Operational Procedures Test Astana

Who is the operator to provide an operations manual for?. Only for flight crew. For the Authority. All company personnel. Operations staff.

On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all crew members and all of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than: Crew -15000 ft, Passenger-13000ft. Crew -10000 ft, Passenger-15000ft. Crew -13000 ft, Passenger-15000ft. Crew -10000 ft, Passenger-13000ft.

A category precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least: 800m. 550m. 500m. 350m.

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: All flight crew must be on board. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking/ disembarking. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board. The stairs shall be fully extended.

A category II precision approach is an approach with: A decision height of at least 200 ft. A decision height of at least 50 ft. A decision height of at least 100 ft. No decision height.

All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1990 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than: 27000 kg. 14000 kg. 20000 kg. 5700 kg.

An airbus A321 NEO have a 239 seats config on board, how many cabin crew members are needed?. 5. 2. 4. 3.

In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima, what of the following needs to be considered? 1. Crew composition 2. Ability to communicate/receive meteorological information 3. Significant obstacles in the missed approach area 4. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway 5. Navigation equipment in the aeroplane. 1, 2, 4 & 5. 1, 2 & 3. All of the above. 2, 3, 4 & 5.

Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened: Only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety. While at their station. Only during take-off and landing. From take-off to landing.

Who accepts the MEL?. The country of the designers. The country where the flight takes place. The country of the manufacturers. The country of the operator.

A list to be carried in the aeroplane detailing minimum equipment required must be approved by: Country of operator. Country of manufacturer. No such book is required to be approved by an authority. Country of operations.

From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be observed?. Red. Green. All of the above. White.

When planning an IFR sector with a destination alternate airfield equipped with a CAT II ILS, the required weather minima at the Alternate airfield are: Ceiling (DA/H +200ft) and RVR/VIS +800m. CAT I RVR. CAT II RVR. Ceiling (DA/H +400ft) and RVR/VIS +1500m.

Aircraft are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 121 kt - 140 kt?. Aeroplane category E. Aeroplane category B. Aeroplane category D. Aeroplane category C.

Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It particularly contains: 1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination ; 2. One copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet 3. Copies of the relevant aircraft's technical log 4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator 5. Special loads notification 6. Charts The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 3, 4 & 5. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6. 2 & 5. 1, 3 & 5.

A copy of what info is to be left on the ground?. Passenger manifests, notification of special passengers. Route specific maps and charts. NOTAMs, tech log, operational flight plan, mass & balance, special load notification. AICs, AlSs, and all company NOTAMs.

Coverage of permanently illuminated white lights at the rear of the aircraft is: 220°. 140°. 110°. 70°.

What is the minimum crew rest period before flight?. 13 hours, reducing by 30 minutes for every sector after the 3rd sector in a day. 10 hours when operating from home base. 12 hours when operating from home base. 12 hours when operating away from home base.

What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?. The ability to conform with set procedures. Simulator flying skills. The ability to land safely. Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR.

What are the rules regarding OPCs?. Can be completed in the simulator but only if the simulator is certified by the Authority. Can be completed in conjunction with a line check. Can be completed in the aircraft but only if the aircraft is certified by the Authority as a suitable substitute for the simulator. Can be completed in the simulator, but no passengers to be carried.

During a flight, the captain is informed that a passenger is using a portable electronic device, which is adversely affecting the aircraft's electrical avionics. The captain must: Allow the device to be used from take-off to landing. Allow the device to be used at take-off and landing. Stop the passenger from using the device. Allow the device to be used for certain exceptions.

Where is the Minimum Equipment List?. Appended to the AFM. In the operations room. In the OM. In the maintenance documents.

A piece of equipment on your public transport aeroplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is the: OM chapter "Abnormal and Emergency procedures". OPS. AFM. MEL.

Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the: AFM. OFP. Journey logbook. OM.

The operator shall include in the OM a MEL which shall be approved by the authority of: The country where the aeroplane is operated. The country where the aeroplane was manufactured. The country of the operator. None, no approval is required.

