Tost Factory. If a Tost release mechanism of the towing equipment does not work correctly you can continue using it as is.

What statement is true, regarding the design of over-wing emergency exits?. Over-wing emergency exits are usually designed to hinge outwards. Over-wing emergency exits are usually designed to hinge inwards into the cabin. Over-wing emergency exits are usually designed to detach completely from the fuselage structure.

How is the Passenger Cabin Information System provided to the flight attendants?. The system is provided to the flight attendants on a laptop, that contains the manual they are required to have on hand. The system is provided to the flight attendants on a small device, such as a tablet, that contains the manual they are required to have on hand. The system is provided to the flight attendants on the flight attendant's panels at various locations for ease of access.

How do flight attendants communicate with the CIDS directors?. Cabin handsets located throughout the cabin are used for communication between flight attendants and directors. Flight Attendant Panels in the cabin are used for communication between flight attendants and directors. Interphone sockets located at various places around the aircraft are used for communication between flight attendants and directors.

How are wing and fuselage skins normally attached to the internal structure of a metal aeroplane?. Wing and fuselage skins are bonded to the internal structure of a metal aeroplane. Wing and fuselage skins are bolted to the internal structure of a metal aeroplane. Wing and fusblage skins are riveted to the internal structure of a metal aeroplane.

How should aircraft be prepared before a rigging and/or symmetry check is done?. The aeroplane should be fully fuelled before a rigging and/or symmetry check. The aeroplane should be placed on v-blocks before a rigging and/or symmetry check. The aeroplane should be levelled laterally and longitudinally before a rigging and/or symmetry check.

How many inputs and outputs does a jet pump on a fuel system has?. A fuel jet pump must have 1 fuel inlet and 1 fuel outlet. A fuel jet pump must have 2 fuel inlets and 1 fuel outlet. A fuel jet pump must have 1 fuel inlets and 2 fuel outlet.

What statement is true, regarding the defuelling of a large transport aircraft?. Fuel pumps supply pressure for pressure defuelling, and an external defuel source provides suction for suction defuelling. Fuel pumps supply pressure for suction defuelling, and an external defuel source provides pressure for pressure defuelling. The aircraft can be defueled only by use of an external defuel source for suction defuelling.

How does system current change on a capacitive type fuel quantity indication system as fuel level decreases?. System current flow decreases as fuel level decreases. System current flow increases as fuel level decreases. System current flow suffers no change as fuel level decreases.

Which statement is true, regarding the operation of hand pumps in hydraulic systems?. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally single acting type. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally double acting type. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally low pressure type.

What are the chemicals used in a modern chemical de-icing?. Isopropyl alcohol is used in a modern chemical de-icing. A mixture of ethylene glycol and alcohol is used in a modern chemical de-icing . Ethylene glycol is used in a modern chemical de-icing.

How are tyres protected against excessive pressure due to high temperature?. By a thermal relief fuse. By a visual indicator. They are not protected.

How should aircraft tyres be stored?. Aircraft tyres should be stored vertically on racks and according to size, away from excessive light. Aircraft tyres should be stored horizontally, stacked on top of each other no more than 4 high. Aircraft tyres should be stored horizontally on racks and according to size, preferably with ultraviolet light.

What type of wheel a tubeless tyre cannot normally be fitted to?. A tubeless tyre cannot normally be fitted to well-base wheel. A tubeless tyre cannot normally be fitted to split hub wheel. A tubeless tyre cannot normally be fitted to detachable flange wheel.

What are the components resulting from the rapid decomposition of sodium chlorate and iron, inside a chemical oxygen generator?. Salt, iron oxide and oxygen are the components resulting from the rapid decomposition of sodium chlorate and iron. 100% pure oxygen are the components resulting from the rapid decomposition of sodium chlorate and iron. Iron oxide and oxygen are the components resulting from the rapid decomposition of sodium chlorate and iron.

When can contamination of an oxygen cylinder occur?. If oxygen cylinder pressure is allowed to fall below approximately 200 PSI. The contamination is moisture and it must be purged in accordance with prescribed procedures. If oxygen cylinder comes into contact with oil. The contamination must be purged in accordance with prescribed procedures. If oxygen cylinder pressure is allowed to fall below approximately 200 PSI. The cylinder must be returned to the manufacturer for testing and decontamination.

What is a requirement of emergency lighting on aeroplanes?. Emergency lightning must not require any external power supply (i.e. be self illuminating), and operate at full brightness for a minimum of 5 minutes. Emergency lightning must be powered independently of the aeroplane main electrical power supply, and operate at full brightness for a minimum of 30 minutes. Emergency lightning must be powered independently of the aeroplane main electrical power supply, and operate at full brightness for a minimum of 10 minutes.

