Mancomunidad 7

1. How should chemical burns to the body be treated?. a. To treat chemical burns to the body, douse with cold water for 20 minutes and remove contaminated coating. b. To treat chemical burns to the body, apply adhesive dressings and cover with a sterile dressing. c. To treat chemical burns to the body, break blisters and leave open to air.

2. What critical safety measure is suggested for rescue crews dealing with accidents involving BPS-equipped aircraft that have not caught fire?. a. Rescue crews dealing with accidents involving BPS-equipped aircraft that have not caught fire should immediately dousing the aircraft with water. b. Rescue crews dealing with accidents involving BPS-equipped aircraft that have not caught fire should block or cut the release cable as close to the igniter as possible and use a safety cover over the rocket section. c. Rescue crews dealing with accidents involving BPS-equipped aircraft that have not caught fire should install GPS trackers on all BPS components for easier retrieval.

3. What does 'LFL' stand for, in the context of fuel tank safety? (1-134). a. 'LFL' stands for Lower Fuel Limit. b. 'LFL' stands for Lower Flammability Limit. c. 'LFL' stands for Limited Flight Level.

4. What does discolouration of a spring indicate?. a. Discolouration of a spring is most likely a sign that it has been overstressed. b. Discolouration of a spring is most likely a sign that it has been overheated. c. Discolouration of a spring is most likely a sign that it has been fatigued.

5. What personal protective equipment should be worn while cleaning bearings?. a. Respiratory mask, eye goggles, and inspection gloves should be worn while cleaning bearings. b. Lint-free gloves and breathing mask should be worn while cleaning bearings. c. Skincare protection and inspection gloves should be worn while cleaning bearings.

6. Which type of bearing heater is considered the best for mounting bearings onto a shaft?. a. Cone type heaters are considered the best for mounting bearings onto a shaft. b. Heated plates are considered the best for mounting bearings onto a shaft. c. Bearing induction heaters re considered the best for mounting bearings onto a shaft.

7. What is the recommended method for cleaning bearings?. a. The recommended method for cleaning bearings by use of rags and white spirits. b. The recommended method for cleaning bearings by use of brushes and Trichloroethane. c. The recommended method for cleaning bearings by soaking bearings in water.

8. What can cause too much backlash in a gear system?. a. Overheating can be caused by too much backlash. b. Improper lubrication can cause backlash. c. Excessive wear can be a reason for too much backlash.

9. Where is the proper wear pattern on a gear tooth located?. a. The proper wear pattern on a gear tooth is at the toe of the gear tooth to be worn. b. The proper wear pattern on a gear tooth is at the heel of the gear tooth to be worn. c. The proper wear pattern on a gear tooth is mid way between the toe and the heel.

10. How can the 'lash' of two spur gears be measured?. a. The lash can be measured by using a pattern test. b. The lash can be measured by using a dial test indicator (DTI). c. The lash can be measured by using a three-point trammel.

11. With what should Control cables be cleaned?. a. Control cables should be cleaned with a suitable solvent. b. Control cables should be cleaned with a dry, clean cloth. c. Control cables should be cleaned with an abrasive compound to remove corrosion.

12. In which cable assembly is a broken wire permitted?. a. A broken wire is permitted on any part of the cable assembly. b. A broken wire is permitted only in a straight part of the cable assembly. c. A broken wire is permitted only if it goes over a pulley or through a pressure seal.

13. After fitting a control cable end fitting with a Nicopress tool, the finished sleeve is then inspected for cracks and distortion and tested for adequate swaging with what?. a. The swaging is tested with a micrometer. b. The swaging is tested with a go/no-go gauge. c. The swaging is tested with a tensiometer.

14. For what are curved snips used?. a. Curved snips are used for cutting outside curves in Sheet metal. b. Curved snips are used for cutting inside curves in Sheet metal. c. Curved snips are used for cutting straight lines in Sheet metal.

15. How is the setback for a 90-degree bend calculated?. a. The setback for a 90-degree bend is found by adding the inside radius of the bend to the thickness of the sheet stock. b. The setback for a 90-degree bend is found by multiplying the inside radius of the bend by the thickness of the sheet stock. c. The setback for a 90-degree bend is found by dividing the inside radius of the bend by the thickness of the sheet stock.

16. What type of adhesive would you consider for high strength, high temperature resistance, ease of use and low cost?. a. Epoxy adhesive has optimum high strength, high temperature resistance, ease of use and low cost. b. Cyanoacrylate adhesive has optimum high strength, high temperature resistance, ease of use and low cost. c. Bismaleimide adhesive has optimum high strength, high temperature resistance, ease of use and low cost.

17. What is 'Corona treatment' of plastics and composite materials?. a. 'Corona treatment' is a method used to prepare plastic surfaces prior to bonding. b. 'Corona treatment' is a method used to accelerate the hardening process of composite material resins. c. 'Corona treatment' is a method used to inspect composite structures for moisture ingress.

18. What is the primary material used in Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM) method of additive manufacturing?. a. Aluminium is the primary material used in Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM) method of additive manufacturing. b. Stainless steel is the primary material used in Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM) method of additive manufacturing. c. Paper is the primary material used in Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM) method of additive manufacturing.

19. How does additive manufacturing expedite product development?. a. Additive manufacturing expedites product development by the creation of various prototypes quickly and cheaply. b. Additive manufacturing expedites product development by the use of more raw materials efficiently. c. Additive manufacturing expedites product development by the use of longer production runs without errors.

20. Which NDT method uses thermal radiation intensity to display defects in additively manufactured workpieces?. a. Eddy current defect detection uses thermal radiation intensity to display defects in additively manufactured workpieces. b. Infrared thermography uses thermal radiation intensity to display defects in additively manufactured workpieces. c. Ultrasonic defect detection uses thermal radiation intensity to display defects in additively manufactured workpieces.

21. What is a limitation of penetration testing methods for additively manufactured parts?. a. Penetration testing methods for additively manufactured parts are not suitable for porous or rough surfaces without post- processing. b. Penetration testing methods for additively manufactured parts only detect metallic materials. c. Penetration testing methods for additively manufactured parts require the destruction of the part for inspection.

22. For purposes of measuring the position of the centre of gravity of an aircraft, where is the 'datum' located? (16-28). a. The 'datum' is always located at the nose of the aircraft or after the nose of the aircraft. b. The 'datum' is located at a convenient location as specified by the aircraft manufacturer. c. The 'datum' is decided by the aircraft technician who performs the weight and balance measurement and calculation.