The MOCA is 6900 ft, what is maximum obstacle or terrain height?. 5830 ft. 5990 ft. 4880 ft. 5370 ft.

What is required for navigation in IMC?. Anti-icing equipment. One VHF box and one HF box. A serviceable weather radar. Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until the visual point.

What is CAT III RVR minima when using no roll-out control/guidance system?. 175 m. 75 m. 125 m. 0 m.

On IFR flights, the commander shall only commence the flight when information is available indicating that the expected meteorological conditions, at the time of arrival, are at or above: Planning minima. CAT II approach = min CAT I RVR. Aerodrome operating minima + (NPA RVR/VIS + 1 000 m). Aerodrome operating minima.

What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before April 1998?. Record the last 48 hours of flight. Record last 30 mins of flight. Record the last 25 hours of operation. Record for the duration of the flight.

On an NDB approach with an MDH of 360 ft and a required RVR of 1500 m and a reported met vis of 2500 m, when can you start an approach?. When the cloud base is above 36 ft. When the cloud base is above the system minimum. With any cloud base. When the cloud base report is received.

To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have: Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days.

The considerations for a non-precision approach are: 1. MDA (H) 2. DH 3. Ceiling 4. RVR/VIS. 2 & 4. 2, 3 & 4. 1, 3, & 4. 1 & 3.

Who issues and updates the MEL?. The designer. The operator. The manufacturer. The Authority.

For CAT II operations the DH should be determined by the use of a _____ with an RVR limit for Cat A aeroplane of _____ m?. Radio altimeter and min RVR 300m. Barometer and min RVR 350m. Barometer and min RVR 450 m. Radio altimeter and min RVR 200m.

Below which height should all call-outs be referenced from the radio altimeter during CAT I/lll approaches?. 200 ft above aerodrome elevation. 200 ft above aerodrome threshold elevation. 500 ft above aerodrome threshold elevation. 500 ft above aerodrome elevation.

Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given?. Certificate of airworthiness (CofA). Insurance certificate. Aircraft registration. Air Operator's Certificate (AOC).

Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found?. AIC. OM. Aircraft flight notes. Journey logbook.

Whatis the requirement for the issue of an AOC?. Have facilities for all maintenance. Notalready hold an AOC issued by another authority. Have registered offices in all countries of operations. Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes.

FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last: 30 hours of operation. 48 hours of operation. 10 hours of operation. the whole flight.

A pilot in command: 1. Must comply with ATC instructions immediately 2. Is only responsible when airborne 3. May deviate in an emergency 4. May deviate from complying with rules of the air in order to comply with an ATC instruction 5. May request a new clearance if unsatisfied. 3 & 5. 1, 3, 4 & 5. All of the above. 3, 4 & 5.

What manuals are to be carried?. Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM. All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness. Operations Manual in toto. Company instructions for all flight crew.

The OPS document is based on: ICAO Annex 6. JAA guide line. Rules of the Air. Federal Aviation Requirements. (FAR).

When planning an IFR sector with a destination alternate airfield equipped with a CAT II ILS, the lowest possible minima at the Alternate airfield are: CAT I RVR. CAT II RVR. Ceiling (DA/H +100ft) and RVR/VIS +300m. Ceiling (DA/H +200ft) and RVR/VIS +550m.

How far away can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engine aeroplane?. 120 mins at normal cruise speed. 120 mins at one engine cruise speed. 60 mins at one engine cruise speed. 60 mins at normal cruise speed.

Type A instrument approach operation means an instrument approach operation with an MDH or a DH: At or above 250 ft. At or below 200ft. At or below 250ft. At or above 200ft.

What is Vat?. The lesser of VSO or VS1G. VSO x 1.23. VS1G x 1.3. VSO x 1.3.

When a special VFR clearance is obtained from an air traffic control unit, what is the lowest permissible cloud ceiling?. 1100 ft. 1500 ft. 900 ft. 600 ft.

The MEL is drawn up by the: Operator and may be more restrictive than the MMEL. Manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the MMEL. Manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the MMEL. Operator and may be less restrictive than the MMEL.