What type(s) of lights are using Xenon flash tube lighting extensively?. Xenon flash tube lighting are used only for external lights. They are not used for internal lights. Xenon flash tube lighting are used only for internal lights. They are not used for external lights. Xenon flash tube lighting are used for external and they are used for internal lights.

What other systems interface with an aircraft pneumatic system supplied from engine bleed?. Engine thrust reverse system, air conditioning system, anti-icing system, and the APU. Anti-icing system, APU, engine thrust control system and the air-conditioning system. Air-conditioning system, anti-icing system and the flight instrument system.

How many compression stages are required to obtain a working pressure of 24 MN/m² (3,500 lbf/in²) in a typical pneumatic system?. One compression stage is required to obtain a working pressure of 24 MN/m² (3,500 lbf/in²) in a typical pneumatic system. Seven compression stages are required to obtain a working pressure of 24 MN/m² (3,500 lbf/in²) in a typical pneumatic system. Four compression stages are required to obtain a working pressure of 24 MN/m² (3,500 lbf/in²) in a typical pneumatic system.

What will happen to the toilet system if a toilet tank venturi vent is blocked?. The toilet will not be supplied with enough vacuum to provide flushing, if a toilet tank venturi vent is blocked. Foul odours from the tank will enter the lavatory, if a toilet tank venturi vent is blocked. The toilet motor may overheat due to inadequate cooling, if a toilet tank venturi vent is blocked.

What measures must be taken to combat toilet system microbiological corrosion?. The use of titanium pipes for toilet waste, effective drainage from crevices in the structures of any leakages, and easily accessible inspection areas at regular intervals are effective measures to combat the corrosion threat to toilet system. The use of aluminium pipes for toilet waste, effective drainage from crevices in the structures of any leakages, and easily accessible inspection areas are effective measures to combat the corrosion threat. The use of aluminium for toilet waste, effective drainage from crevices in the structures of any leakages, and the use of water based cleaners are effective measures to combat the corrosion threat.

Where are modern aircraft printers usually located?. Aircraft printers are usually located at the flight station centre pedestal. Aircraft printers are usually located at the main equipment centre. Aircraft printers are usually located at the communications centre.

How are the overwing exit doors protected from accidental opening during flight?. The overwing exit doors cannot be opened during flight due to the difference of pressure between the inside and outside of the fuselage surface. A DC-activated electrical locking system prevents the overwing exit doors from accidentally opening during flight. The difference in air pressure between the two sides of the door and its firm mechanical lock prevents the overwing exit doors from opening during flight.

Which control surfaces are used for roll?. Rudder. Ailerons. Elevators.

With respect to an air conditioning system, for what does the abbreviation "PSU" stand?. "PSU" stands for Power Service Unit. "PSU" stands for Pack Service Unit. "PSU" stands for Passenger Service Unit.

What device prevents cabin altitude from exceeding an altitude of 10,000 ft.?. A diaphragm in the outflow valve protects cabin altitude from exceeding an altitude of 10,000 ft. An altitude sensor and flight deck warning system protect cabin altitude from exceeding an altitude of 10,000 ft. The cabin pressure relief valve protects cabin altitude from exceeding an altitude of 10,000 ft.

What purpose does the activation of 'ditching control' system provide?. The activation of 'ditching control' provides rapid cabin depressurisation in an emergency. The activation of 'ditching control' maintains cabin pressure at the sea level value for all normal altitudes. The activation of 'ditching control' closes the pressurisation system outflow valves, and closes all other valves to prevent water ingress.

How does ACARS communicate in uncovered areas of the world without a link to a ground station?. ACARS communicates through a VHF transceiver via the SATCOM system. ACARS communicates through satellite communication only. ACARS communicates through AVICOM at 131.450 MHz.

Why do aircraft crews keep the radio volume low when using HF radio? (5-56). To reduce background noise levels in the cockpit. To conserve battery power on the aircraft. To prevent interference with other aircraft communications.

Where may the fault reside, in paralleled circuits, if the reactive-load sharing CCT is unable to balance the loads?. The fault could be in the generator’s overexcitation circuit, or the generator’s voltage regulator. The fault could be in the reactive-load sharing circuit, or the generator’s overexcitation circuit. The fault could be in the reactive-load sharing circuit, or the generator’s voltage regulator.