23. What are the consequences of center of gravity at aft limit or beyond aft limit?. a. Airplane is less stable longitudinally, thus difficult to fly manually, especially in turbulence. b. Airplane has good longitudinal stability, so the pilot's workload is reduced when manually flown. c. Airplane is difficult to turn as it is nose-heavy and has tendency to increase airspeed in turns.

24. To level an aircraft longitudinally in preparation for weighing, with weighing scales under wheels, it is permissible to do what?. a. For leveling an aircraft longitudinally, it is permissible to reduce the pressure in the nose tyre and/or nose strut. b. For leveling an aircraft longitudinally, it is permissible to increase the pressure in the nose tyre. c. For leveling an aircraft longitudinally, it is permissible to add weights to the nose of the aircraft.

25. What actions should be undertaken, if during fuelling operations, the bonding lead becomes detached?. a. The fuelling must be immediately stopped, and not restarted until the bonding lead has been reattached. b. The fuelling process can continue but the bonding lead must be reattached as soon as possible. c. No actions are required as the fuelling can be carried on due to the existent bonding in the fuel hose material.

26. When an aircraft will not be operated for an extended period of time, it is normal to do what with the battery? (17-48). a. Remove the battery and place it in storage, when an aircraft will not be operated for an extended period of time. b. Keep the battery in the aircraft but disconnect the electrical connections, when an aircraft will not be operated for an extended period of time. c. Keep the battery in the aircraft and keep the electrical connections connected, when an aircraft will not be operated for an extended period of time.

27. Which statement is true, regarding the colour of turbine engine fuel? (17-94). a. Turbine engine fuel is dyed blue or green depending on whether it is Jet-A or Jet-B. b. Turbine engine fuel is un-dyed and is naturally clear or 'straw' coloured. c. Turbine engine fuel is dyed purple to differentiate it from gasoline.

28. What action should be taken while jacking an aircraft off the ground with hydraulic jacks? (17-30). a. While jacking an aircraft, you should keep the locking collars as loose as possible throughout the process. b. While jacking an aircraft, you should wind down the locking collars continuously for safety reasons. c. While jacking an aircraft, you should wind down the locking collars just before reaching the desired height.

29. What actions should a lead-acid battery normally undergo during its storage, once every 4 to 6 weeks? (17-48). a. The battery electrolyte level should be checked every 4 to 6 weeks during storage. b. The battery cells should be vented every 4 to 6 weeks during storage. c. The battery should be fully re-charged every 4 to 6 weeks during storage.

30. A fire extinguisher or oxygen system red blowout disk is blown out. What does this mean?. a. When red blowout disk is blown out, it means that the bottle is over-pressurised. b. When red blowout disk is blown out, it means that that the bottle is serviceable. c. When red blowout disk is blown out, it means that the bottle has discharged overboard.

31. When can tyre creep be dangerous?. a. If the tyre is tubed. b. If the tyre is tubeless. c. If the tyre is tubed or tubeless.

32. What is 'Level 1' corrosion?. a. 'Level 1' corrosion is the corrosion which indicates a need for a corrosion programme review and adjustment at the operator level. b. "Level 1' corrosion is the corrosion that must be corrected when found but its presence in an aircraft does not require a corrosion control programme. c. 'Level 1' corrosion is the corrosion that indicates a potential maintenance programme failure that may mean that the operator will need to check the entire fleet.

33. What do colours and shades on the structure diagrams represent?. a. Primary structures are coloured yellow or shown white. Secondary structures are coloured red or shown hatched. b. Primary structures are coloured red or shown white. Secondary structures are coloured yellow or shown hatched. c. Primary structures are coloured red or shown hatched. Secondary structures are coloured yellow or shown white.

34. What materials can the ultrasonic flaw detection method be used on?. a. Ferrous metals only, can undergo ultrasonic flaw detection. b. All metals but not plastics can undergo ultrasonic flaw detection. c. All metals and most plastics can undergo ultrasonic flaw detection.

35. What is a possible alternative method for removing tight or stuck bolts?. a. A possible alternative method for removing tight or stuck bolts is using a suitable extractor tool. b. A possible alternative method for removing tight or stuck bolts is punching them out with a drift (rod). c. A possible alternative method for removing tight or stuck bolts is rotating the supports until bolts rotate easily.

36. When trouble shooting a problem with an aircraft system, what should you consider first?. a. The item which is most likely the cause of the problem should be considered first. b. The item which is cheapest to replace should be considered first. c. The item which is easiest to access should be considered first.

37. What are the types of damage caused by lightning strike?. a. Direct damage (also known as group 1 damage) and indirect damage (also known as group 2 damage). b. Primary and secondary damage. c. Severe and negligible damage.

38. What is the recommended solution for neutralizing acid electrolyte contamination?. a. 20% sodium bicarbonate solution is the recommended solution for neutralizing acid electrolyte contamination. b. 5% acetic acid solution is the recommended solution for neutralizing acid electrolyte contamination. c. Clean water is the recommended solution for neutralizing acid electrolyte contamination.

39. How are European standards adopted in the UK?. a. European standards are adopted as British Standards (BS EN). b. European standards are adopted as ISO standards. c. All European standards are automatically recognised in the UK.

40. What is geometric tolerancing?. a. Geometric tolerancing is deviation in one direction only from the basic size. b. Geometric tolerancing is an approximate dimension used for general identification. c. Geometric tolerancing is tolerances that involve shape features of the part.

41. What standard for calibration of equipment does the aircraft maintenance industry use?. a. Standard specified by the appliance manufacturer/design organization only. b. Standard specified by the appropriate national/international standard only. c. Standard specified by the appropriate national/international standard or the standard specified by the appliance manufacturer/design organization.

42. Why is it important to provide special care for tools?. a. It is important to provide special care for tools to prevent tools from becoming second-rate and useless quickly. b. It is important to provide special care for tools to meet safety regulations set by the Authority and/or the manufacturer. c. It is important to provide special care for tools to prevent wear of the tools sharpened edges.

43. What is the purpose of a Zonal Inspection?. a. The purpose of a Zonal Inspection is to detect damage, discrepancies, and general condition in a specified aircraft zone. b. The purpose of a Zonal Inspection is to ensure quality control in the aviation industry. c. The purpose of a Zonal Inspection is to determine structural fatigue in high-life aircraft.

