Meteorología Final Boss

1. The present‐day atmosphere developed mainly through: A. Sudden stabilization after Earth’s formation. B. Direct capture of solar gases. C. Progressive evolution from a primitive atmosphere. D. Ocean evaporation.

2. Which gases dominate the atmospheric composition?. A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide. B. Nitrogen and water vapour. C. Nitrogen and oxygen. D. Oxygen and ozone.

3. The homosphere is characterized by: A. Separation of gases by molecular weight. B. Ionized gases only. C. Nearly constant gas proportions. D. Strong vertical temperature gradients.

4. Ozone and carbon dioxide both act as atmospheric heat sources because: A. Both absorb short‐wave solar radiation. B. Both absorb long‐wave terrestrial radiation. C. CO₂ absorbs long‐wave terrestrial radiation and ozone absorbs short‐wave solar radiation. D. Both emit radiation only.

5. What is the most important compositional characteristic of the homosphere?. A. Gases are separated by molecular weight. B. Ionization dominates. C. Gas proportions remain nearly constant with height. D. Weather phenomena occur.

6. Temperature measures: A. Heat content of a body. B. Mean kinetic energy of molecules. C. Energy transferred between bodies. D. Radiation intensity.

7. Surface air temperature is measured using thermometers installed in: A. Radiation shields exposed to the Sun. B. Stevenson screens. C. Open shelters. D. Automatic aircraft sensors.

8. The atmosphere is heated mainly: A. Directly by solar radiation. B. From the stratosphere downward. C. From below by terrestrial long‐wave radiation. D. By conduction only.

9. Temperature inversions occur when: A. Temperature decreases with height. B. Pressure increases with height. C. Temperature increases with height in a layer. D. Air becomes saturated.

10. Why is temperature a key meteorological parameter?. A. It controls humidity directly. B. It defines altitude. C. It controls pressure gradients, wind and vertical motion. D. It determines air composition.

11. Atmospheric pressure is: A. The force exerted by wind. B. The weight of the air above a surface. C. Independent of altitude. D. Constant worldwide.

12. Most of the atmospheric mass is concentrated: A. In the thermosphere. B. In the stratosphere. C. In the lower layers of the atmosphere. D. Above 30 km.

13. Closely spaced isobars on a surface chart indicate: A. Weak winds. B. Stable conditions. C. Strong winds. D. High humidity.

14. Isallobars represent: A. Lines of equal pressure. B. Vertical pressure gradients. C. Pressure changes with time. D. Temperature tendencies.

15. What is atmospheric pressure?. A. Force exerted by wind. B. Energy of air molecules. C. Weight of the air column above a surface. D. Force caused by gravity variations.

16. Air density is defined as: A. Pressure per unit volume. B. Mass of air per unit volume. C. Temperature per unit mass. D. Weight of air per unit area.

17. Which factor does NOT directly affect air density?. A. Temperature. B. Pressure. C. Humidity. D. Wind speed.

18. Humid air is less dense than dry air because: A. It is warmer. B. Water vapour has lower molecular mass. C. Pressure decreases. D. Latent heat is released.

19. Which combination of variables mainly controls air density?. A. Wind, humidity and latitude. B. Temperature, pressure and humidity. C. Pressure and wind. D. Temperature and altitude only.

20. The ISA atmosphere is: A. A real‐time atmospheric model. B. An idealized reference atmosphere. C. Valid only in the troposphere. D. Humid by definition.

21. ISA sea‐level temperature is: A. 0 °C. B. 10 °C. C. 15 °C. D. 20 °C.

22. In the ISA troposphere, temperature decreases at: A. 3 °C per km. B. 5 °C per km. C. 6.5 °C per km. D. 9.8 °C per km.

23. A positive ISA deviation indicates: A. Colder‐than‐standard air. B. Lower density altitude. C. Warmer‐than‐standard air. D. Higher pressure.

24. What is the main purpose of the ISA atmosphere?. A. To describe real atmospheric conditions. B. To predict weather. C. To provide a common reference for aviation calculations. D. To measure climate change.

