A&P - General

The working voltage of a capacitor in an ac circuit should be. equal to the highest applied voltage. at least 20 percent greater than the highest applied voltage. at least 50 percent greater than the highest applied voltage.

The term that describes the combined resistive forces in an ac circuit is. resistance. reactance. impedance.

The basis for transformer operation in the use of alternating current is mutual. inductance. capacitance. reactance.

The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is called (disregard resistance). impedance. reluctance. inductive reactance.

An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a circuit?. Inductance and frequency. Resistance and voltage. Resistance and capacitive reactance.

(Refer to Figure 1.) When different rated capacitors are connected in series in a circuit, the total capacitance is. less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor. greater than the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor. equal to the sum of all the capacitances.

Capacitors are sometimes used in dc circuits to. counteract inductive reactance at specific locations. smooth out slight pulsations in current/voltage. assist in stepping voltage and current up and/or down.

In an ac circuit, the effective voltage is. equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage. greater than the maximum instantaneous voltage. less than the maximum instantaneous voltage.

The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to the. distance between the plates and inversely proportional to the plate area. plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plates. plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

(Refer to Figure 2.) What is the total capacitance of a circuit containing three capacitors with capacitances of .02 microfarad, .05 microfarad, and .10 microfarad, respectively?. .170 uF. 0.125 pF. .0125 uF.

Unless otherwise specified, any values given for current or voltage in an ac circuit are assumed to be. instantaneous values. effective values. maximum values.

When different rated capacitors are connected in parallel in a circuit, the total capacitance is (Note: C(T) = C(1) + C(2) + C(3) . . .). less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor. equal to the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor. equal to the sum of all the capacitances.

When inductors are connected in series in a circuit, the total inductance is (where the magnetic fields of each inductor do not affect the others) (Note: L(T) = L(1) + L(2) + L(3) . . .). less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor. equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor. equal to the sum of the individual inductances.

(Refer to Figure 3.) When more than two inductors of different inductances are connected in parallel in a circuit, the total inductance is. less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor. equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor. equal to the sum of the individual inductances.

What is the total capacitance of a certain circuit containing three capacitors with capacitances of .25 microfarad, .03 microfarad, and .12 microfarad, respectively? (Note: C(T) = C(1) + C(2) + C(3)). .4 uF. .04 pF. .04 uF.

Which requires the most electrical power during operation? (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts). A 12-volt motor requiring 8 amperes. Four 30-watt lamps in a 12-volt parallel circuit. Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24-volt parallel system.

How much power must a 24-volt generator furnish to a system which contains the following loads? UNIT RATING One motor (75 percent efficient) 1/5 hp Three position lights 20 watts each One heating element 5 amp One anticollision light 3 amp (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts). 402 watts. 385 watts. 450 watts.

A 12-volt electric motor has 1,000 watts input and 1 horsepower output. Maintaining the same efficiency, how much input power will a 24-volt, 1-horsepower electric motor require (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts). 1,000 watts. 2,000 watts. 500 watts.

How many amperes will a 28-volt generator be required to supply to a circuit containing five lamps in parallel, three of which have a resistance of 6 ohms each and two of which have a resistance of 5 ohms each?. 1.11 amperes. 1 ampere. 25.23 amperes.

A 1-horsepower, 24-volt dc electric motor that is 80 percent efficient requires 932.5 watts. How much power will a 1-horsepower, 12-volt dc electric motor that is 75 percent efficient require? (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts). 932.5 watts. 1,305.5 watts. 994.6 watts.

The potential difference between two conductors which are insulated from each other is measured in. volts. amperes. coulombs.

A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of four resistors of equal value. What is the voltage drop across each resistor?. 12 volts. 6 volts. 24 volts.

When calculating power in a reactive or inductive ac circuit, the true power is. more than the apparent power. less than the apparent power in a reactive circuit and more than the apparent power in an inductive circuit. less than the apparent power.

(Refer to Figure 4.) How much power is being furnished to the circuit?. 575 watts. 2,875 watts. 2,645 watts.

(Refer to Figure 5.) What is the impedance of an ac-series circuit consisting of an inductor with a reactance of 10 ohms, a capacitor with a reactance of 4 ohms, and a resistor with a resistance of 8 ohms?. 22 ohms. 5.29 ohms. 10 ohms.

(Refer to Figure 6.) If resistor R(5) is disconnected at the junction of R(4) and R(3) as shown, what will the ohmmeter read?. 2.76 ohms. 3 ohms. 12 ohms.

(Refer to Figure 7.) If resistor R(3) is disconnected at terminal D, what will the ohmmeter read?. Infinite resistance. 10 ohms. 20 ohms.

(Refer to Figure 8.) With an ohmmeter connected into the circuit as shown, what will the ohmmeter read?. 20 ohms. Infinite resistance. 10 ohms.

(Refer to Figure 9.) How many instruments (voltmeters and ammeters) are installed correctly?. Three. One. Two.

The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is. in series with a unit. between the source voltage and the load. in parallel with a unit.

Which term means .001 ampere?. Microampere. Kiloampere. Milliampere.

A cabin entry light of 10 watts and a dome light of 20 watts are connected in parallel to a 30-volt source. If the voltage across the 10-watt light is measured, it will be. equal to the voltage across the 20-watt light. half the voltage across the 20-watt light. one-third of the input voltage.

A 14-ohm resistor is to be installed in a series circuit carrying .05 ampere. How much power will the resistor be required to dissipate?. At least .70 milliwatt. At least 35 milliwatts. Less than .035 watt.

.002KV equals. 20 volts. 2.0 volts. .2 volt.

(Refer to Figure 10.) What is the measured voltage of the series-parallel circuit between terminals A and B?. 1.5 volts. 3.0 volts. 4.5 volts.

(Refer to Figure 64.) A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of two resistors of equal value. What is the value of each resistor? (Note: R(t) = E^2/P). 24 ohms. 12 ohms. 6 ohms.

Which requires the most electrical power? (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts). A 1/5-horsepower, 24-volt motor which is 75 percent efficient. Four 30-watt lamps arranged in a 12-volt parallel circuit. A 24-volt anticollision light circuit consisting of two light assemblies which require 3 amperes each during operation.

What unit is used to express electrical power?. Volt. Watt. Ampere.