What are the threshold speeds for a Cat D aeroplane?. 145- 160 kt. 141-165kt. 131- 155kt. 121-140kt.

A Steep approach is when using glideslope angles of: +4.0°. +4.5°. +3.5°. +3.8°.

What is DH used for?. Visual manoeuvring. Circling to land. Precision approaches. Non-precision approaches.

What is CAT II DH?. >200 ft <100 ft. no DH. 200 ft. 50 ft or no DH.

When are life jackets required?. 400 NM from land. 300 NM from land. 50 NM from land. 100 NM from land.

How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?. No less than 6 months between checks. 3 checks within the year with no less than 4 months between checks. 2 checks every 13 months. 2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks.

Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It particularly contains: 1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination 2. One copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet 3. Copies of the relevant aircraft's technical log 4. The en route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator 5. Special loads notification 6. Charts The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2 & 5. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6. 2, 3, 4 & 5. 1, 3 & 5.

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: 30 minutes at cruising speed. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500 ft. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500 ft. 45 minutes at cruising speed.

After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: 45 days. 90 days. 30 days. 60 days.

What is the currency requirement for a co-pilot?. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days.

When are all flight crew members required to be at their stations?. Always except when they need to leave for operational or physiological reasons. At all times other than take-off and landing. As specified in the OM. Throughout the flight.

Above what altitude are quick-donning masks required?. 32000 ft. 25000 ft. 15000 ft. 10000 ft.

One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of intended destination and destination alternate (if one is required) are, at the predicted time of: Arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. Take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. Arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time, equal to minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. Arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

With regard to the operation of Cockpit Voice Recorders (CVRs), an aeroplane with a Maximum Certificated Take-Off Mass of more than 27000 kg and a Certificate of Airworthiness first issued after 1 January 2021 must be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the preceding. 2 hours. 25 hours. 60 min. 30 min.

Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?. Operator. State of the operator. Captain. State of Registration.

What are the limits on crew duty?. 190 hours in a year, 60 duty hours in any seven consecutive days. 190 block hours in any consecutive 7 days, 900 block hours in any consecutive 28 days. 900 block hours in a year, 100 block hours in any consecutive 28 days. 900 block hours in a year, 60 block hours in any consecutive 7 days.

What are the circling minimum visibility and MDH for a category B aeroplane?. 1500 m 450 ft. 1500 m 600 ft. 1600 m 500 ft. 1600 m 400 ft.

The operator shall only select an aerodrome as an ETOPS en-route alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that for a Precision approach: DA/H + 600 ft, RVR/VIS + 800 m. DA/H + 400 ft, RVR/VIS + 900 m. DA/H + 400 ft, RVR/VIS + 1500 m. DA/H + 200 ft, RVR/VIS + 800 m.

Who could be nominated as Senior Cabin Crew?. Any cabin crew over the age of 18. Cabin crew as long as they are not qualified on more than 3 types or variants. Cabin crew with more than one year experience. Any flight crew.

Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxiing to the holding point, what do you consult first?. MEL. AFM. Operator. State of Registration.

Supplemental oxygen is used to: Assist a passenger with breathing difficulties. Protect a crew member who fights a fire. Provide passengers on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurization. Provide oxygen to passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurization.

Destination alternate for a turbojet - what is the required fuel overhead?. 30 minutes at 1500 ft in standard conditions. 2 hours at 1500 ft in standard conditions. 30 minutes at cruise speed. 30 minutes at endurance speed.

The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than: 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months.

What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an unpressurized aircraft?. 12000 ft. 10000 ft. 13000 ft. 11000 ft.

Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?. The Operator. The operations officer. The State of Registration. The Authority.

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that the flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?. The operator. The captain. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot. The company's cargo technicians.

A modern aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified MTOM is greater than: 14000 kg. 27000 kg. 5700 kg. 20000 kg.

What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?. 120 mins or 400 NM whichever is less. 50 NM from land. 60 mins flying time at the one engine out cruise speed. 30 mins or 120 NM whichever is less.