44. Who approves a major modification?. a. The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) approves a major modification. b. The competent authority approves a major modification. c. An appropriately approved design organisation approves a major modification.

45. What is the purpose of a certificate of release to service (CRS)?. a. The purpose of a CRS is to verify maintenance data availability. b. The purpose of a CRS is to ensure compliance with regulatory procedures. c. The purpose of a CRS is to obtain agreement from the aircraft operator for maintenance work.

46. What is the classification of changes in type design?. a. The classification of changes in type design is Minor and major changes. b. The classification of changes in type design is Selective and non-selective changes. c. The classification of changes in type design is Repairs and modifications.

47. What is the purpose of an EASA Form 1 for a new component?. a. The purpose of an EASA Form 1 is to declare a component airworthy at the time of issue. b. The purpose of an EASA Form 1 is to request repair services. c. The purpose of an EASA Form 1 is to modify a component.

48. What is the purpose of a supplemental type certificate (STC)?. a. An STC is to modify the type certificate and apply to all aircraft it covers. b. An STC is to approve minor changes and repairs designed by Part-145 organizations. c. An STC is to classify changes as either minor or major.

49. When should people involved in shift handover begin thinking about what information needs to be communicated?. a. People involved in shift handover should begin thinking about what information needs to be communicated only during their last hour of shift. b. People involved in shift handover should begin thinking about what information needs to be communicated as soon as their shift starts. c. People involved in shift handover should begin thinking about what information needs to be communicated after their shift ends.

50. What was one contributory factor in the B737 double engine oil loss incident mentioned in the text?. a. The engineer's lack of experience with oil systems was one contributory factor in the 8737 double-engine oil loss incident mentioned in the text. b. Inadequate tools provided to carry out inspections was one contributory factor in the 8737 double-engine oil loss incident mentioned in the text. c. Information not carried over from maintenance manual to task cards was one contributory factor in the 8737 double-engine oll loss incident mentioned the text.

51. What does passive listening involve?. a. Passive listening involves repeating or paraphrasing messages back. b. Passive listening involves listening without giving feedback. c. Passive listening involves active engagement with speakers.

52. How can misunderstandings during shift handovers be minimized?. a. By using only verbal communication and avoiding all written communication. b. By using only written communication and avoiding all verbal communication. c. By using multiple forms of communication and feedback mechanisms.

53. What can a digital multimeter with a a display resolution of 31/2 show?. a. Three full digits 1-9, while another digit shows fractions, for example 999 ½. b. Three full digits 1-9, while another digit 1 or blank, for example 1,999. c. Three full digits 1-9, while another digit shows decimals 999.6.

54. How should machine reaming be done, compared to drilling?. a. Machine reaming should be done with same speed, same feed. b. Machine reaming should be done with half the speed, half the feed. c. Machine reaming should be done with half the speed, twice the feed.

55. What is the purpose of the squared end of the shank on a tap?. a. The purpose of the squared end of the shank on a tap is to facilitate turning with a wrench. b. The purpose of the squared end of the shank on a tap is to help start the cutting action. c. The purpose of the squared end of the shank on a tap is to increase accuracy while cutting.

56. What determines the smallest unit of size that can be read using a Vernier?. a. The difference in the overall length of the main scale and Vernier scale. b. The number of graduations on the main scale. c. The length of one division on the main scale to one division on the Vernier scale.

57. When is a 'single cut' file used?. a. A 'single cut' file is used on hard metals. b. A 'single cut' file is used on all metals. c. A 'single cut' file is used on soft metals.

58. How are the countersink drills made?. a. Countersink drills are made with an included angle of between 90° and 120° depending on the head angle of the fastener to be installed. b. Countersink drills are made with an included angle of between 60° and 120 depending on the head angle of the fastener to be installed. c. Countersink drills are made with an included angle of between 118° and 150° depending on the head angle of the fastener to be installed.

59. How is the data organized in the wiring diagram?. a. The data is organized by using page numbers to differentiate between configurations. b. The data is organized by categorizing it into subjects to differentiate between configurations. c. The data is organized by following the guidelines of ATA 100/2200 while categorizing it into chapters, sections, and subjects.

60. What is the purpose of using hatching in sectional views? (5-20). a. It shows area with special surface finish. b. It shows cross-section thru material. c. It shows areas, lubricated with grease.

61. What does a thin chain line indicate? (5-17). a. Thin chain lines are used to indicate special surface treatment. b. Thin chain lines are used to show centerline of part. c. Thin chain lines are used to indicate hidden edges of part.

62. Which statement is true, regarding the sectioning of large areas on a drawing?. a. The hatching must cover the whole sectioned area but with a spacing of no less than 8 mm between hatch lines. b. The hatching is not shown on any part of the sectioned area unless there is mating parts shown on the same drawing. c. The hatching may be limited to border area which touches adjacent hatched parts, or the outline of the large part.

63. Who needs to use ATA 100 specification while building the instructions for continuing airworthiness?. a. The ATA 100 specification is used by a Part-145 or Part-M organisation, when producing instructions for continuing airworthiness. b. The ATA 100 specification is used by the aircraft manufacturer when producing instructions for continuing airworthiness. c. The ATA 100 specification is used by an aircraft maintenance engineer, when producing instructions for continuing airworthiness.

64. What is used to indicate special instructions or dimensions when space for normal dimensioning is limited?. a. Thin leading lines ending in arrowheads or dots are used to indicate special instructions or dimensions. b. Projected thick lines connecting different parts of the object are used to indicate special instructions or dimensions. c. Thick dimension lines are drawn outside the object's outline are used to indicate special instructions or dimensions.

65. The following basic dimension and tolerance of shaft is shown on a drawing. 3.75 +0.05/-0.00 mm. What is the smallest dimension that the drawing allows? (6-10). a. 3,70 mm. b. 3,5 mm. c. 3,75 mm.

66. What is an 'allowance? (6-26). a. An 'allowance' is a prescribed difference in dimension that is necessary to give a particular 'class of fit' between two parts. b. An 'allowance' is the total amount of variation in the size that ensures interference fit between two parts. c. An 'allowance' is a difference in dimension that is necessary to give an particular negative clearance between two parts.

67. What means "bilateral tolerance"? (6-10). a. It means amount of variation allowed below the nominal size on pin/shaft and above nominal size on hole. b. It means amount of variation above or below the nominal size. c. It means amount of variation above the nominal size.