What is the operating resistance of a 30-watt light bulb designed for a 28-volt system?. 1.07 ohms. 26 ohms. 0.93 ohm.

Which statement is correct when made in reference to a parallel circuit?. The current is equal in all portions of the circuit. The total current is equal to the sum of the currents through the individual branches of the circuit. The current in amperes can be found by dividing the EMF in volts by the sum of the resistors in ohms.

Which of the following are commonly used as rectifiers in electrical circuits? 1. Anodes. 2. Cathodes. 3. Diodes. 3, 1. 3, 2. 3.

Diodes are used in electrical power supply circuits primarily as. switches. rectifiers. relays.

Transfer of electric energy from one circuit to another without the aid of electrical connections. is called induction. is called capacitance. can cause excessive arcing and heat, and as a result is practical for use only with low voltages/amperages.

If three resistors of 3 ohms, 5 ohms, and 22 ohms are connected in series in a 28-volt circuit, how much current will flow through the 3-ohm resistor?. 9.3 amperes. 1.05 amperes. 0.93 ampere.

A circuit has an applied voltage of 30 volts and a load consisting of a 10-ohm resistor in series with a 20-ohm resistor. What is the voltage drop across the 10-ohm resistor?. 10 volts. 20 volts. 30 volts.

(Refer to Figure 11.) Find the total current flowing in the wire between points C and D. 6.0 amperes. 2.4 amperes. 3.0 amperes.

(Refer to Figure 11.) Find the voltage across the 8-ohm resistor. 8 volts. 20.4 volts. 24 volts.

(Refer to Figure 12.) Find the total resistance of the circuit. 16 ohms. 2.6 ohms. 21.2 ohms.

Which is correct in reference to electrical resistance?. Two electrical devices will have the same combined resistance if they are connected in series as they will have if connected in parallel. If one of three bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit is removed, the total resistance of the circuit will become greater. An electrical device that has a high resistance will use more power than one with a low resistance with the same applied voltage.

What happens to the current in a voltage step-up transformer with a ratio of 1 to 4?. The current is stepped down by a 1 to 4 ratio. The current is stepped up by a 1 to 4 ratio. The current does not change.

(Refer to Figure 13.) Determine the total current flow in the circuit. 0.2 ampere. 1.4 amperes. 0.8 ampere.

(Refer to Figure 14.) The total resistance of the circuit is. 25 ohms. 35 ohms. 17 ohms.

Which of these will cause the resistance of a conductor to decrease?. Decrease the length or the cross-sectional area. Decrease the length or increase the cross-sectional area. Increase the length or decrease the cross-sectional area.

Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass the most readily?. Copper. Iron. Aluminum.

(Refer to Figure 64.) A 48-volt source is required to furnish 192 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of three resistors of equal value. What is the value of each resistor?. 36 ohms. 4 ohms. 12 ohms.

Which is correct concerning a parallel circuit?. Total resistance will be smaller than the smallest resistor. Total resistance will decrease when one of the resistances is removed. Total voltage drop is the same as the total resistance.

The voltage drop in a circuit of known resistance is dependent on. the voltage of the circuit. only the resistance of the conductor and does not change with a change in either voltage or amperage. the amperage of the circuit.

A thermal switch, or thermal protector, as used in an electric motor, is designed to. close the integral fan circuit to allow cooling of the motor. open the circuit in order to allow cooling of the motor. reroute the circuit to ground.

(Refer to Figure 15.) With the landing gear retracted, the red indicator light will not come on if an open occurs in wire. No. 19. No. 7. No. 17.

(Refer to Figure 15.) The No. 7 wire is used to. close the PUSH-TO-TEST circuit. open the UP indicator light circuit when the landing gear is retracted. close the UP indicator light circuit when the landing gear is retracted.

(Refer to Figure 15.) When the landing gear is down, the green light will not come on if an open occurs in wire. No. 7. No. 6. No. 17.

(Refer to Figure 16.) What will be the effect if the PCO relay fails to operate when the left-hand tank is selected?. The fuel pressure crossfeed valve will not open. The fuel tank crossfeed valve open light will illuminate. The fuel pressure crossfeed valve open light will not illuminate.

(Refer to Figure 16.) The TCO relay will operate if 24-volts dc is applied to the bus and the fuel tank selector is in the. right-hand tank position. crossfeed position. left-hand tank position.

(Refer to Figure 16.) With power to the bus and the fuel selector switched to the right-hand tank, how many relays in the system are operating?. Three. Two. Four.

(Refer to Figure 16.) When electrical power is applied to the bus, which relays are energized?. PCC and TCC. TCC and TCO. PCO and PCC.

(Refer to Figure 16.) Energize the circuit with the fuel tank selector switch selected to the left-hand position. Using the schematic, identify the switches that will change position. 5, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 15. 3, 5, 6, 7, 11, 13. 5, 6, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16.

(Refer to Figure 17.) Which of the components is a potentiometer?. 5. 3. 11.

(Refer to Figure 17.) The electrical symbol represented at number 5 is a variable. inductor. resistor. capacitor.

(Refer to Figure 18.) When the landing gears are up and the throttles are retarded, the warning horn will not sound if an open occurs in wire. No. 4. No. 2. No. 9.

(Refer to Figure 18.) The control valve switch must be placed in the neutral position when the landing gears are down to. permit the test circuit to operate. prevent the warning horn from sounding when the throttles are closed. remove the ground from the green light.

(Refer to Figure 19.) Under which condition will a ground be provided for the warning horn through both gear switches when the throttles are closed?. Right gear up and left gear down. Both gears up and the control valve out of neutral. Left gear up and right gear down.

(Refer to Figure 19.) When the throttles are retarded with only the right gear down, the warning horn will not sound if an open occurs in wire. No. 5. No. 13. No. 6.

(Refer to Figure 19.) When the landing gears are up and the throttles are retarded, the warning horn will not sound if an open occurs in wire. No. 5. No. 7. No. 6.

When referring to an electrical circuit diagram, what point is considered to be at zero voltage?. The circuit breaker. The switch. The ground reference.

What is the purpose of the ground symbol used in electrical circuit diagrams?. To show that there is common bus for connection of the source of electrical energy to the load. To show the source of electrical energy for the load. To show that there is a return path for the current between the source of electrical energy and the load.