When establishing an instrument approach procedure, five aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (VAT) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed (VSO) in the landing configuration multiplied by a factor of: 1,3. 1,45. 1,5. 1,15.

What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?. All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight. The failure of one piece does not affect another. If one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available. All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications.

The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated: When oxygen is being supplied in the cabin. During climb and descent. In each cabin section if oxygen is being carried. During take-off and landing.

Low visibility conditions means meteorological conditions with RVR less than?. 550 m. 400 m. 150 m. 300 m.

When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?. The threshold is more than 7 ft above the AR E. The threshold is less than 2 m above the AR E. The threshold is more than 2 m below the AR E. The threshold is less than 7 ft below the AR E.

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by: The operator, and it is inserted in the OM. The manufacturer, and it is appended to the AFM. The manufacturer, and it is inserted in the OM. The operator, and it is appended in the AFM.

Which of the following are not required to be carried on each flight?. Third party insurance certificate. CofA. European Health Insurance Card (EHIC) for all crew. NOTAMS and AIS briefing material.

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by the: Manufacturer. Civil Aviation Authority of the European states. Aeronautical Authority the airline operator depends on. Airline operator.

On an ILS, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must you abort the approach?. Outer marker. Inner marker. Start of the glide slope descent. FAF.

An aeroplane Operator notices that one of their A320s does NOT contain a first-aid kit. This particular A320 has an MOPSC of 180 and is scheduled for a flight in 1 hour. What must the Operator do?. Proceed with the flight as normal if the aeroplane is carrying 50 % or less of its total passenger capacity. Proceed with the flight as normal, as there are NO formal requirements for first-aid kits in aeroplanes of this size. Install an appropriate first-aid kit or cancel the flight, as at least one kit is required for an aeroplane of this size. Leave the decision as to whether to proceed with the flight or NOT to the Commander.

When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome?. If the flight time is more than 6 hours. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC. If the flight time is Less than 1 hour. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing.

Where would a pilot find the MEL for his aeroplane?. Ops Manual part B. Ops Manual part C. Company Procedures Manual. AFM.

The MMEL is: Compiled by the operator and approved by the state of design. Compiled by the manufacturer and not approved by the operator. Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the state of design or state of the manufacturer. Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the operator.

Aeroplanes with a take-off mass greater than 5700 kg shall be fitted with an independent automatically operated emergency power supply to operate and illuminate the artificial horizon for: 60 min. 15 min. 2 hrs. 30 min.

Aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than _____ shall be equipped with an emergency medical kit when any point on the planned route is more than _____ minutes flying time: MOPSC 30 and 60 min. MOPSC 25 and 90 min. MOPSC 19 and 90 min. MOPSC 60 and 110 min.

What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?. 250 ft. 200 ft. 300 ft. 350 ft.

When are flight crew allowed to leave their stations?. When having lunch. In the performance of their duties. Only when the captain allows it. At any time specified by the OM.

What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs (person with reduced mobility)?. They must provide their own food. Cannot impede the performance of crew duty. Must be seated away from emergency exits. No more than 5% of passengers may be PRMs.

What is the minimum visibility for a Cat C aircraft during a circling approach?. 3600 m. 2400 m. 1500 m. 1600 m.

Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?. The operator and in the OM. The manufacturer and in the OM. The manufacturer and in the AFM. The operator and in the AFM.

What is the co-pilot currency requirement?. At the controls for 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days. 3 take-offs and landings in the last 60 days. At the controls for 3 flights in the last 60 days. 3 flights in the last 90 days.

What is the take-off RVR when the runway have centre line markings with end, edge and centre line lights and the crew is LVTO qualified?. 150 m. 150 m if threshold RVR is available. 200m. 250m.

What is the minimum RVR for a visual approach?. 550m. 1500m. 800m. 1200m.

If there is unauthorized use of equipment that affects the aeroplane's system, the commander: May authorize its use at his discretion. May authorize its use for take-off and landing. May authorize its use for the whole flight. Must not authorize its use.