Which statement is true, regarding the use of inverters, or rectifiers, on small aeroplanes with an AC distribution system?. Small aeroplanes with an AC distribution system may use inverters in an emergency, for example, after a loss of generator. Small aeroplanes with an AC distribution system may use rectifiers in an emergency, for example, after a loss of generator. Small aeroplanes with an AC distribution system may use inverters in normal operation to charge the battery.

Why is the temperature of the electrolyte taken into account when checking the specific gravity of a lead-acid battery electrolyte?. Temperature must be taken into account because the density of the electrolyte is affected by it. Temperature must be taken into account because the mass of the electrolyte is affected by it. Temperature must be taken into account because the volume of the electrolyte is affected by it.

What happens to the ripple frequency and voltage, respectively, if a large number of coils is added to a magnetic AC generator?. By adding a large number of coils, the ripple frequency is further increased, and the output voltage becomes smoother. By adding a large number of coils, the ripple frequency is further ased, and the output voltage becomes smoother.decre. By adding a large number of coils, the ripple frequency is further increased, and the output waveform is high frequency pulsating DC.

With what do you clean passenger seat belts?. Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) is used for cleaning passenger seat belts. Warm water with low alkalinity soap is used for cleaning passenger seat belts. White spirit is used for cleaning passenger seat belts.

How long does an aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers have to evacuate all occupants under simulated emergency conditions?. There is 60 seconds to evacuate all occupants under simulated emergency conditions. There is 90 seconds to evacuate all occupants under simulated emergency conditions. There is 120 seconds to evacuate all occupants under simulated emergency conditions.

Why is any lifejacket provided with a standby mouth inflation valve?. A standby mouth inflation valve is provided in case the CO2 system is inoperative as the CO2 bottle becomes empty after a long period of immersion. A standby mouth inflation valve is provided to 'top-up' the pressure after a long period of immersion or after a rupture in one of the air pockets of the vest. A standby mouth inflation valve is provided in case the CO2 system is inoperative, or if it is necessary to 'top-up' the pressure after a long period of immersion.

Where is the tube of a pneumatic-type fire detector connected?. The tube of a pneumatic-type fire detector is connected to a pressure switch. The tube of a pneumatic-type fire detector is connected to a temperature switch. The tube of a pneumatic-type fire detector is connected to a warning light.

What statement is true, regarding the use of gust locks?. Gust locks are most often used on aircraft with control systems which are hydraulically operated. Gust locks are most often used on aircraft with control systems which are cable or push rod operated. Gust locks are most often used on aircraft with control systems which are mass balanced.

What control surface helps prevent a stall during a stall warning?. By extaximum, in order to perform a maneuver load alleviation, in an aircraft equipped with a fly-byending the flaps. By extending the slats. By retracting the flaps and slats.

When does a stall warning system operate?. A stall warning system operates at the stall speed of the aeroplane. A stall warning system operates at a speed slightly above the stall speed of the aeroplane. A stall warning system operates at a speed slightly below the stall speed of the aeroplane.

Which statement is true regarding the Airbus A320 THS mechanical control?. THS mechanical control is available by the use of the pitch trim wheel only when the electrical system has failed. THS mechanical control is available by the use of the pitch trim wheel at any time over the electrical system. THS mechanical control is available by the use of the pitch trim wheel only when the electrical and hydraulic systems have failed.

How is control surface flutter reduced?. Control surface flutter is reduced by the use of a mass balance. Control surface flutter is reduced by the use of a horn balance. Control surface flutter is reduced by the use of an internal balance.

What prevents the fuel from running out of the boost pump canister after removal?. Non-return valve. Pressure switch. The slide valve.

What statement is correct regarding the refueling procedure?. When refueling, the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full. When refueling, it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank. When refueling, it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank.

Which fuel parameter warnings are typically displayed in the cockpit?. Tank level and system components malfunctions only, are typically displayed in the cockpit. Tank level, fuel imbalance, fuel pressure, and impossible fuel transfer, are typically displayed in the cockpit. Tank level, system components malfunctions, fuel imbalance, and impossible fuel transfer, are typically displayed in the cockpit.

What does the automatic control of CG depend on if trim tanks are installed?. The automatic control of CG depends on fuel quantity in each tank and aircraft loading only. The automatic control of CG depends on zero fuel, fuel quantity in each tank and aircraft loading only. The automatic control of CG depends on zero fuel, fuel quantity in each tank, fuel flow signals, and aircraft loading.

What can lead to hydraulic pump low pressure, during a very long flight in a cold-soaked aircraft fitted with an atmospheric pressurised hydraulic reservoir?. Water trapped in the reservoir pressurisation system freeze-blocking the reservoir bleed air supply. Water trapped in the hydraulic system freeze-blocking the non-return valves. Water trapped in the hydraulic system freeze-blocking the pressure-relief valves.