(Refer to Figure 20.) Troubleshooting an open circuit with a voltmeter as shown in this circuit will. permit current to flow and illuminate the lamp. create a low resistance path and the current flow will be greater than normal. permit the battery voltage to appear on the voltmeter.

(Refer to Figure 21.) Which symbol represents a variable resistor?. 2. 1. 3.

In a P-N-P transistor application, the solid state device is turned on when the. base is negative with respect to the emitter. base is positive with respect to the emitter. emitter is negative with respect to the base.

In an N-P-N transistor application, the solid state device is turned on when the. emitter is positive with respect to the base. base is negative with respect to the emitter. base is positive with respect to the emitter.

Typical application for zener diodes is as. full-wave rectifiers. half-wave rectifiers. voltage regulators.

(Refer to Figure 22.) Which illustration is correct concerning bias application and current (positive charge) flow?. 1. 2. 3.

Forward biasing of a solid state device will cause the device to. conduct via zener breakdown. conduct. turn off.

(Refer to Figure 23.) If an open occurs at R(1), the light. cannot be turned on. will not be affected. cannot be turned off.

(Refer to Figure 23.) If R(2) sticks in the up position, the light will. be on full bright. be very dim. not illuminate.

(Refer to Figure 24.) Which statement concerning the depicted logic gate is true?. Any input being 1 will produce a 0 output. Any input being 1 will produce a 1 output. All inputs must be 1 to produce a 1 output.

(Refer to Figure 25.) In a functional and operating circuit, the depicted logic gate's output will be 0. only when all inputs are 0. when all inputs are 1. when one or more inputs are 0.

(Refer to Figure 26.) Which of the logic gate output conditions is correct with respect to the given inputs?. 1. 2. 3.

A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2-ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is. 0.52 ohm. 2.52 ohms. 5.0 ohms.

If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed?. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse.

Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is true?. The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 80ºF. A specific gravity correction should be added to the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature is below 59ºF. The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte temperature.

A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because. the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution. most of the acid is in the solution. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing.

What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source?. The total plate area of the battery. The state-of-charge of the battery. The ampere-hour capacity of the battery.

Which of the following statements is/are generally true regarding the charging of several aircraft batteries together? 1. Batteries of different voltages (but similar capacities) can be connected in series with each other across the charger, and charged using the constant current method. 2. Batteries of different ampere-hour capacity and same voltage can be connected in parallel with each other across the charger, and charged using the constant voltage method. 3. Batteries of the same voltage and same ampere-hour capacity must be connected in series with each other across the charger, and charged using the constant current method. 3. 2 and 3. 1 and 2.

The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes. constant current and constant voltage. constant current and varying voltage. constant voltage and varying current.

The purpose of providing a space underneath the plates in a lead acid battery's cell container is to. prevent sediment buildup from contacting the plates and causing a short circuit. allow for convection flow of the electrolyte in order to provide for cooling of the plates. ensure that the electrolyte quantity ratio to the number of plates and plate area is adequate.

Which condition is an indication of improperly torqued cell link connections of a nickel-cadmium battery?. Light spewing at the cell caps. Toxic and corrosive deposits of potassium carbonate crystals. Heat or burn marks on the hardware.

The presence of any small amount of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery cells in service is an indication of. normal operation. excessive gassing. plate sulfation.

What is the likely result of servicing and charging nickel-cadmium and lead acid batteries together in the same service area?. Lowered amp-hour capacities, for both types of batteries. Reduced battery service life for both types of batteries. Contamination of both types of batteries.

The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is. being charged. in a discharged condition. under a heavy load condition.

The electrolyte of a nickel cadmium battery is highest when the battery is. in a fully charged condition. in a discharged condition. under a no-load condition.

The end-of-charge voltage of a 19-cell nickel-cadmium battery, measured while still on charge,. must be 1.2 to 1.3 volts per cell. must be 1.4 volts per cell. depends upon its temperature and the method used for charging.

Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low liquid level because. electrolyte evaporates through the vents. of current leakage from individual cells. electrolyte becomes absorbed into the plates.

How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte. By a measured discharge. By the level of the electrolyte.

What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?. Excessive electrolyte dilution. Excessive spewing is likely to occur during the charging cycle. No adverse effects since water may be added anytime.

In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell temperature. causes an increase in internal resistance. causes a decrease in internal resistance. increases cell voltage.

Which of the following best describes the contributing factors to thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium battery installed in an aircraft?. High internal resistance intensified by high cell temperatures and a high current discharge/charge rate in a constant potential (voltage) charging system. Low internal resistance intensified by high cell temperatures and a high voltage discharge/charge rate in a constant current charging system. Low internal resistance intensified by high cell temperatures and a high current discharge/charge rate in a constant potential (voltage) charging system.

When a charging current is applied to a nickel cadmium battery, the cells emit gas. toward the end of the charging cycle. throughout the charging cycle. especially if the electrolyte level is high.

What is the total capacitance of a circuit containing three capacitors in parallel with capacitances of .02 microfarad, .05 microfarad, and .10 microfarad, respectively?. .170 uF. 0.125 pF. .0125 uF.

What will a voltmeter read if properly connected across a closed switch in a circuit with electrical power on?. Voltage drop in the component(s) the switch is connected to. System voltage. Zero voltage.

Convert farads to microfarads by. multiplying farads by 10 to the power of 6. multiplying picofarads by 10 to the power of 6. multiplying microfarads by 10 to the power of 6.

Convert farads to picofarads by: multiplying farads by 10 to the power of 12. multiplying microfarads by 10 to the power of -12. multiplying picofarads by 10 to the power of 12.

Which effect does not apply to the movement of electrons flowing in a conductor?. Magnetic energy. Thermal energy. Static energy.

What is the basic unit of electrical quantity?. Electromotive Force. Ampere. Coulomb.

What is the opposition to the flow of AC produced by a magnetic field with generated back voltage (EMF) called?. Inductive reactance. Capacitive reactance. Mutual inductance.

Electrostatic fields are also known as. Dielectric fields. Electrostatic fields. Static fields.

In a parallel circuit with three 6-ohms resistors across a 12-volt battery, what is the total current (It) value in the circuit?. 2 amps. 6 amps. 12 amps.