25. The barometric altimeter measures: A. True geometric height. B. Distance from terrain. C. Distance between pressure levels. D. Radar altitude.

26. With QNH set, the altimeter indicates: A. Height above ground. B. Altitude above mean sea level. C. Flight level. D. Height above the aerodrome.

27. Flying from high to low pressure without resetting the altimeter results in: A. True altitude higher than indicated. B. True altitude lower than indicated. C. No altitude error. D. Indicated altitude lower than true.

28. Temperature error of the altimeter is most hazardous when flying in: A. Warm air. B. Neutral ISA conditions. C. Cold air. D. High pressure.

29. What does a barometric altimeter actually measure?. A. True geometric height. B. Height above terrain. C. Distance between pressure levels. D. Radar altitude.

30. Wind is mainly driven by: A. Temperature differences. B. Coriolis force. C. Pressure gradient force. D. Friction.

31. The Coriolis force is: A. Maximum at the equator. B. Zero at the equator. C. Independent of latitude. D. Strongest near the surface.

32. The Hadley, Ferrel and Polar cells: A. Occur only in the Northern Hemisphere. B. Redistribute heat from the equator toward the poles. C. Are local wind systems. D. Exist only over oceans.

33. Subtropical high‐pressure belts are associated with: A. Strong convection. B. Persistent cloudiness. C. Subsidence and dry conditions. D. Polar air masses.

34. What force initiates wind motion?. A. Coriolis force. B. Friction. C. Pressure Gradient Force. D. Centrifugal force.

35. Sea breezes develop mainly: A. At night. B. In winter. C. During the day due to land heating. D. Under strong synoptic pressure gradients.

36. Mountain waves form when airflow is: A. Weak and unstable. B. Strong, stable and perpendicular to the mountain range. C. Moist and calm. D. Parallel to terrain.

37. Jet streams are typically located: A. Near the surface. B. In the lower stratosphere only. C. Near the tropopause. D. In the mesosphere.

38. Clear‐air turbulence is most likely associated with: A. Warm sector air. B. Weak wind gradients. C. Strong wind shear near jet streams. D. Fog.

39. Where are jet streams normally located?. A. Near the surface. B. Mid‐troposphere. C. Near the tropopause. D. In the mesosphere.

40. Relative humidity expresses: A. Absolute moisture content. B. Vapour pressure only. C. Degree of saturation. D. Cloud base.

41. The dew point is: A. The temperature of condensation nuclei. B. The temperature at which air becomes saturated. C. Always below 0 °C. D. Independent of moisture.

42. Relative humidity usually reaches its maximum: A. At midday. B. In the afternoon. C. Near dawn. D. At sunset.

43. What does the dew point temperature represent?. A. Cloud base height. B. Air temperature. C. Moisture content of the air. D. Relative humidity.

44. Latent heat is: A. Heat that changes temperature. B. Heat measured with a thermometer. C. Energy absorbed or released without temperature change. D. Radiation emitted by clouds.

45. Which process absorbs latent heat from the environment?. A. Condensation. B. Freezing. C. Evaporation. D. Deposition.

46. Supercooled water droplets are: A. Ice crystals below 0 °C. B. Liquid droplets below 0 °C without freezing nuclei. C. Always frozen on contact. D. Found only above the tropopause.

47. The release of latent heat during condensation mainly contributes to: A. Atmospheric stability. B. Radiation balance. C. Intensification of convection and cloud development. D. Pressure increase at the surface.

48. An adiabatic process occurs when an air parcel: A. Exchanges heat with its surroundings. B. Is saturated. C. Changes temperature without heat exchange. D. Emits radiation.

49. The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR) applies to: A. Saturated air. B. Unsaturated air. C. Cloudy air only. D. Stable atmospheres only.

50. The Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate (SALR) is smaller than the DALR because: A. Pressure decreases faster. B. Latent heat is released during condensation. C. Moist air is heavier. D. Radiation increases.

51. Absolute instability occurs when: A. ELR < SALR. B. SALR < ELR < DALR. C. ELR > DALR. D. ELR = DALR.

52. What causes adiabatic cooling of rising air?. A. Heat loss to surroundings. B. Radiation. C. Expansion due to decreasing pressure. D. Evaporation.