What is Exxon Hyjet V hydraulic fluid based on?. Exxon Hyjet V hydraulic fluid is phosphate ester-based. Exxon Hyjet V hydraulic fluid is mineral-based. Exxon Hyjet V hydraulic fluid is vegetable-based.

Why can hydraulic systems control motion without being affected by temperature, unlike cable systems?. Because it is a system that contains a fluid reservoir as a means of temperature fluid compensation. Because it is a system based upon an incompressible work fluid. Because it is a closed system (not open to the atmosphere).

How is hydraulic fluid pumped in a spur gear type hydraulic pump that consists of two (2) gears which turn inside a housing?. Most of the hydraulic fluid is pumped between the gears and the housing. None of the fluid goes between the 2 gears. Most of the hydraulic fluid is pumped between the two gears. None of the fluid goes between the gears and the housing. Most of the hydraulic fluid is pumped equally between the 2 gears, and between the gears and the housing.

What provides a positive flow of hydraulic pressure from the hydraulic reservoir to the hydraulic pump?. An electric motor-driven pump inside the reservoir ensures the positive flow of hydraulic pressure. Pressurizing the reservoir with engine compressor bleed air ensures the positive flow of hydraulic pressure. A hydraulic accumulator that provides pressure to the surface of the fluid in the reservoir ensures the positive flow of hydraulic pressure.

Which condition does clear ice form in?. Clear ice forms when flying in very dense clouds. Clear ice forms with the aircraft on the ground. Clear ice forms when flying above the clouds.

Hoarfrost is most likely to be visible on what wing areas?. Hoarfrost is most likely to be visible on areas where integral fuel tanks are located. Hoarfrost is most likely to be visible on areas where there are no fuel tanks located. Hoarfrost is most likely to be visible on areas that are constructed of composite materials.

What statement is true, regarding the thermal expansion and contraction of ducting of a hot air de-icing system?. By the use of a material which has a low coefficient of thermal expansion. By the use of bellows of gimbal type expansion joints. By the use of lagging to prevent the ducting getting hot.

What is the purpose of the head compensating unit fitted in a chemical type anti-icing system?. To compensate for differences in level between the wings, horizontal and vertical stabilisers. To compensate for differences in pressure due to aircraft flight altitudes which affects fluid flow. To compensate for differences in flow pressure between wing inboard and outboard anti-icing panels.

What system powers almost all windshield wiper systems?. The pneumatic system is used to power almost all windshield wiper systems. The hydraulic system is used to power almost all windshield wiper systems. Electric motors are used to power almost all windshield wiper systems.

Which statement is true regarding the deterioration of hydrophobic coatings?. The hydrophobic coating deteriorates with time depending upon wiper use and windscreen cleaning methods, but can be re-applied. The hydrophobic coating deteriorates with time depending upon wiper use and windscreen cleaning methods, and the windshield pane must be replaced. The hydrophobic coating deteriorates due to wiper use and windscreen cleaning methods, but can be re-applied.

What action should be taken if bulges are found in tyres?. The tyre can normally stay in service providing they do not become large and are not associated with cracks. The tyre should be removed and returned to the re-treader for further inspection. The tyre can be repaired by applying an internal patch providing it is not excessive size.

What statement is true, regarding the amount of pressure inside a fluorescent lamp?. The pressure inside a fluorescent lamp is equal to atmospheric pressure. The pressure inside a fluorescent lamp is much less than atmospheric pressure. The pressure inside a fluorescent lamp is much more than atmospheric pressure.

When would occupant become unconscious without supplemental oxygen or cabin pressurisation, at 30,000 feet?. 1 to 2 seconds is the time that it takes for an occupant to become unconscious at 30,000 feet, due to lack of oxygen. 1 to 2 minutes is the time that it takes for an occupant to become unconscious at 30,000 feet, due to lack of oxygen. 1 to 2 hours is the time that it takes for an occupant to become unconscious at 30,000 feet, due to lack of oxygen.

What colour is an identification label on a breathing oxygen pipeline?. An identification label on a breathing oxygen pipeline is blue. An identification label on a breathing oxygen pipeline is yellow. An identification label on a breathing oxygen pipeline is green.

How is the pressure released when the moisture separator in a pneumatic system is drained?. Pressure is released from the whole system, when the moisture separator in a pneumatic system is drained. Pressure is released from only the moisture trap, when the moisture separator in a pneumatic system is drained. Pressure is released from the system between compressor and regulator valve, when the moisture separator in a pneumatic system is drained.