68. A Hole diameter is specified as diameter 1.2506/1.2500 inches. The Shaft which will fit inside the hole is specified as diameter 1.2519/1.2513 inches. What is the type of fit, for this Hole / Shaft? (6-8). a. Clearance. b. Transition. c. Interference.

69. What statement is true regarding the tolerances for a shaft? (6-40). a. Tolerances for a circular section shaft can be specified for its bow only. b. Tolerances for a circular section shaft can be specified for its bow and ovality only. c. Tolerances for a circular section shaft can be specified for its bow, ovality and twist.

70. What is the PICO Pneumatic Crimping Tool?. a. The PICO tool is a hand operated tool which can be opened any time during crimping process. b. The PICO tods is a pneumatically operated tool which cannot be opened until full crimp has been completed. c. The PICO tool is an electrically operated tool which cannot be opened until full crimp has been completed.

71. What test equipment is used for defects in long lengths of coaxial cable such as cuts, pinches, water ingress?. a. A voltmeter. b. A time domain reflectometer. c. A oscilloscope.

72. What value does a burned-out resistor show on the ohmmeter?. a. The ohmmeter will indicate zero, when it is used to identify an open circuit malfunction. b. The ohmmeter will indicate a positive value equal to the resistance value, when it is used to identify an open circuit malfunction. c. The ohmmeter will indicate infinity, when it is used to identify an open circuit malfunction.

73. What is a connector pin, which is released from the front and extracted from the rear, known as?. a. The 'front release' connector pin is released from the front and extracted from the rear. b. The 'rear extraction' connection pin is released from the front and extracted from the rear. c. The 'front release - rear extraction' connector pin is released from the front and extracted from the rear.

74. How is correct rivet allowance achieved? (8-56-16). a. The rivet allowance is oversize drilling of the rivet hole to allow river shank to swell and fill fully the hole. b. The rivet allowance is achieved by installing correct length of the rivet, allowing to form a proper reaction head. Rivets shall never be cut to adjust shank length. c. The rivet allowance is achieved by installing correct 'length of the rivet, allowing to form a proper reaction head. Rivets can be cut to proper length.

75. What is the sphere of influence of a rivet? (8-10). a. The sphere of influence of a rivet is the area in which the closed rivet maintains the plates in close contact. b. The sphere of influence of a rivet is the spacing between rivets to give the joint optimum strength characteristics. c. The sphere of influence of a rivet is the allowance for rivet heads expressed in terms of the diameter of the rivet shank.

76. How is the grip length of a rivet determined? (8-6). a. The grip length of a rivet is determined by adding the rivet allowance to the length of the rivet shank. b. The grip length of a rivet is determined by selecting a rivet of the same material as the plate. c. The grip length of a rivet is determined by having a trial on scrap metal of the same thickness and specification.

77. What needs to be done next after rigid pipe couplings has been finger tighten and checked the routing?. a. The couplings should be tightened to the specified torque, pipe tested for leaks, checked for clearance and locked (secured lockwired…). b. The couplings should be tightened to the specified torque, bonding checked and then function tested. c. The couplings should bonding checked, then tightened to the specified torque and then function checked.

78. Where is double flaring usually used?. a. On small diameter aluminium tubes. b. On large diameter aluminium tubes. c. On small diameter steel tubes.

79. What pressure is used for pressure test of a rigid pipe?. a. The rigid pipe should be tested at the working pressure. b. The rigid pipe should be tested at 1.5x the working pressure. c. The rigid pipe should be tested at 3x the working pressure.

80. When carrying out the procedure of cardio pulmonary resuscitation on an unconscious patient, how do you check that the casualty is breathing?. a. Check for 10 minutes, look to see if the chest is rising, listen near to their face for breathing sounds, and hold a mirror to their mouth to check for breath. b. Check for 10 seconds, look to see if the chest is rising, listen near to their face for breathing sounds, and feel for a breath on your cheek. c. Check for 1 minute, look to see if the chest is rising, listen near to their face for breathing sounds, and feel for a breath on your cheek.

81. Which of the following scenarios would most likely prove to be fatal in terms of electric shock effects?. a. A shock current of 50 mA lasting more than 10 seconds would most likely prove to be fatal. b. A shock current of 500 mA lasting more than 20 ms would most likely prove to be fatal. c. A shock current of 50 mA lasting less than 10 seconds would most likely prove to be fatal.

82. Why are duplicated springs coiled in opposite directions from each other?. a. Duplicated springs are made in opposite directions to prevent fatigue. b. Duplicated springs are made in opposite direction to increase strength. c. Duplicated springs are made in opposite direction to prevent coil interlocking.

83. How is spalling of a bearing recognised?. a. Spalling is recognised by indentation of raceways of the bearing. b. Spalling is recognised by separation/flaking of the surface layer of the raceway. c. Spalling is recognised by bluing of the raceways of the bearing.

85. When should a routine bearing inspection be carried out on a wheel bearing?. a. A routine bearing inspection be carried out on a wheel bearing whenever the wheel is removed. b. A routine bearing inspection be carried out on a wheel bearing after every flight. c. A routine bearing inspection be carried out on a wheel bearing only during the installation process.

86. Where should be the pattern on a straight tooth bevel gear, if correctly meshing?. a. The pattern on an correctly meshing straight tooth bevel gear is at middle of the tooth. b. The pattern on an correctly meshing straight tooth bevel gear is at heel of the tooth. c. The pattern on an correctly meshing straight tooth bevel gear is at toe of the tooth.

87. When checking a screw jack for backlash with a dial test indicator (DTI), how are measurements taken?. a. Measurements by the DTI must be taken axially only. Radial measurements are not required. b. Measurements by the DTI must be taken radially only. Radial measurements are not required. c. Measurements by the DTI must be taken both axially and radially.

88. How can broken wires in Control cables be detected?. a. Broken wires in Control cables be can be detected using bare hands, but it is not recommended. b. Broken wires in Control cables should be detected by scrutinizing the cable visually. c. Broken wires in Control cables should be detected by rubbing a cloth along the length of the cable.

89. What indicates corrosion of the zinc coating on high-tensile steel galvanised cables?. a. Red rust indicates corrosion of the zinc coating on high-tensile steel galvanised cables. b. Whitish deposit indicates corrosion of the zinc coating on high-tensile steel galvanised cables. c. Broken heart strand indicates corrosion of the zinc coating on high-tensile steel galvanised cables.