In a parallel circuit with four 6-ohm resistors across a 24-volt battery, what is the total voltage across resistor-three (VR3) in the circuit?. 6 volts. 18 volts. 24 volts.

Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out only when all inputs are different?. XNOR. NAND. XOR.

Which of the following best describes the operating principal in a nickel-cadmium battery installed in an aircraft?. At full charge, the electrolyte will be at its lowest level and should be filled. To completely charge a nickel-cadmium battery, some gassing must take place; thus, some water will be used. When positive plates slowly give up oxygen, which is regained by the negative plates, the battery is charging.

If each cell, connected in series, equals 2 volts, how would a 12-cell lead acid battery be rated?. 24 volts. 12 volts. 6 volts.

What factors strengthen a coil inductor?. Limiting and separating the coils. Adding and separating the coils. Adding coils close together.

What does the letter Q symbolize when measuring electrical charge?. Farad. Electron. Coulomb.

What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge or object not visible to the viewer?. Medium-weight dashed line. Medium solid line. Alternate short and long light dashes.

(Refer to Figure 27.) In the isometric view of a typical aileron balance weight, identify the view indicated by the arrow. 1. 3. 2.

(1) A detail drawing is a description of a single part. (2) An assembly drawing is a description of an object made up of two or more parts. Regarding the above statements,. only No. 1 is true. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

(Refer to Figure 28.) Identify the bottom view of the object shown. 2. 3. 1.

A specific measured distance from the datum or some other point identified by the manufacturer, to a point in or on the aircraft is called a. zone number. reference number. station number.

Which statement is true regarding an orthographic projection?. There are always at least two views. It could have as many as eight views. One-view, two-view, and three-view drawings are the most common.

(Refer to Figure 29.) Identify the left side view of the object shown. 1. 2. 3.

A line used to show an edge which is not visible is a. phantom line. hidden line. break line.

(Refer to Figure 30.) Identify the bottom view of the object. 1. 2. 3.

(1) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of individual components in the aircraft. (2) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of components with respect to each other within the system. Regarding the above statements,. only No. 1 is true. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. only No. 2 is true.

(Refer to Figure 31.) What are the proper procedural steps for sketching repairs and alterations?. 3, 1, 4, 2. 4, 2, 3, 1. 1, 3, 4, 2.

Which statement is applicable when using a sketch for making a part?. The sketch may be used only if supplemented with three-view orthographic projection drawings. The sketch must show all information to manufacture the part. The sketch need not show all necessary construction details.

(Refer to Figure 32.) What is the next step required for a working sketch of the illustration?. Darken the object outlines. Sketch extension and dimension lines. Add notes, dimensions, title, and date.

For sketching purposes, almost all objects are composed of one or some combination of six basic shapes; these include the. angle, arc, line, plane, square and circle. triangle, circle, cube, cylinder, cone, and sphere. triangle, plane, circle, line, square, and sphere.

What should be the first step of the procedure in sketching an aircraft wing skin repair?. Draw heavy guidelines. Lay out the repair. Block in the views.

A simple way to find the center of a circle on a sketch or drawing, or a circular piece of material is to. draw two non-parallel chord lines across the circle and then a corresponding perpendicular bisector lines across each chord line. draw two parallel chord lines across the circle and then a corresponding perpendicular bisector line across each chord line. draw a single chord line across the circle and then a corresponding perpendicular bisector line across the chord line.

(1) According to 14 CFR Part 91, repairs to an aircraft skin should have a detailed dimensional sketch included in the permanent records. (2) On occasion, a mechanic may need to make a simple sketch of a proposed repair to an aircraft, a new design, or a modification. Regarding the above statements,. only No. 1 is true. only No. 2 is true. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

Working drawings may be divided into three classes. They are: title drawings, installation drawings, and assembly drawings. detail drawings, assembly drawings, and installation drawings. detail drawings, orthographic projection drawings, and pictorial drawings.

What is the class of working drawing that is the description/depiction of a single part?. Installation drawing. Assembly drawing. Detail drawing.

Sketches are usually made easier by the use of. graph paper. plain white paper. artist's paper.

What material symbol is frequently used in drawings to represent all metals?. Steel. Cast iron. Aluminum.

(Refer to Figure 33.) Which material section-line symbol indicates cast iron?. 1. 2. 3.

(Refer to Figure 34.) What is the dimension of the chamfer?. 1/16 X 37º. 0.3125 + .005 -0. 0.0625 X 45º.

(Refer to Figure 34.) What is the maximum diameter of the hole for the clevis pin?. 0.3175. 0.3130. 0.31255.

(Refer to Figure 34.) What would be the minimum diameter of 4130 round stock required for the construction of the clevis that would produce a machined surface?. 55/64 inch. 1 inch. 7/8 inch.

(Refer to Figure 34.) Using the information, what size drill would be required to drill the clevis bolthole?. 5/16 inch. 21/64 inch. 1/2 inch.

The measurements showing the ideal or 'perfect' sizes of parts on drawings are called. allowances. dimensions. tolerances.

(Refer to Figure 35.) Identify the extension line. 3. 1. 4.

(Refer to Figure 36.) The diameter of the holes in the finished object is. 3/4 inch. 31/64 inch. 1/2 inch.

Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are used to. locate parts, sections, and views on large drawings. indicate different sections of the aircraft. locate parts in the aircraft.

One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the. functional location of components within a system. physical location of components within a system. size and shape of components within a system.

When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches +.005 -.002. Which statement is true?. The maximum acceptable size is 4.390 inches. The minimum acceptable size is 4.385 inches. The minimum acceptable size is 4.382 inches.

What is the allowable manufacturing tolerance for a bushing where the outside dimensions shown on the blueprint are: 1.0625 + .0025 -.0003?. .0028. 1.0650. 1.0647.

A hydraulic system schematic drawing typically indicates the. specific location of the individual components within the aircraft. direction of fluid flow through the system. amount of pressure in the pressure and return lines, and in system components.

(Refer to Figure 37.) The vertical distance between the top of the plate and the bottom of the lowest 15/64-inch hole is. 2.250. 2.242. 2.367.

(1) A measurement should not be scaled from an aircraft print because the paper shrinks or stretches when the print is made. (2) When a detail drawing is made, it is carefully and accurately drawn to scale, and is dimensioned. Regarding the above statements,. only No. 2 is true. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

The drawings often used in illustrated parts manuals are. exploded view drawings. block drawings. detail drawings.