How is air compressed in the annular space between the steps of cylinder 2 and piston, of a typical pneumatic system pump?. Air is compressed in the annular space between the steps of cylinder 2 and piston, by the downward stroke of piston 1. Air is compressed in the annular space between the steps of cylinder 2 and piston, by the upward stroke of piston 1. Air is compressed in the annular space between the steps of cylinder 2 and piston, by the downward stroke of piston 2.

How is the Central Maintenance Computer (CMC) controlled?. The Central Maintenance Computer is controlled through the MCDUs (multipurpose control display units). The Central Maintenance Computer is controlled through mouse and keyboard. The Central Maintenance Computer is controlled through EFIS (electronic flight instrument system).

What is the purpose of bonding straps?. Bonding straps ensure that electricity cannot flow across bearings and hinges. Bonding straps ensure a low resistance for static dissipation, lightning protection and electrical system return path. Bonding straps ensure that lightning will not strike critical parts of the airframe structure.

How are aircraft radomes protected against lightning strike?. Aircraft radomes have conductive diverter strips protect against lightning strike. Aircraft radomes have conductive paint protect against lightning strike. Aircraft radomes do not require lightning protection because they are made of non-conducting composite materials.

Which structural component may be machined from solid aluminium alloy billet in highly stressed areas?. Formers may be machined from solid aluminium alloy billet in highly stressed areas. Frames may be machined from solid aluminium alloy billet in highly stressed areas. Bulkheads may be machined from solid aluminium alloy billet in highly stressed areas.

What do the components for entertaining the passengers on a modern aircraft include?. Video screens and audio outlets only are part of passengers entertaining system. Video screens, audio outlets and internet connectivity are part of passengers entertaining system. Internet connectivity for hand-held devices only is part of passengers entertaining system.

What statement is true, regarding the seat track cut-outs on large passenger carrying aircraft?. Seat spacings are usually in one foot increments. Seat spacings are usually in one inch increments. Seat spacings are usually in half inch increments.

What name is an integral fuel tank also known for?. A 'Wet tank' is an integral fuel tank. A 'Bladder tank' is an integral fuel tank. A 'Rigid removable tank' is an integral fuel tank.

How is the vertical stabiliser normally attached to the tail fuselage section?. The vertical stabiliser is normally bolted to the tail fuselage section. The vertical stabiliser is normally riveted to the tail fuselage section. The vertical stabiliser is normally welded to the tail fuselage section.

How is a control surface centre of gravity positioned, in order to eliminate flutter?. A mass must be balanced so that the control surface centre of gravity is behind its hinge line. A mass must be balanced so that the control surface centre of gravity is ahead of its hinge line. A mass must be balanced so that the control surface centre of gravity is exactly on its hinge line.

What statement is true, regarding the function of the engine pylon?. An engine pylon supports the engine and nacelle. An engine pylon houses the engine and provides a streamlined enclosure. An engine pylon protects the wing/fuselage structure from fire and heat from the engine.

Which source of pneumatic air cannot usually be switched on/off from the flight deck?. The APU cannot usually be switched on/off from the flight deck. The Ground Pneumatic Cart cannot usually be switched on/off from the flight deck. The Ram Air cannot usually be switched on/off from the flight deck.

Which statement is true, regarding the operation of a trim tab?. A trim tab allows the pilot to fly hands off. A trim tab can be adjusted to set a permanent load on the control. A trim tab is used when normal control surface movements become difficult.

What does the lowering of the leading edge of an all moving tailplane induce?. The aircraft will pitch up by lowering of the leading edge of an all moving tailplane. The aircraft will pitch down by lowering of the leading edge of an all moving tailplane. The elevator is moved up by lowering of the leading edge of an all moving tailplane.

What is the purpose of a saw tooth leading edge?. A saw tooth leading edge helps to prevent spanwise flow of the airflow across the wing. A saw tooth leading edge increases the critical Mach number of the aircraft. A saw tooth leading edge increases the lift of the aircraft at low speeds.

What is the relative value of the force exerted by the output piston if a simple hydraulic jack has an input piston of diameter 1/4 Inch (6 mm) and an output piston of 1 inch (24 mm)?. The output piston force value will be 4 times the force applied to the input piston. The output piston force value will be 16 times the force applied to the input piston. The output piston force value will be 2 times the force applied to the input piston.