90. On what metals is the electrochemical milling (ECM) process ideally used?. a. ECM process is used for soft alloys when a good finish is desired. b. ECM process is used for very hard metals, which are difficult to machine by conventional methods. c. ECM process is used for any metal that a good finish is desired to be achieved.

91. Which types of stress should be avoided, in a bonded joint?. a. Shear stress should be avoided in a bonded joint. b. Peel and cleavage should be avoided in a bonded joint. c. Compression should be avoided in a bonded joint.

92. How can residual stress during metal additive manufacturing lead to defects in a part?. a. Residual stress during metal additive manufacturing leads to defects in a part by increasing tensile strength beyond usable limits. b. Residual stress during metal additive manufacturing leads to defects in a part by causing warpage or cracking when exceeding material or substrate strength. c. Residual stress during metal additive manufacturing leads to defects in a part by reducing the quality of surface finish through uncontrolled cooling.

93. What is one advantage of using wire over powder in the DED method of additive manufacturing?. a. In the DED method of additive manufacturing, the wire provides better accuracy. b. In the DED method of additive manufacturing, the wire requires more material. c. In the DED method of additive manufacturing, the wire is more material-efficient.

94. Which one of these is considered a disadvantage of additive manufacturing?. a. A disadvantage of additive manufacturing is the short production runs tailored to specific needs. b. A disadvantage of additive manufacturing is the high cost of entry and production costs. c. A disadvantage of additive manufacturing is the material waste increase.

95. Which statement is true regarding the centre of gravity position of a nose-wheeled aircraft? (16-9). a. The centre of gravity position of a nose-wheeled aircraft must always be aft of the main wheels. b. The centre of gravity position of a nose-wheeled aircraft must always be forward of the main wheels. c. The centre of gravity position of a nose-wheeled aircraft can be either forward or aft of the main wheels.

96. Where is a Weight and Balance Schedule normally retained? (16-30). a. A current Weight and Balance Schedule is kept on the ground, with the aircraft records. b. A current Weight and Balance Schedule is kept on board of aircraft at all times normally in the aircraft flight manual. c. A current Weight and Balance Schedule is kept at the maintenance organization.

97. When can fleet mean weight be used? (16-78). a. A fleet mean weight can be used if acceptable to the Authority, providing the fleet size is 10 or more of same aircraft. b. A fleet mean weight can be used if acceptable to the Authority, providing the fleet size is 3 or more of same aircraft. c. A fleet mean weight can be used if acceptable to the Authority, providing the fleet size is less than 10 of same aircraft.

98. What is the purpose of small wheels attached to the skids of a helicopter?. a. The purpose of small wheels attached to the skids of a helicopter is to allow operation from various surfaces. b. The purpose of small wheels attached to the skids of a helicopter is to raise the helicopter off the ground onto wheels. c. The purpose of small wheels attached to the skids of a helicopter is to enable swivelling of the nose gear during taxiing.

99. How is the 'holdover time' of a deicing fluid defined?. a. The 'holdover time' of a deicing fluid is the period for which the fluid will prevent the formation or refreezing of ice, after application. b. The "holdover time' of a deicing fluid is the period of time that it takes to apply the deicing fluid. c. The 'holdover time' of a deicing fluid is the maximum storage period (shelf life) of the deicing fluid.

100. What are some effects of hot humid conditions on fuel tanks?. a. Water separation within the tanks and condensation of moisture within the tanks are some effects of hot humid conditions on fuel tanks. b. Increased prevalence of fuel leaks due to water separation within the tanks is an effect of hot humid conditions on fuel tanks. c. Decreased fuel efficiency in hot humid conditions is an effect of hot humid conditions on fuel tanks.

101. What are Bowing limits?. a. The maximum amount of bow in members considered negligible is 1 in 1000. b. The minimum amount of bow in members considered negligible is 1 in 600. c. The maximum amount of bow in members considered negligible is 1 in 600.

102. How are structural parts, which can bring to loss of aircraft if failed, classified?. a. As Fall Safe structure. b. As Primary Structure. c. As Critical Structure.

103. What is Murphy's law?. a. Keep applying fore if the component does not move. b. Any part or component can not be installed incorrectly. c. If a part or component can be installed incorrectly, someone, somewhere, will install it that way.

104. Which statement is true, regarding defect troubleshooting?. a. When troubleshooting an aircraft defect, Items in the system should be replaced one-by-one until the defect is rectified. b. When troubleshooting an aircraft defect, replace all lifed components in the system first, and if that does not rectify the defect, start replacing the on-condition components. c. When troubleshooting an aircraft defect, the first stage in the troubleshooting process is to gather as much information as possible.

105. What are Zone 1 lightning strike areas (high probability)?. a. Wing roots and trailing edges are Zone 1 of lightning strike areas. b. Wing and fuselage surfaces are Zone 1 of lightning strike areas. c. Nose cone, wing tips and engine Intake cowls are Zone 1 of lightning strike areas.

106. What causes a 'high energy stop' resulting in brake overheat?. a. A 'high energy stop' is caused by a Rejected Take-Off (RTO) or prolonged ground manoeuvring. b. A 'high energy stop' is caused by a Rejected Take-Off (RTO) or an emergency landing or landing with defective brakes (brakes locked on). c. A 'high energy stop' is caused by a Rejected Take-Off (RTO) or a hard landing.

107. What is the primary emphasis when it comes to tool accountability?. a. Tracking the usage duration of tools so that they can be calibrated. b. Ensuring all tools are returned to their correct locations after use. c. Collecting personal tool tags from technicians when a tool is used.

108. How should oils, greases, some adhesives, sealing and glazing compounds, in addition to many paints and enamels, be stored safely?. a. They should be stored in metal cabinets in the same store with other aircraft components. b. They should be stored in metal cabinets in a separate store rather than with other aircraft components. c. They should be stored on open shelves to allow adequate ventilation, in the same store with other aircraft components.

109. What does the term 'nominal size' mean?. a. 'Nominal size' represents the theoretical size from which limits of size are derived by applying allowances and tolerances. b. 'Nominal size' represents an approximate dimension that is used for the purpose of general identification. c. 'Nominal size' represents the measured size of a finished part in its largest dimension.

110. What is a 'datum' in engineering terms. a. A 'datum' In engineering terms is a theoretically exact axis, point, line, or plane. b. A 'datum' in engineering terms is the basic measured size of a finished part. c. A 'datum' in engineering terms is the total amount by which a given dimension can vary.