53. Cloud classification is mainly based on: A. Colour and thickness. B. Base height and shape. C. Temperature only. D. Water content.

54. Which cloud genus belongs to the high‐cloud group?. A. Altostratus. B. Stratocumulus. C. Cirrus. D. Nimbostratus.

55. Which cloud produces widespread continuous precipitation?. A. Cumulus. B. Stratocumulus. C. Nimbostratus. D. Altocumulus.

56. Altocumulus castellanus is operationally significant because it indicates: A. Stable air. B. Fog formation. C. Latent instability aloft. D. Jet stream presence.

57. What is fog, and how is it classified meteorologically?. A. Fog is a cloud in the upper atmosphere; it is classified based on altitude. B. Fog forms due to condensation of water vapor near the surface and is classified based on visibility. C. Fog is a form of precipitation and is classified by droplet size. D. Fog is only found in cold climates and is classified by temperature.

58. Which factor typically leads to fog dissipation?. A. Increased presence of condensation nuclei everywhere. B. Wind shear within stable air masses. C. Reduced solar radiation after midnight. D. Rising ambient temperature or decreasing humidity levels.

59. What defines fog in meteorology?. A. Any cloud near the surface. B. Visibility below 5 km. C. Visibility of 1,000 m or less. D. High relative humidity.

60. Radiation fog forms mainly due to: A. Warm air advection. B. Precipitation evaporation. C. Nocturnal surface cooling. D. Orographic lifting.

61. Advection fog typically forms when: A. Cold air moves over warm land. B. Warm, moist air moves over a colder surface. C. Air rises over mountains. D. Rain falls into dry air.

62. The most persistent fogs are usually: A. Radiation fogs. B. Evaporation fogs. C. Advection fogs. D. Valley fogs.

63. According to the Bergeron and Coalescence theories, how does precipitation form?. A. Precipitation forms only in warm clouds through the Coalescence theory. B. The Bergeron theory explains precipitation formation in cold clouds, while the Coalescence theory applies to warm clouds. C. Precipitation occurs only when warm air rises and cools rapidly. D. Both theories are mutually exclusive and cannot occur in the same cloud.

64. The Bergeron–Findeisen process requires: A. Liquid water only. B. Ice crystals and supercooled droplets. C. Strong surface heating. D. Tropical conditions.

65. The collision–coalescence process occurs mainly in: A. Cold clouds. B. Mixed‐phase clouds. C. Warm clouds. D. Cirrus clouds.

66. Precipitation intensity depends mainly on: A. Cloud colour. B. Updraft strength and cloud structure. C. Surface pressure. D. Latitude only.

67. Drizzle droplets are characterized by: A. Diameter greater than 1 mm. B. Diameter smaller than 0.5 mm. C. Ice composition. D. High fall speed.

68. Convective precipitation is typically: A. Long‐lasting and uniform. B. Short‐lived and intense. C. Always frontal. D. Stratiform.

69. Global precipitation maxima are typically found: A. In subtropical anticyclones. B. At the poles. C. Near the equator (ITCZ). D. Over cold ocean currents.

70. Which factor best characterizes convective precipitation?. A. Surface heating restricted by thermal inversions. B. Weak vertical movements above cooler ground. C. Rapid upward motion of very unstable air. D. Steady horizontal flow in stable layers.

71. What defines an air mass, and how is it classified?. A. An air mass is a moving body of air classified only by its temperature. B. Air masses form randomly and are classified based on their movement speed. C. The Iberian Peninsula is only affected by tropical air masses. D. An air mass is a portion of the atmosphere with homogeneous properties and is classified by latitude, humidity, and temperature contrast.

72. Air masses form mainly in: A. Low‐pressure, unstable areas. B. Frontal zones. C. High‐pressure, stable source regions. D. Mountainous areas.

73. A cold air mass (K) moving over a warmer surface becomes: A. More stable and drier. B. More unstable with reduced relative humidity. C. Colder and more stable. D. Unchanged.