What happen to the swashplate position in a hydraulic pump with a variable angle swashplate, when not being driven?. The swashplate is at maximum angle, corresponding to the maximum pump stroke, when not being driven. The swashplate is at 90 degrees to the driveshaft, corresponding to the maximum pump stroke, when not being driven. The swashplate is at minimum angle, corresponding to the minimum pump stroke, when not being driven.

What affect does the operation of the inlet cowl thermal anti ice system has on the operation of the stall protection stick shaker?. It causes the stall protection stick shaker to operate at 10 knots higher speed. It causes the stall protection stick shaker to operate at 10 knots lower speed. It has no affect on the operation of the stall protection stick shaker.

Why is Rainex repellent better to be used, than traditional wipers?. Unlike rain repellent, traditional wipers can sometimes leave streaks and smudges on windscreens, obstructing visibility and creating distractions. Unlike rain repellent, traditional wipers can sometimes leave streaks and smudges on windscreens, while on acrylic windscreen they cari produce damage. Unlike rain repellent, traditional wipers can leave marks on acrylic windshields, obstructing visibility and creating distractions.

When is a self-illuminating emergency light dangerous?. When it is broken, due to leak of radioactive tritium, a self-illuminating emergency light is dangerous. When it is switched on due to the heat generated, a self-illuminating emergency light is dangerous. When it is switched off due to instability, a self-illuminating emergency light is dangerous, therefore it must never be switched off.

What is the lightning angle of a Taxi Light beam, compared to a Landing Light beam's?. The Taxi Light beam has a wider lightning angle than the Landing Light beam's angle. The Taxi Light beam has a narrower lightning angle than the Landing Light beam's angle. The Taxi Light beam has the same lightning angle as the Landing Light beam's angle.

When would occupant become unconscious without supplemental oxygen or cabin pressurisation, at 30,000 feet?. 1 to 2 seconds is the time that it takes for an occupant to become unconscious at 30,000 feet, due to lack of oxygen. 1 to 2 minutes is the time that it takes for an occupant to become unconscious at 30,000 feet, due to lack of oxygen. 1 to 2 hours is the time that it takes for an occupant to become unconscious at 30,000 feet, due to lack of oxygen.

How are the threaded fittings on oxygen pipelines correctly assembled?. Using Teflon sealing tape of the recommended specification, applied to only the first threads of the male fitting, and the tape should be wrapped in a direction opposite to the running thread. Using Teflon sealing tape of the recommended specification, applied to all except the first threads of the male fitting, and the tape should be wrapped in a direction opposite to the running thread. Using Teflon sealing tape of the recommended specification, applied to all except the first threads of the male fitting, and the tape should be wrapped in the same direction as the running thread.

How does the Brake Control Valve, in a pneumatic braking system, control pneumatic pressure to the brakes?. Pneumatic pressure to the brakes is controlled in response to pilot input at the rudder pedal. Pneumatic pressure to the brakes is controlled in order to release pressure automatically to prevent skidding. Pneumatic pressure to the brakes is controlled in order to provide automatic braking after touch-down.

How does a leak detection that uses eutectic salt operate?. Rise in temperature causes a eutectic salt to melt and current to flow to the warning annunciation. Rise in pressure closes a pressure switch and current to flow to the warning annunciation. Rise in temperature causes thermal expansion to close a switch and current to flow to the warning annunciation.

What kind of protection does the fuel drain of a combustion heater have?. The fuel drain of a combustion heater must be protected from accidental damage. The fuel drain of a combustion heater must be protected from ice build-up. The fuel drain of a combustion heater must be protected from lightning strike.

What does it mean for a design to be 'damage tolerant'?. For a design to be 'damage tolerant' it means the design can withstand high-pressure loads. For a design to be 'damage tolerant' it means the design can bear flight and ground loads. For a design to be 'damage tolerant' it means the design allows for certain limits of damage without affecting integrity.

Which aircraft zones are supplied with conditioned air from the air conditioning system?. Cockpit and cargo zones are supplied with conditioned air. Cabin and cargo zones are supplied with conditioned air. Cockpit and cabin zones are supplied with conditioned air.

Fuselage formers are usually constructed of what material process?. Fuselage formers are made of cast aluminium alloy. Fuselage formers are made of pressed aluminium alloy sheet. Fuselage formers are made of forged aluminium alloy.

Where is the cabin pressurisation bleed air taken from?. Cabin pressurisation bleed air is taken from the APU and the engine compressor 5th stage port. Cabin pressurisation bleed air is taken from the APU and the engine turbine 5th stage port. Cabin pressurisation bleed air is taken from the engine compressor 5th stage port, only.