A drawing in which the subassemblies or parts are shown as brought together on the aircraft is called. an assembly drawing. a detail drawing. an installation drawing.

What type of diagram shows the wire size required for a particular installation?. A block diagram. A schematic diagram. A wiring diagram.

In what type of electrical diagram are images of components used instead of conventional electrical symbols?. A pictorial diagram. A schematic diagram. A block diagram.

Schematic diagrams are best suited for which of the following?. Showing the visual details of individual components in a system. Showing the overall location and appearance of components in a system. Troubleshooting system malfunctions.

In the reading of aircraft blueprints, the term 'tolerance,' used in association with aircraft parts or components,. is the tightest permissible fit for proper construction and operation of mating parts. is the difference between extreme permissible dimensions that a part may have and still be acceptable. represents the limit of galvanic compatibility between different adjoining material types in aircraft parts.

(Refer to Figure 38.) An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 1,830 cubic-inch displacement and develops 1,250 brake-horsepower at 2,500 RPM. What is the brake mean effective pressure?. 217. 205. 225.

(Refer to Figure 38.) An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 2,800 cubic-inch displacement, develops 2,000 brake-horsepower, and indicates 270 brake mean effective pressure. What is the engine speed (RPM)?. 2,200. 2,100. 2,300.

(Refer to Figure 38.) An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 2,800 cubic-inch displacement and develops 2,000 brake-horsepower at 2,200 RPM. What is the brake mean effective pressure?. 257.5. 242.5. 275.0.

(Refer to Figure 39.) Determine the cable size of a 40-foot length of single cable in free air, with a continuous rating, running from a bus to the equipment in a 28-volt system with a 15-ampere load and a 1-volt drop. No. 10. No. 11. No. 18.

(Refer to Figure 39.) Determine the maximum length of a No. 16 cable to be installed from a bus to the equipment in a 28-volt system with a 25-ampere intermittent load and a 1-volt drop. 8 feet. 10 feet. 12 feet.

(Refer to Figure 39.) Determine the minimum wire size of a single cable in a bundle carrying a continuous current of 20 amperes 10 feet from the bus to the equipment in a 28-volt system with an allowable 1-volt drop. No. 12. No. 14. No. 16.

(Refer to Figure 39.) Determine the maximum length of a No. 12 single cable that can be used between a 28-volt bus and a component utilizing 20 amperes continuous load in free air with a maximum acceptable 1-volt drop. 22.5 feet. 26.5 feet. 12.5 feet.

(Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the proper tension for a 1/8-inch cable (7 x 19) if the temperature is 80ºF. 70 pounds. 75 pounds. 80 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the proper tension for a 3/16-inch cable (7 x 19 extra flex) if the temperature is 87ºF. 135 pounds. 125 pounds. 140 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 41.) Determine how much fuel would be required for a 30-minute reserve operating at 2,300 RPM. 25.3 pounds. 35.5 pounds. 49.8 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 41.) Determine the fuel consumption with the engine operating at cruise, 2,350 RPM. 49.2 pounds per hour. 51.2 pounds per hour. 55.3 pounds per hour.

Which of the following terms is/are used to indicate specific measured distances from the datum and/or other points identified by the manufacturer, to points in or on the aircraft? 1. Zone numbers. 2. Reference numbers. 3. Station numbers. 1 and 3. 3. 2.

In a sectional view drawing, what sections illustrate particular parts of an object?. Removed. Revolved. Half.

(1) Sketches are usually made with the aid of drafting instruments. (2) Sketches are usually more complicated to make when using graph paper. Regarding the above statements,. Only No. 1 is true. Only No. 2 is true. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

What is used to indicate that a surface must be machine finished?. Tolerances. Leader lines. Finished marks.

What numbering system is used to locate fuselage frames?. Zone numbers. Station numbers. Tolerances.

What type of drawing line consists of alternating long and short lines?. Dimension. Center. Hidden.

When computing weight and balance, an airplane is considered to be in balance when. the average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within its CG range. all moment arms of the plane fall within CG range. the movement of the passengers will not cause the moment arms to fall outside the CG range.

What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight?. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel and hydraulic fluid. Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir.

The useful load of an aircraft consists of the. crew, usable fuel, passengers, and cargo. crew, usable fuel, oil, and fixed equipment. crew, passengers, usable fuel, oil, cargo, and fixed equipment.

Which of the following can provide the empty weight of an aircraft if the aircraft's weight and balance records become lost, destroyed, or otherwise inaccurate?. Reweighing the aircraft. The applicable Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet. The applicable flight manual or pilot's operating handbook.

In the theory of weight and balance, what is the name of the distance from the fulcrum to an object?. Lever arm. Balance arm. Fulcrum arm.

In the process of weighing an airplane toward obtaining the CG, the arms from the weighing points always extend. parallel to the centerline of the airplane. straight forward from each of the landing gear. directly from each weighing point to the others.

Which would have an effect on aircraft CG results when conducting a weight and balance check?. Leaving the parking brake on. Leaving the parking brake off. Leaving the downlocks installed.

When an aircraft is positioned for weighing on scales located under each landing gear wheel, which of the following may cause erroneous scale readings?. Gear downlocks installed. Parking brakes set. Parking brakes not set.

(1) Private aircraft are required by regulations to be weighed periodically. (2) Private aircraft are required to be weighed after making any alteration. Regarding the above statements,. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. only No. 1 is true. only No. 2 is true.

What FAA-approved document gives the leveling means to be used when weighing an aircraft?. Type Certificate Data Sheet. AC 43.13-1B. Manufacturer's maintenance manual.

Use of which of the following generally yields the highest degree of aircraft leveling accuracy?. Plumb bob and chalk line. Spirit level(s). Electronic load cell(s).

To obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the CG, it is necessary that an aircraft be weighed. in a level flight attitude. with all items of useful load installed. with no more than minimum fuel (1/12-gallon per METO horsepower) in all fuel tanks.

What type of measurement is used to designate the arm in weight and balance computation?. Distance. Weight. Weight x distance.

What determines whether the value of a moment is preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign in aircraft weight and balance?. The location of the weight in reference to the datum. The result of a weight being added or removed and its location relative to the datum. The location of the datum in reference to the aircraft CG.