111. How are changes in type design classified?. a. Changes in type design are classified Minor and Major. b. Changes in type design are classified Major and Critical. c. Changes in type design are classified Standard and Non-Standard.

112. Scheduled Inspection interval and content for individual aircraft is defined by which of the following?. a. Scheduled Inspection is defined as an inspection that is not specified in the Approved Maintenance Programme (AMP). b. Scheduled Inspection is defined as an inspection specified in the Approved Maintenance Programme (AMP). c. Scheduled Inspection is defined as an inspection carried out during turnaround or overnight stop.

113. What is the purpose of a Type Certificate (TC) in aviation?. a. The purpose of a Type Certificate (TC) in aviation is to certify that particular design of aircraft, propeller or engine complies with airworthiness requirements. b. The purpose of a Type Certificate (TC) in aviation is to confirm that individual aircraft is entered in a Registry of state. c. The purpose of a Type Certificate (TC) in aviation is to modify and repair aircraft components.

114. What kind of modification is a 'Minor Change'?. a. A 'Minor Change' is a modification that does not affect any primary structural member or external aerodynamic surface of an aircraft. b. A 'Minor Change' is a modification that does not affect the flight or handling characteristics of the aircraft and do not affect the Type Certificate Data sheet. c. A 'Minor Change' is a modification that has no appreciable effect on the mass, balance, structural strength, reliability, operational characteristics, or other characteristics affecting the airworthiness of the aircraft or component.

115. Who approves the data used for rectifying damage and repairs during maintenance?. a. A competent authority approves the data used forrectifying damage and repairs during maintenance. b. An approved Part-21 design organization approves the data used for rectifying damage and repairs during maintenance. c. An agency responsible for aviation safety approves the data used for rectifying damage and repairs during maintenance.

116. What type of communication is preferred in aircraft maintenance?. a. Ambiguous communication is preferred in aircraft maintenance. b. Simple and clear communication is preferred in aircraft maintenance. c. Complex and technical communication is preferred in aircraft maintenance.

117. What was misunderstood by the pilot in the 1989 incident involving a 747 freighter?. a. The pilot in the 1989 incident Involving a 747 freighter misunderstood the altitude to which they should descend. b. The pilot in the 1989 incident involving a 747 freighter misunderstood the speed at which they should be flying. c. The pilot in the 1989 incident involving a 747 freighter misunderstood the runway they were supposed to land on.

118. Which of the following is NOT a reason why a sender might fail to communicate effectively in aviation maintenance?. a. Having a hidden agenda is NOT a reason why a sender might fail to communicate effectively in aviation maintenance. b. Cultural barriers between professional groups is NOT a reason why a sender might fail to communicate effectively in aviation maintenance. c. Assertiveness is NOT a reason why a sender might fail to communicate effectively in aviation maintenance.

119. What is the primary purpose of breaking down complex or lengthy non-scheduled tasks into discrete steps?. a. To create a record for management oversight. b. To provide accountability for individual workers. c. To assist engineers in planning and completing tasks thoroughly and in the correct sequence.

120. What hacksaw pitch is used to cut thin metal sheet and thin metal pipe?. a. A coarse pitch (e.g. 18 tpl) hacksaw is best for cutting thin metal sheet and thin metal pipe. b. A medium pitch (e.g. 24 tpi) hacksaw is best for cutting thin metal sheet and thin metal pipe. c. A fine pitch (e.g. 32 tpi) hacksaw is best for cutting thin metal sheet and thin metal pipe.

121. What is the main difference between a counterbore and a countersink?. a. Counterbores are used on wood, while countersinks are used on metal. b. Counterbores are used for spot facing, while countersinks are used for riveting. c. Counterbores create flat-bottomed recesses, while countersinks do not.

122. What can a Go / No Go gauge be used for?. a. A Go/No Go gauge is used to assess whether the dimension being checked is within the stated tolerance. b. A Go/No Go gauge is used to measure the upper and lower limits for the dimension being checked. c. A Go/No Go gauge is used to measure the lower limits for the dimension being checked.

123. Which cutting tool material can maintain its hardness when cutting hard metals?. a. High carbon steel (HCS) can maintain its hardness when cutting hard metals. b. High speed steel (HSS) can maintain its hardness when cutting hard metals. c. Flexible grade steel and high carbon steel (HCS) can maintain its hardness when cutting hard metals.

124. How are dimension lines positioned in relation to the object being measured?. a. Dimension lines are placed inside the actual outline of the object. b. Dimension lines are projected from the bottom or right-hand side of the drawing. c. Dimension lines touch each projected line and show precisely where the dimension applies.

125. What indicates the imaginary cut or break thru part on the drawing?. a. Thin long chain lines with thickened ends and changes in direction indicate where the imaginary cut or break has been made. b. Dotted lines with arrows pointing towards them indicate where the imaginary cut or break has been made. c. Bolded lines on either side of the sectioned area indicate where the imaginary cut or break has been made.

126. What do assembly drawing (also known as construction drawing) indicates? (5-54). a. How parts of an assembly are put together. It shows all parts in exploded view. b. How individual part should be made, including all tolerances and surface finishes. c. How parts of an assembly are put together. It shows all parts together-as a finished assembly.

127. Which statement is true, regarding the first angle projection format?. a. Each view shows what would be seen by looking on the far side of an adjacent view (opposite upper). b. Each of the views shown is adjacent to the face of the object it represents. (opposite lower). c. Each view shows what would be seen by looking on the far side of an adjacent view (opposite lower).

128. What is "press fit" and where is typically used? (6-36). a. Press fit means minimal interference, therefore part can be driven in hole with cold pressing. Typically used for bearings installation into housings. b. Press fit means significant interference, thus requiring hydraulic press to drive parts together but without heating/cooling of parts. Typically used for installation of dowel pins. c. Press fit means high interference, therefore parts can be driven only if holed part is heated and shaft part is cooled. Typically used for bearings installation into housings.

129. What tool can be used to measure journal ovality on main crankshaft of piston engine cylinder? (6-40). a. Go/No-Go gauge. b. Micrometer. c. Feeler gage.

130. What is a transition fit? (6-8). a. Interference when mating parts are assembled, only. b. Clearance when mating parts are assembled only. c. Either a clearance or an interference when mating parts are assembled.