How does the rate of turn information from a Turn Coordinator compare to that provided by a Turn and Slip indicator?. The turn coordinator is more accurate than a turn and slip indicator which senses the rate more slowly. The turn coordinator is more instantaneous than a turn and slip indicator which senses the rate more slowly. The turn coordinator is less accurate than a turn and slip indicator which senses the rate more slowly.

What is the altitude if an altimeter's big hand points to 6, and the little hand points to 2?. The altimeter is indicating 6,200 ft. The altimeter is indicating 2,600 ft. The altimeter is indicating 26,000 ft.

What does "2 MIN TURN" mean on the turn coordinator?. "2 MIN TURN" is marked to indicate full scale deflection when the aeroplane is turning at 3 degrees per second. "2 MIN TURN" is marked to indicate that maximum turn rate of the aeroplane is 180 degrees in 1 minute. "2 MIN TURN" is marked to indicate that it indicates a minimum of 2 complete turns.

What is the relationship between frequency and wavelength? (5.2-140). Frequency is directly proportional to the wavelength. Frequency is inversely proportional to the wavelength. Frequency and wavelength have no relationship.

What happens to the busbar voltage after load-shedding from an electrical busbar?. The busbar voltage increases and current consumption decreases, after load-shedding. The busbar voltage remains unchanged and current consumption decreases, after load-shedding. The busbar voltage remains unchanged and current consumption increases, after load-shedding.

How are passenger seats secured to the floor?. Passenger seats attach to tracks on the compartment floor. Passenger seats are secured by the front legs to the side wall. Passenger seats are secured by both front and back legs to the seat in front of it.

Why is the rear seat attachment usually stronger than the front seat attachment?. Because the rear seat experiences more stress in the event of a sudden stop. Because the front seat requires more room for adjustment. Because the rear seat attachment incorporates the locking mechanism.

What does the pressure switch do in a fire detection system?. In a fire detection system, the pressure switch closes when there is high pressure in the tube. In a fire detection system, the pressure switch closes when there is no pressure in the tube. In a fire detection system, the pressure switch opens when there is high pressure in the tube.

What systems use Gust locks?. Hydraulic control system uses gust locks. Mechanical control system uses gust locks. Fly-by-wire control system uses gust locks.

How is control surface flutter reduced?. Control surface flutter is reduced by use of a mass balance. Control surface flutter is reduced by use of a horn balance. Control surface flutter is reduced by use of an internal balance.

What prevents the fuel running out of the boost pump canister after removal?. Non-return valve. Pressure switch. The slide valve.

What statement is true, regarding the defueling of a large transport aircraft?. Fuel pumps supply pressure for pressure defueling, and an external defuel source provides suction for suction defueling. Fuel pumps supply pressure for suction defueling, and an external defuel source provides pressure for pressure defueling. The aircraft can be defueled only by use of an external defuel source for suction defueling.

Which statement is true, regarding the operation of hand pumps in hydraulic systems?. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally single acting type. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally double acting type. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally low pressure type.

Which braking system is usually installed on larger aircraft?. Hydraulic high-pressure system. Hydraulic low-pressure system. Pneumatic high-pressure system.

How are brakes protected in case of hydraulic leak?. With hydraulic fuse. With a selector valve. With a sequence valve.

How does an air-ground sensing switch affect the cockpit voice recorder?. An air-ground sensing switch permits erasure of the cockpit voice recorder tape after parking brake is set. An air-ground sensing switch switches off the cockpit voice recorder after the aircraft has landed. An air-ground sensing switch locks the cockpit voice recorder tape so it cannot be erased after landing.

What is the lighting angle of a Taxi Light beam, compared to a Landing Light beam’s?. The Taxi Light beam has a wider lighting angle than the Landing Light beam’s angle. The Taxi Light beam has a narrower lighting angle than the Landing Light beam’s angle. The Taxi Light beam has the same lighting angle as the Landing Light beam’s angle.

What is the purpose of the frangible disc on a breathing oxygen cylinder?. The frangible disc is for visual indication that the oxygen cylinder has been used. The frangible disc is for sealing the cylinder for transportation. The disc is ruptured when the cylinder is fitted to the aircraft. The frangible disc is for discharging the oxygen overboard in event of over-temperature.

What does a “USE ENG PNEUM SUPPLY” mean?. The “USE ENG PNEUM SUPPLY” message means that the pneumatic system is being supplied from the APU. The “USE ENG PNEUM SUPPLY” message means that the pneumatic system is inoperable. The “USE ENG PNEUM SUPPLY” message means that the pneumatic system is being supplied from the main engines.