The maximum weight of an aircraft is the. empty weight plus crew, maximum fuel, cargo, and baggage. empty weight plus crew, passengers, and fixed equipment. empty weight plus useful load.

Which statement is true regarding helicopter weight and balance?. Regardless of internal or external loading, lateral axis cg control is ordinarily not a factor in maintaining helicopter weight and balance. The moment of tail-mounted components is subject to constant change. Weight and balance procedures for airplanes generally also apply to helicopters.

What should be clearly indicated on the aircraft weighing form?. Minimum allowable gross weight. Weight of unusable fuel. Weighing points.

If the reference datum line is placed at the nose of an airplane rather than at the firewall or some other location aft of the nose,. all measurement arms will be in negative numbers. all measurement arms will be in positive numbers. measurement arms can be either positive or negative numbers depending on the manufacturer's preference.

Maximum zero fuel weight is the. dry weight plus the weight of full crew, passengers, and cargo. basic operating weight without crew, fuel, and cargo. maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft (passengers, crew, and cargo) without fuel.

If it is necessary to weigh an aircraft with full fuel tanks, all fuel weight must be subtracted from the scale reading(s). except minimum fuel. including unusable fuel. except unusable fuel.

The empty weight of an airplane is determined by. adding the net weight of each weighing point and multiplying the measured distance to the datum. subtracting the tare weight from the scale reading and adding the weight of each weighing point. multiplying the measured distance from each weighing point to the datum times the sum of scale reading less the tare weight.

When dealing with weight and balance of an aircraft, the term 'maximum weight' is interpreted to mean the maximum. weight of the empty aircraft. weight of the useful load. authorized weight of the aircraft and its contents.

Most modern aircraft are designed so that if all seats are occupied, full baggage weight is carried, and all fuel tanks are full, what will be the weight condition of the aircraft?. It will be in excess of maximum takeoff weight. It will be at maximum basic operating weight (BOW). It will be at maximum taxi or ramp weight.

The major source of weight change for most aircraft as they age is caused by. accumulation of grime and debris in hard-to-reach areas of the structure, and moisture absorption in cabin insulation. repairs and alterations. installation of hardware and safety wire, and added layers of primer and paint on the structure.

The useful load of an aircraft is the difference between. the maximum takeoff weight and basic empty weight. maximum ramp or takeoff weight as applicable, and zero fuel weight. (1) the weight of an aircraft with all seats filled, full baggage/cargo, and full fuel, and (2) aircraft weight with all seats empty, no baggage/cargo, and minimum operating fuel.

When determining the empty weight of an aircraft, certificated under current airworthiness standards (14 CFR Part 23), the oil contained in the supply tank is considered. a part of the empty weight. a part of the useful load. the same as the fluid contained in the water injection reservoir.

Improper loading of a helicopter which results in exceeding either the fore or aft CG limits is hazardous due to the. reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control. Coriolis effect being translated to the fuselage. reduction or loss of effective collective pitch control.

The maximum weight as used in weight and balance control of a given aircraft can normally be found. by adding the weight of full fuel, pilot, passengers, and maximum allowable baggage to the empty weight. in the Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet. by adding the empty weight and payload.

An aircraft with an empty weight of 2,100 pounds and an empty weight CG +32.5 was altered as follows: 1. two 18-pound passenger seats located at +73 were removed; 2. structural modifications were made at +77 increasing weight by 17 pounds; 3. a seat and safety belt weighing 25 pounds were installed at +74.5; and 4. radio equipment weighing 35 pounds was installed at +95. What is the new empty weight CG?. +34.01. +33.68. +34.65.

The CG range in single-rotor helicopters is. much greater than for airplanes. approximately the same as the CG range for airplanes. more restricted than for airplanes.

The amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and corresponding CG is. empty fuel tanks. unusable fuel. the amount of fuel necessary for 1/2 hour of operation.

An aircraft as loaded weighs 4,954 pounds at a CG of +30.5 inches. The CG range is +32.0 inches to +42.1 inches. Find the minimum weight of the ballast necessary to bring the CG within the CG range. The ballast arm is +162 inches. 61.98 pounds. 30.58 pounds. 57.16 pounds.

As weighed, the total empty weight of an aircraft is 5,862 pounds with a moment of 885,957. However, when the aircraft was weighed, 20 pounds of potable water were on board at +84, and 23 pounds of hydraulic fluid were in a tank located at +101. What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft?. 150.700. 151.700. 151.365.

Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are placed in an airplane so that their distance aft from the CG are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively. How far forward of the CG should a third box, weighing 20 pounds, be placed so that the CG will not be changed?. 3 feet. 2.5 feet. 8 feet.

An aircraft with an empty weight of 1,800 pounds and an empty weight CG of +31.5 was altered as follows: 1. two 15-pound passenger seats located at +72 were removed; 2. structural modifications increasing the weight 14 pounds were made at +76; 3. a seat and safety belt weighing 20 pounds were installed at +73.5; and 4. radio equipment weighing 30 pounds was installed at +30. What is the new empty weight CG?. +30.61. +31.61. +32.69.

An aircraft had an empty weight of 2,886 pounds with a moment of 101,673.78 before several alterations were made. The alterations included: 1. removing two passenger seats (15 pounds each) at +71; 2. installing a cabinet (97 pounds) at +71; 3. installing a seat and safety belt (20 pounds) at +71; and 4. installing radio equipment (30 pounds) at +94. The alterations caused the new empty weight CG to move. 1.62 inches aft of the original empty weight CG. 2.03 inches forward of the original empty weight CG. 2.03 inches aft of the original empty weight CG.

If a 40-pound generator applies +1400 inch-pounds to a reference axis, the generator is located. -35 from the axis. +35 from the axis. +25 from the axis.

In a balance computation of an aircraft from which an item located aft of the datum was removed, use. (-)weight X (+)arm (-)moment. (-)weight X (-)arm (+)moment. (+)weight X (-)arm (-)moment.

All other things being equal, if an item of useful load located aft of an aircraft's CG is removed, the aircraft's CG change will be. aft in proportion to the weight of the item and its location in the aircraft. forward in proportion to the weight of the item and its location in the aircraft. forward in proportion to the weight of the item, regardless of its location in the aircraft.