131. When must any threaded electrical connector be wire locked?. a. If the threaded electrical connector is located in a pressurised area, it must be wire locked. b. If the threaded electrical connector is located in an un-pressurised, area it must be wire locked. c. The threaded electrical connector must always be wire locked, whatever area it is located.

132. What can a fluid contamination of certain types of wiring cause?. a. Fluid contamination can cause Insulation resistance failure. b. Fluid contamination can cause arc tracking. c. Fluid contamination can cause insulation chafing.

133. Which statement is true, when an ohmmeter is used to identify an open circuit malfunction in a component such as a lamp?. a. The component must be isolated from the circuit, when an ohmmeter is used to identify an open circuit. b. The component can remain in the circuit providing the circuit power supply is removed, when an ohmmeter is used to identify an open circuit. c. The component can remain in the circuit providing the circuit power supply is connected, when an ohmmeter is used to identify an open circuit.

134. Which statement is true, regarding the heat treatment of aluminium alloy rivets? (8-16). a. Aluminium alloy rivets can be hardened and can be softened in the same manner as sheet aluminium. b. Aluminium alloy rivets can only be hardened in the same manner as sheet aluminium. They cannot be softened. c. Aluminium alloy rivets can only be softened in the same manner as sheet aluminium. They cannot be hardened.

135. When inspecting a countersunk Cherry rivet for correct installation, how should the locking ring ideally be? (8-111). a. The locking ring should be higher than the stem, but lower than the surface of the rivet head. b. The locking ring should be at the same height as the stem, but lower than the surface of the rivet head. c. The locking ring should be at the same height as the stem, and the same height as surface of the rivet head.

136. What is a preferred method of cutting the rigid metal pipe? (9-8). a. The use of pipe cutter with rolling cutter is preferred method, as it leaves no metal shavings. b. The use of fine-tooth hacksaw is preferred method of cuting, as it leaves smooth, undistorted surface. c. The use of high-speed grinding cutter is preferred method, as it is fastest and ensures smooth surface.

137. What information should be clearly marked on containers and packaging of hazardous materials?. a. According to international guidelines, the material's description, hazards it poses, and safety information should be clearly marked on containers and packaging of hazardous materials. b. According to international guidelines, only safety information concerning handling procedures should be clearly marked on containers and packaging of hazardous materials. c. According to EU-OSHA guidelines, the material's manufacturer and expiration date should be clearly marked on containers and packaging of hazardous materials.

138. Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of using notifications in Maintenance Manuals in aviation?. a. The purpose of using notifications in Maintenance Manuals in aviation is to streamline communication between ground crew and pilots. b. The purpose of using notifications in Maintenance Manuals in aviation is to ensure efficient aircraft operations. c. The purpose of using notifications in Maintenance Manuals in aviation is to prevent personal injuries and damage to aircraft and equipment.

139. When is 'Spring Rate' more likely to be degraded?. a. If the spring is operated in a high temperature area, then its spring rate is degraded. b. If the spring is operated in a pressurised area, then its spring rate is degraded. c. If the spring is operated in a corrosive environment, then its spring rate is degraded.

140. How are bearings tested for roughness?. a. A bearing can be tested for roughness by running it at its operating speed and listen for signs of wear. b. A bearing can be tested for roughness by dismantling and inspecting it. c. A bearing can be tested for roughness by rotating it slowly by hand.

141. What is the addendum of a gear tooth?. a. The addendum of a gear tooth is the distance between the centres of two gears. b. The addendum of a gear tooth is the width of the engaging tooth. c. The addendum of a gear tooth is 0.318 of the pitch of the gear tooth.

142. What causes 'bird caging' in cables?. a. Wear and tear over time causes 'bird caging' in cables. b. Rust or corrosion causes 'bird caging' in cables. c. A sudden tensile load causes 'bird caging' in cables.

143. In Sheet metal work, what is the 'setback'?. a. The 'Setback' is the distance from the bend tangent line to the setback line. b. The 'Setback' is the mold point to the bend tangent line. c. The 'Setback' is the edge of the metal to the bend tangent line.

144. What happens to the bond strength of an adhesive joints, when exposed to an elevated temperature?. a. As the temperature increases, the bond strength decreases. b. As the temperature increases, the bond strength increases. c. As the temperature increases, the bond strength is not affected.

145. Which of the following is NOT a step in the sheet lamination process method of additive manufacturing?. a. The material is melted and fused is NOT a step in the sheet lamination process method of additive manufacturing. b. The required shape is cut from the layer by laser or knife is NOT a step in the sheet lamination process method of additive manufacturing. c. Adhesive is applied to bond layers is NOT a step in the sheet lamination process method of additive manufacturing.

146. For what is Directed Energy Deposition (DED) method of additive manufacturing commonly used?. a. Directed Energy Deposition (DED) method of additive manufacturing is commonly used for creating digital models. b. Directed Energy Deposition (DED) method of additive manufacturing is commonly used for repairing or adding material to existing components. c. Directed Energy Deposition (DED) method of additive manufacturing is commonly used for cutting materials into desired shapes.

147. Where are the electronic weighing units placed? (16-92). a. The electronic weighing units are always placed under the wheels of the airplane. b. The electronic weighing units are always placed under the jacks of the airplane. c. The electronic weighing units are placed between the jacks and the jacking points of the aircraft or under the wheels/bogies of the airplane.

148. What is the reason that all fuel components removed from the fuel system should be inhibited as soon as possible?. a. Removed fuel components should be inhibited to prevent external corrosion. b. Removed fuel components should be inhibited to prevent internal corrosion. c. Removed fuel components should be inhibited to prevent fire hazard.

149. What a return to service procedures after long term storage normally require? (17-78). a. Removal of engine covers, then starting and ground run of engines. b. Replacement of all rubber seals, exposed to fuel or oil. c. Removal of coverings/blanks, drain of preservation oil, filling the fuel lines with fuel, priming the engine oil system.

150. Which of the following is a requirement for handling materials that give off fumes?. a. Wearing a dust mask. b. Keeping finished work ventilated. c. Using such materials in enclosed areas for maximum safety.

151. What minimum information should calibration records or certificates contain?. a. The calibration records or certificates should contain the identification of equipment, standard used, interval and date on which each calibration was conducted. b. The calibration records or certificates should contain the identification of equipment, assigned calibration interval and date on which each calibration was conducted. c. The calibration records or certificates should contain the identification of equipment, standard used, assigned calibration interval and date on which each calibration was conducted.