74. What is a meteorological front, and how are fronts classified?. A. A front is the intersection line between two air masses, classified as cold, warm, occluded, or stationary. B. A front is a high‐pressure system that separates two stable air masses, classified by wind speed. C. Fronts only occur in tropical regions and are classified by their humidity levels. D. A meteorological front is a boundary between identical air masses with the same temperature and pressure, classified as cold, warm, occluded, or stationary.

75. Which front occurs when a cold air mass advances under a warm air mass?. A. Stationary front with minimal horizontal movement. B. Cold front producing significant vertical cloud development. C. Warm front with widespread stratiform clouds. D. Occluded front merging two existing boundaries.

76. Which frontal type typically produces a narrow band of intense precipitation?. A. Warm front. B. Stationary front. C. Cold front. D. Occluded front.

77. Anticyclones are characterized by: A. Rising air and instability. B. Descending air and stable conditions. C. Strong frontal activity. D. Persistent precipitation.

78. How does the circulation of an anticyclone differ between hemispheres?. A. Anticyclones rotate counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. B. Anticyclones do not rotate; they remain stationary over time. C. Anticyclones rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. D. Anticyclones always move rapidly and unpredictably, regardless of the hemisphere.

79. What is cyclogenesis, and when does explosive cyclogenesis occur?. A. Cyclogenesis is the process of cyclone formation, and explosive cyclogenesis occurs when pressure drops more than 24 hPa in 24 hours. B. Cyclogenesis refers to the formation of anticyclones, and explosive cyclogenesis happens when temperature increases rapidly. C. Cyclogenesis is the process of front dissipation, and explosive cyclogenesis occurs only in summer. D. Cyclogenesis is the formation of stationary fronts, and explosive cyclogenesis happens when two warm air masses collide.

80. Which type of anticyclone is typically responsible for desert climates?. A. Thermal anticyclone. B. Cold anticyclone. C. Dynamic subtropical anticyclone. D. Polar anticyclone.

81. What atmospheric condition do stationary anticyclones commonly bring?. A. Frequent cyclonic circulations may develop near anticyclone boundaries. B. Frequent low‐level clouds with intermittent drizzles. C. Rapid frontal passages and stormy periods. D. Long‐lasting stable weather and mostly clear skies.

82. Explosive cyclogenesis is defined by a pressure drop of more than: A. 12 hPa in 24 h. B. 18 hPa in 24 h. C. 24 hPa in 24 h. D. 30 hPa in 12 h.

83. Low‐pressure systems are associated with: A. Subsidence and divergence. B. Ascending air and instability. C. Clear skies. D. Weak winds.

84. What are TRS, and what conditions are necessary for their formation?. A. TRS are high‐pressure systems that form over cold waters and weaken over warm areas. B. TRS form at any temperature and are not influenced by wind shear. C. TRS form exclusively at the poles and are strongest during winter. D. TRS are low‐pressure systems that form over warm waters (≥26°C) with low wind shear and an unstable atmosphere.

85. The main energy source of tropical cyclones is: A. Solar radiation. B. Sensible heat flux. C. Latent heat released during condensation. D. Friction.

86. In the Northern Hemisphere, the strongest winds in a tropical cyclone are usually found: A. On the left side of the track. B. At the center (eye). C. To the right of the cyclone’s path. D. Behind the storm.

87. What is the global circulation system, and what are its main components?. A. The global circulation system is a worldwide wind pattern that transports heat, consisting of Hadley, Ferrel, and Polar cells. B. The global circulation system only affects tropical regions and consists exclusively of the Hadley cell. C. The global circulation system is a local wind phenomenon caused by small‐scale pressure changes. D. The global circulation system has no impact on climate or weather patterns.

88. The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is mainly characterized by: A. Subsidence and dry air. B. Convergence, ascent and heavy rainfall. C. Polar easterlies. D. Persistent anticyclones.

89. The seasonal movement of the ITCZ is responsible for: A. Jet stream formation. B. Seasonal rainfall patterns in the tropics. C. Polar climate variability. D. Mid‐latitude cyclones.