Datum is forward of the main gear center point 30.24 inches Actual distance between tail gear and main gear center points 360.26 inches Net weight at right main gear 9,980 pounds Net weight at left main gear 9,770 pounds Net weight at tail gear 1,970 pounds These items were in the aircraft when weighed: 1. Lavatory water tank full (34 pounds at +352). 2. Hydraulic fluid (22 pounds at -8). 3. Removable ballast (146 pounds at +380). What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft described above?. 62.92 inches. 60.31 inches. 58.54 inches.

When making a rearward weight and balance check to determine that the CG will not exceed the rearward limit during extreme conditions, the items of useful load which should be computed at their minimum weights are those located forward of the. forward CG limit. datum. rearward CG limit.

When, or under what condition(s) are adverse loading checks conducted?. At or below the maximum gross weight of the aircraft. Anytime a repair or alteration causes EWCG to fall outside the CG range. At specified flight hour or calendar time intervals.

When accomplishing loading computations for a small aircraft, necessary information obtained from the weight and balance records would include. unusable fuel weight and distance from datum. weight and location of permanent ballast. current empty weight and empty weight CG.

When an empty aircraft is weighed, the combined net weight at the main gears is 3,540 pounds with an arm of 195.5 inches. At the nose gear, the net weight is 2,322 pounds with an arm of 83.5 inches. The datum line is forward of the nose of the aircraft. What is the empty CG of the aircraft?. 151.1. 155.2. 146.5.

An aircraft with an empty weight of 1,500 pounds and an empty weight CG of +28.4 was altered as follows: 1. two 12-pound seats located at +68.5 were removed; 2. structural modifications weighing +28 pounds were made at +73; 3. a seat and safety belt weighing 30 pounds were installed at +70.5; and 4. radio equipment weighing 25 pounds was installed at +85. What is the new empty weight CG?. +23.51. +31.35. +30.30.

The following alteration was performed on an aircraft: A model B engine weighing 175 pounds was replaced by a model D engine weighing 185 pounds at a -62.00-inch station. The aircraft weight and balance records show the previous empty weight to be 998 pounds and an empty weight CG of 13.48 inches. What is the new empty weight CG?. 13.96 inches. 14.25 inches. 12.73 inches.

If the empty weight CG of an airplane lies within the empty weight CG limits,. it is necessary to calculate CG extremes. it is not necessary to calculate CG extremes. minimum fuel should be used in both forward and rearward CG checks.

When computing the maximum forward loaded CG of an aircraft, minimum weights, arms, and moments should be used for items of useful load that are located aft of the. rearward CG limit. forward CG limit. datum.

Find the empty weight CG location for the following tricycle-gear aircraft. Each main wheel weighs 753 pounds, nosewheel weighs 22 pounds, distance between nosewheel and main wheels is 87.5 inches, nosewheel location is +9.875 inches from datum, with 1 gallon of hydraulic fluid at -21.0 inches included in the weight scale. +97.375 inches. +95.61 inches. +96.11 inches.

An aircraft's LEMAC and TEMAC are defined in terms of distance. from the datum. from each other. ahead of and behind the wing center of lift, respectively.

If an aircraft CG is found to be at 24 percent of MAC, that 24 percent is an expression of the. distance from the TEMAC. distance from the LEMAC. average distance from the LEMAC to the wing center of lift.

What is meant by the term "residual fuel"?. A known amount of fuel left in the tanks, lines, and engine. The fuel remaining in the tanks, lines, and engine after draining. The fuel remaining in the tank, lines, and engine before draining.

Where do you look to determine the operating CG range when calculating a new aircraft weight and balance document?. It is found on the airframe data plate. It is found in the type certificate data sheet. It is found in the pilot's aircraft information manual.

Which coupling nut should be selected for use with 1/2-inch aluminum oil lines which are to be assembled using flared tube ends and standard AN nuts, sleeves, and fittings?. AN-818-5. AN-818-16. AN-818-8.

Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and. outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments. inside diameter in 1/16 inch increments. outside diameter in 1/32 inch increments.

From the following sequences of steps, indicate the proper order you would use to make a single flare on a piece of tubing: 1. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the flaring block. 2. Project the end of the tube slightly from the top of the flaring tool, about the thickness of a dime. 3. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube. 4. Strike the plunger several light blows with a lightweight hammer or mallet and turn the plunger one-half turn after each blow. 5. Tighten the clamp bar securely to prevent slippage. 6. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6. 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4. 3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4.

Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized area to such an extent that repair is necessary, may be repaired. by cutting out the damaged area and utilizing a swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends. only by replacing the tubing section run (connection to connection) using the same size and material as the original. by cutting out the damaged section and soldering in a replacement section of tubing.

What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum tubing?. Ease of construction. More resistant to damage when the joint is tightened. Can be applied to any size and wall-thickness of tubing.

A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation because, when under pressure, it. expands in length and diameter. expands in length and contracts in diameter. contracts in length and expands in diameter.

The term 'cold flow' is generally associated with. the effects of low temperature gasses or liquids flowing in hose or tubing. impressions left in natural or synthetic rubber hose material. flexibility characteristics of various hose materials at low ambient temperatures.

What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube fitting?. Black. Blue. Red.

Which of the following statements is/are correct in reference to flare fittings? 1. AN fittings have an identifying shoulder between the end of the threads and the flare cone. 2. AC and AN fittings are considered identical except for material composition and identifying colors. 3. AN fittings are generally interchangeable with AC fittings of compatible material composition. 1. 1 and 3. 1, 2, and 3.

Flexible lines must be installed with. a slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length. a slack of at least 10 to 12 percent of the length. enough slack to allow maximum flexing during operation.

The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a connection should be. 54-1/2 inches. 51-1/2 inches. 52-1/2 inches.

Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion and contraction due to temperature changes can best be avoided by. using short, straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of the aircraft. using tubing of the same material as the majority of the adjoining structure. providing bends in the tubing.

The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from 3/4-inch 0.072 5052-0 aluminum alloy tubing. What is the inside dimension of this tubing?. 0.606 inch. 0.688 inch. 0.750 inch.

In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two-piece tube connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used when a tubing flare is required. The use of this type connector eliminates. the flaring operation prior to assembly. the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process. wrench damage to the tubing during the tightening process.