152. What happens to any tools if no care has been taken?. a. In the absence of special care, even the most expensive tools very quickly become second rate and useless. The use of such tools should be discontinued. b. In the absence of special care, the tool can be used for a specific period of time only, after which the use of such tools should be discontinued. c. In the absence of special care the tool will continue to be useful indefinitely providing precautions and shortcuts are taken to compensate for their degraded performance.

153. Which document certifies that an individual aircraft is in a condition for safe operation?. a. The Type Certificate Data Sheet certifies that an entire individual aircraft is in a condition for safe operation. b. The Certificate of release to service certifies that an entire individual aircraft is in a condition for safe operation. c. The Certificate of Airworthiness certifies that an entire individual aircraft is in a condition for safe operation.

154. What can be stored in the bonded store?. a. Only serviceable spare parts of any aircraft type can be stored in the bonded store. b. Only unserviceable spare parts of an aircraft type can be stored in the bonded store. c. Serviceable parts can be stored in the bonded store, and unserviceable spare parts but with different colour of the tags, can be stored in the bonded store.

155. What document describes the legal requirements for the operation of commercial aircraft?. a. The EU-OPS regulation (965/2012) describes the legal requirements for the operation of commercial aircraft. b. The EASA document Part M describes the legal requirements for the operation of commercial aircraft. c. The Maintenance and Operations Regulations (MOR) describes the legal requirements for the operation of commercial aircraft.

156. What should a title page in a technical report include?. a. A title page in a technical report should include an in-depth discussion of the topic. b. A title page in a technical report should include the conventions required in your subject. c. A title page in a technical report should include a detailed table of contents.

157. What should be included above a table in a technical report?. a. A complex descriptive label should be included above a table in a technical report. b. A simple descriptive label should be included above a table in a technical report. c. The conclusion of the report should be included above a table in a technical report.

158. What is the purpose of using drill bushings when transferring holes?. a. The purpose of using drill bushings when transferring holes is to enlarge the original hole for a better fit. b. The purpose of using drill bushings when transferring holes is to guide the drill tip and reduce damage to existing structure. c. The purpose of using drill bushings when transferring holes is to avoid the need for marking and removing parts.

159. How is a 'sine bar' used?. a. A 'sine Bar' is used in conjunction with a rotation bar to draw a sine wave. b. A 'sine bar' is used in conjunction with slip gauges to mark a line at an accurate angle to a datum. c. A 'sine bar' is used in conjunction with a socket to apply a large torque load to a bolt.

160. What type of information is included in the title block of a drawing?. a. Drawing revision information only are included in the title block of a drawing. b. Material form and specification, scale and part numbers only are included in the title block of a drawing. c. Essential information for identification, administration, and interpretation are included in the title block of a drawing.

161. What are the three main groups that drawings fall into?. a. Detail, assembly, and modification drawings are the three main groups that drawings fall into. b. Detail, assembly, and installation drawings are the three main groups that drawings fall into. c. Single part, component, and final drawings are the three main groups that drawings fall into.

162. What is the main reason that standardised fits and clearances were introduced? (8&-4). a. The main reason was to provide production of parts, that were exact replicas of each other, thus allowing interchangeability and mass production. b. The main reason was to ensure production of parts with smooth-enough surface to be installed to each other without undue problems. c. The main reason was to ensure that parts could be installed by robots.

163. Which of the following is a potential risk associated with a bowed shaft? (6-48). a. Increased risk of undertwist and vibration are a potential risk associated with a bowed shaft. b. Mechanical failures are a potential risk associated with a bowed shaft. c. Reduced vibration but increased fatigue are a potential risk associated with a bowed shaft.

164. Which of the following would not be included in schedule/table of fits and clearances in maintenance documentation?. a. Ovality of a hole or shaft would never be included in schedule of fits and clearances in maintenance documentation. b. Bow of a shaft would never be included in schedule of fits and clearances in maintenance documentation. c. Surface roughness would not be included in schedule of fits and clearances in maintenance documentation.

165. What is a clearance fit? (6-8). a. Always provides a positive clearance between two parts. b. Provides a positive clearance between two parts, but may provide also negative clearance between two parts. c. Always provides a negative clearance (interference) between two parts.

166. What is the purpose of coloured handles on AMP crimping tool?. a. The type of wire insulation for which it is to be used, is identified by the colour of the tool handles. b. The gauge (AWS) of wire for which it is to be used, is identified by the colour of the tool handles. c. The temperature range of the connector for which it is to be used, is identified by the colour of the tool handles.

167. How should the output voltage of the insulation tester be set when choosing an insulation tester?. a. The output voltage should be set to up-to, but not more than, the working voltage of the circuit under test. b. The output voltage should be set at least equal to, and preferably more than, the working voltage of the circuit under test. c. The output voltage should be set at least 5-times the working voltage of the circuit under test.

168. What is a minimum rivet pitch? (8-12). a. Minimum pitch in a row of rivets is 4D, where D is diameter of rivet shank. b. Minimum pitch in a row of rivets is 3D, where D is diameter of rivet shank. c. Minimum pitch in a row of rivets is 3D, where D is diameter of rivet head.

169. What should you do to remove a CherryLOCK or CherryMAX rivet? (8-112). a. Use a drill the same diameter as the rivet shank's, to remove the rivet head by drilling only a short way into the rivet, then pry off the rivet head. b. Use a drill the same diameter as the pin's, and remove the pin by drilling all the way through the rivet. c. Use a drill the same diameter as the pin's, partially drill into pin, then remove lock ring, than drill rivet head partially and pry off the rivet head, then punch out the remainder of the rivet.

170. How are pipes and hoses pressure tested?. a. Pipes and hoses are pressure tested by the use of the system fluid exclusively, then pipes are tested at 2.5 times maximum working pressure. b. Pipes and hoses are pressure tested by filling tubes first with working fluid or paraffin, the pipes are tested at 1.5 times maximum working pressure. c. Pipes and hoses are presture tested by the use of paraffin, the pipe tested at 1.25 times maximum working pressure.

171. What should be the length of a flexible hose?. a. The length of a flexible hose should be at least 3% greater than the maximum distance between the end fittings to which it will be connected. b. The length of a flexible hose should be at least 30% greater than the maximum distance between the end fittings to which it will be connected. c. The length of a flexible hose should be at least 15% greater than the maximum distance between the end fittings to which it will be connected.