90. Mid‐latitude climate variability is mainly due to: A. Monsoons. B. Interaction of warm and cold air masses. C. Permanent anticyclones. D. Lack of frontal systems.

91. According to the Köppen classification, climates of type B correspond to: A. Tropical humid climates. B. Temperate humid climates. C. Boreal climates. D. Dry climates (deserts and steppes).

92. What are local winds, and what factors influence their formation?. A) Local winds are global air currents that remain constant throughout the year. B) Local winds are air movements occurring in specific regions due to pressure and temperature differences, influenced by surface characteristics and elevation changes. C) Local winds are only found in mountainous areas and have no impact on coastal regions. D) Local winds are unpredictable and do not follow any specific patterns.

93. What typically triggers a sea breeze during daytime?. A. Subsidence of higher air pressure onto coastal zones. B. Convergence of two cold continental air masses. C. The land warms faster than nearby waters. D. The ocean warming faster than the land surface.

94. Which wind is a cold, dry wind typical of the Ebro Valley?. A. Levante. B. Poniente. C. Cierzo. D. Scirocco.

95. What is icing, and under what conditions does it occur?. A. Icing is the accumulation of ice on aircraft surfaces, occurring due to supercooled water droplets at temperatures between 0°C and ‐40°C. B. Icing only occurs on the ground and is caused by condensation during cold nights. C. Icing happens exclusively in polar regions where temperatures are always below freezing. D. Icing occurs when aircraft fly through warm, humid air masses with high pressure.

96. Aircraft icing mainly occurs at temperatures between: A. +10 °C and 0 °C. B. 0 °C and −5 °C. C. 0 °C and −40 °C. D. Below −50 °C.

97. Rime ice forms when: A. Large droplets freeze slowly. B. Small droplets freeze rapidly. C. Rain freezes on contact. D. Snow compacts on wings.

98. Which type of icing is considered the most dangerous for aircraft?. A. Rime ice, because it forms a brittle and easily removable layer. B. Hoar frost, because it forms on the ground and affects takeoff. C. Clear ice, because it is dense, transparent, strongly adheres to surfaces, and is difficult to remove. D. Mixed ice, because it forms in warm air masses and has great impact on aircraft performance.

99. Which type of ice forms when large supercooled droplets freeze slowly?. A. Hoar frost frequently develops on cold parked aircraft. B. Mixed ice forms when dust particles merge with ice. C. Clear ice that strongly adheres to surfaces. D. Rime ice accumulating as brittle deposits.

100. The highest icing risk in warm fronts is usually: A. Above −30 °C. B. Near the freezing level ahead of the front. C. Behind the cold air mass. D. Below the isocero.

101. What is the freezing level (isocero), and why is it important in aviation?. A. The freezing level is the altitude of the 0°C isotherm, serving as a reference for potential icing formation. B. The freezing level refers to the lowest temperature recorded at ground level. C. The freezing level is the temperature at which fuel in aircraft tanks begins to solidify. D. The freezing level only affects tropical regions and has no impact on aviation safety.

102. A thunderstorm is defined by the presence of: A. Heavy rain. B. Lightning. C. Thunder. D. Gust fronts.

103. Which condition is essential for thunderstorm formation?. A. Coriolis force. B. Atmospheric instability. C. High pressure. D. Radiation fog.

104. What are the three key conditions required for a thunderstorm to form?. A. Strong surface winds, high atmospheric pressure, and a cold air mass. B. Atmospheric instability, atmospheric moisture, and a triggering mechanism. C. Atmospheric stability, high humidity, and clear skies. D. Low humidity, high pressure, and the presence of stratiform clouds.

105. Microbursts are dangerous because they cause: A. Turbulence at cruise level. B. Sudden loss of airspeed and lift. C. Icing. D. Hail only.

106. A supercell thunderstorm is characterized by: A. Weak updrafts. B. A rotating updraft (mesocyclone). C. Absence of wind shear. D. Short lifetime.

107. What are the three stages of a thunderstorm's life cycle?. A. Formation stage, stable stage, and extinction stage. B. Warm front stage, cold front stage, and occlusion stage. C. Cloud condensation stage, precipitation stage, and clearing stage. D. Developing stage, mature stage, and dissipating stage.