Which compressor stage does pneumatic system pressure regulator takes its pressure signal from?. The pressure regulator takes its pressure signal from the third-stage of the compressor. The pressure regulator takes its pressure signal from the second-stage of the compressor. The pressure regulator takes its pressure signal from the forth-stage of the compressor.

What statement is true, regarding the access to a CMC remote maintenance terminal to get CMC fault data?. Access to CMC remote maintenance terminal is done on the ground only. It cannot be accessed during flight. Access to CMC remote maintenance terminal is performed during flight only. It cannot be accessed on the ground. Access to CMC remote maintenance terminal is available with the aeroplane on the ground or during flight, as required.

How are the CPIOMs lanes designates on the Airbus A380 IMA layout?. Each lane is configured with one CPIOM designated as the command (COM) channel while the other CPIOM is designated as the monitor (MON) channel. Each lane is configured with one CPIOM designated as the Active channel while the other CPIOM is designated as the Standby channel. Each lane is configured with one CPIOM designated as the A channel while the other CPIOM is designated as the B channel.

How are the seats tracks positioned on a commercial aircraft?. The seat tracks are positioned longitudinally. The seat tracks are positioned laterally. The seat tracks are positioned vertically.

What diameter is standard bayonet connector for ground air supply (low pressure supply) to an air conditioning system?. 8 inches (200 mm) is the diameter of standard bayonet connector for ground air supply. 12 inches (300 mm) is the diameter of standard bayonet connector for ground air supply. 4 inches (100 mm) is the diameter of standard bayonet connector for ground air supply.

How is the process of the heat energy transfer by the vertical currents in a liquid or gas achieved?. Heat energy is transferred by way of conduction through liquids or gas. Heat energy is transferred by way of convection through liquids or gas. Heat energy is transferred by way of radiation through liquids or gas.

What statement is true, regarding the operation of an air cycle machine?. The turbine of an air cycle machine drives a compressor to pressurise the aircraft. The turbine of an air cycle machine drives a compressor where the charge air temperature increases. The turbine of an air cycle machine drives a compressor where the charge air temperature decreases.

What is the purpose of a turn coordinator?. A turn coordinator indicates rate of turn and provides indications of aircraft slip or skid in turns. A turn coordinator provides an indication of aircraft pitch and bank angle, and rate turn. A turn coordinator provides an indication of aircraft bank angle, and rate of turn.

What system does ACARS use?. ACARS uses HF or SATCOM systems. ACARS uses VHF or HF systems. ACARS uses VHF or SATCOM systems.

What components on ground does an Instrument Landing System (ILS) consist of?. Localizer, glideslope and non-directional beacons are the main ILS system components. Localizer, glideslope and marker beacons are the main ILS system components. VOR, glideslope and marker beacons are the main ILS system components.

How does the pilot control the autopilot in CWS mode?. In CWS mode, the pilot controls the autopilot through inputs on the yoke or stick. In CWS mode, the pilot controls the autopilot by following the Flight Director. In CWS mode, the pilot controls the autopilot by setting the heading/altitude on the MCP.

How load sharing performed in a twin engine aeroplane?. Load sharing is performed by a voltage regulator connected to each alternator, and an electronic circuit which controls the field current to each alternator to provide an equal voltage output. Load sharing is performed by an overvoltage protector connected to each alternator, and an electronic circuit which controls the field current to each alternator to provide an equal voltage output. Load sharing is performed by a voltage regulator connected to each alternator, and an electronic circuit which controls the output resistance of each alternator to provide an equal voltage output.

How is REAL load sharing achieved in a multi-generator, parallel electrical load distribution system?. REAL load sharing is achieved by the adjustment of generator drive torque. REAL load sharing is achieved by the adjustment of generator excitation. REAL load sharing is achieved by the adjustment of generator drive speed.

How are passenger seats secured to the floor?. Passenger seats attach to tracks on the compartment floor. Passenger seats are secured by the front leg to the side wall. Passenger seats are secured by both front and back legs to the seat in front of it.

What are the necessary elements for fire to start?. Heat and fuel are the necessary elements for a fire start. Heat, fuel and oxygen are necessary elements for a fire start. Fuel and oxygen are the necessary elements for a fire start.

How does system current change on a capacitive type fuel quantity indication system as fuel level decreases?. System current flow decreases as fuel level decreases. System current flow increases as fuel level decreases. System current flow suffers no change as fuel level decreases.

The differential pressure indicator warning on a hydraulic system, indicates the condition of what component?. The condition of filter is indicated by the differential pressure indicator warning. The condition of pump is indicated by the differential pressure indicator warning. The condition of reservoir is indicated by the differential pressure indicator warning.