108. Which of the following statements correctly describes the different types of thunderstorms and their formation mechanisms?. A. Air mass thunderstorms form when a cold air mass advances over a warm surface, while frontal thunderstorms develop due to strong convective heating in tropical regions. B. Frontal thunderstorms are associated with weather fronts, where a cold air mass forces warm air to rise, while orographic thunderstorms form when moist air is lifted over mountains. C. Orographic thunderstorms occur only in coastal regions due to temperature differences between land and sea, and squall lines are a type of weak, short‐lived thunderstorm system. D. Heat thunderstorms require strong cold fronts to develop, while air mass thunderstorms form exclusively in polar regions due to descending cold air.

109. Why do supercell storms often last longer than typical single‐cell storms?. A. Their overall lifespan mainly hinges on ground cooling. B. Their rotating updrafts tilt and sustain convection. C. They form in mountainous zones with stable layers. D. They lack mesocyclones or other strong rotating updrafts.

110. What are some of the main in‐flight hazards that pilots must consider?. A. Clear skies, stable atmospheric conditions, and light winds. B. Warm temperatures, high humidity, and calm winds. C. Increased oxygen levels, strong tailwinds, and clear air conditions. D. Icing, turbulence, wind shear, storms, tornadoes, and reduced visibility.

111. Which turbulence type is hardest to detect visually at high altitudes?. A. Mechanical turbulence often occurs due to friction near surfaces. B. Clear‐air turbulence with no obvious cloud formation. C. Orographic turbulence arises whenever strong winds cross mountains. D. Convective turbulence under towering cumulonimbus clouds.

112. Wind shear is especially dangerous during: A. Cruise. B. Descent only. C. Take‐off and landing. D. Holding.

113. Mountain waves are associated with: A. Unstable air. B. Weak winds. C. Stable airflow over mountains. D. Tropical air masses.

114. What mountain‐induced hazard might produce extreme downdrafts and rotor clouds?. A. Sea breezes forming over high terrain. B. Mountain waves generated by strong perpendicular airflow. C. Foehn wind bringing warm air downslope. D. Localized low‐pressure cells forming in valleys.

115. What is CATDEF, and what is its purpose?. A. CATDEF is a global weather prediction model used for civilian meteorological forecasting. B. CATDEF is the Catalog of Meteorological Data, Products, and Services for Defense, ensuring meteorological support for the Armed Forces and National Defense. C. CATDEF is a classification system for weather phenomena based on their severity. D. CATDEF is a training program for meteorologists specializing in military operations.

116. What are EMAe, OMAe, and OMD, and what are their functions?. A. They are global meteorological centers responsible for long‐term climate forecasting. B. They are different types of meteorological service units within AEMET that provide observation and forecasting for aerodromes and defense operations. C. They are private weather organizations that supply data to commercial airlines. D. They are specific weather patterns that influence air mass movement.

117. What is the purpose of SIGWX charts and AIREP Special reports in aviation meteorology?. A. SIGWX charts provide forecasts of significant weather conditions at various flight levels, while AIREP Special reports are real‐time pilot observations of hazardous weather. B. SIGWX charts report real‐time weather conditions, and AIREP Special reports provide long‐term forecasts for enroute planning. C. SIGWX charts are used exclusively for military aviation, while AIREP Special reports are used for commercial flights. D. SIGWX charts focus on weather at ground level, while AIREP Special reports provide data only for high‐altitude flights.

118. METAR reports are issued regularly every: A. 10 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 1 hour. D. 6 hours.

119. TAF forecasts are issued by: A. EMAe stations. B. OVM offices. C. OMAe offices. D. WAFC.

121. Within the Single European Sky framework, AEMET acts as: A. Supervisory authority. B. Military authority. C. Certified meteorological service provider. D. Air traffic controller.

120. SIGMET reports information about: A. Routine weather. B. Significant hazardous weather for en‐route flights. C. Only thunderstorms. D. Aerodrome conditions.