Which statement(s) about Military Standard (MS) flareless fittings is/are correct? 1. During installation, MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by turning the nut a specified amount, rather than being torqued. 2. New MS flareless tubing/fittings should be assembled clean and dry without lubrication. 3. During installation, MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by applying a specified torque to the nut. 1. 1 and 2. 3.

When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN fittings, the flare angle must be. 37º. 39º. 45º.

Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than. 20 percent of the wall thickness. 1/32 inch or 20 percent of wall thickness, whichever is less. 10 percent of the wall thickness.

Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size according to the. outside diameter. wall thickness. inside diameter.

A scratch or nick in aluminum tubing can be repaired provided it does not. appear in the heel of a bend. appear on the inside of a bend. exceed 10 percent of the tube OD on a straight section.

Which of the following hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluids? 1. Butyl. 2. Teflon. 3. Buna-N. 4. Neoprene. 1 and 2. 2 and 4. 1 and 3.

Which tubings have the characteristics (high strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a high-pressure (3,000 PSI) hydraulic system for operation of landing gear and flaps?. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminum alloy. Corrosion-resistant steel annealed or 1/4H. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H aluminum alloy.

When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing,. paint removal from tube is not recommended as it will inhibit corrosion. paint clamp and tube after clamp installation to prevent corrosion. remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp location.

In a metal tubing installation,. rigid straight line runs are preferable. tension is undesirable because pressurization will cause it to expand and shift. a tube may be pulled in line if the nut will start on the threaded coupling.

The best tool to use when cutting aluminum tubing, or any tubing of moderately soft metal is a. hand operated wheel-type tubing cutter. fine-tooth hacksaw. circular-saw equipped with an abrasive cutting wheel.

The primary purpose of providing suitable bends in fluid and pneumatic metal tubing runs is to. clear obstacles and make turns in aircraft structures. provide for access within aircraft structures. prevent excessive stress on the tubing.

Which of the following statements is true regarding minimum allowable bend radii for 1.5 inches OD or less aluminum alloy and steel tubing of the same size?. The minimum radius for steel is greater than for aluminum. The minimum radius for steel is less than for aluminum. The minimum radius is the same for both steel and aluminum.

A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN is. a dual-purpose pneumatic and/or hydraulic line for normal and emergency system use. used to carry a hazardous substance. a pneumatic or hydraulic system drain or discharge line.

Which statement is true regarding the variety of symbols utilized on the identifying color-code bands that are currently used on aircraft plumbing lines?. Symbols are composed of various single colors according to line content. Symbols are always black against a white background regardless of line content. Symbols are composed of one to three contrasting colors according to line content.

If a flared tube coupling nut is overtightened, where is the tube most likely to be weakened/damaged?. Along the entire length of the sleeve and tube interface. At the edge of the sleeve and straight portion of the tube. At the sleeve and flare junction.

Which statement concerning Bernoulli's principle is true?. The pressure of a fluid increases at points where the velocity of the fluid increases. The pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the velocity of the fluid increases. It applies only to gases and vaporized liquids.

(1) Bonded clamps are used for support when installing metal tubing. (2) Unbonded clamps are used for support when installing wiring. Regarding the above statements,. only No. 1 is true. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

Which statement is true regarding flattening of tubing in bends?. Flattening by a maximum of 20 percent of the original diameter is permissible. Flattening by not more than 25 percent of the original diameter is permissible. The small diameter portion in the bend cannot exceed more than 75 percent of the diameter of straight tubing.

A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will. have higher flow capabilities. have equivalent flow characteristics. usually have interchangeable applications.

When a Teflon hose has been in service for a time, what condition may have occurred and/or what precaution should be taken when it is temporarily removed from the aircraft?. The hose interior must be kept wet with the fluid carried to prevent embrittlement/deterioration. The hose may become stiff and brittle if not flexed or moved regularly. The hose may have developed a set, or have been manufactured with a pre-set shape, and must be supported to maintain its shape.

Rolling-type Flaring Tools are used to flare X, X, and X tubing. Stainless steel, hard copper, mild steel. Titanium, soft copper, corrosion resistant steel. Soft copper, aluminum, brass.

When installing a castle nut, and the nut castellation does not align with the cotter pin hole in the bolt within the torque range, the acceptable practice is to. back the nut off and align it to the nearest hole. continue tightening the nut to the next hole. change the nut or washer and try again.

Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect. distortion. deep subsurface flaws. flaws on or near the surface.

Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be used on which of the following? 1. porous plastics. 2. ferrous metals. 3. nonferrous metals. 4. smooth primer-sealed wood. 5. nonporous plastics. 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3. 2, 3, 5.

Which of these nondestructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals, plastics, and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?. Eddy current inspection. Magnetic particle inspection. Ultrasonic inspection.

Which of the following defects are not acceptable for metal lines? 1. Cracked flare 2. Seams 3. Dents in the heel of a bend less than 20% of the diameter 4. Scratches/nicks on the inside of a bend less than 10% of wall thickness 5. Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube diameter. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. 1, 2, and 3. 1, 2, 3, and 5.

What nondestructive testing method requires little or no part preparation, is used to detect surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat-treat conditions?. Eddy current inspection. Ultrasonic inspection. Magnetic particle inspection.

What method of magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks and other defects?. Residual. Inductance. Continuous.

How many of these factors are considered essential knowledge for x-ray exposure? 1. Processing of the film. 2. Material thickness and density. 3. Exposure distance and angle. 4. Film characteristics. One. Three. Four.

The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilizes a ferromagnetic material that has. high permeability and low retentivity. low permeability and high retentivity. high permeability and high retentivity.

Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is true?. Subsurface discontinuities are made readily apparent. It is used in practically all circular and longitudinal magnetizing procedures. It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications.

A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What nondestructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?. Eddy current test. Metallic ring test. Ultrasonic test.

What two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle inspection?. Iron and ferric oxides. Wet and dry process materials. High retentivity and low permeability material.

Which of the following materials may be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method? 1. Magnesium alloys. 2. Aluminum alloys. 3. Iron alloys. 4. Copper alloys. 5. Zinc alloys. 1, 2, 3. 1, 2, 4, 5. 3.

One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by. subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage ac. slowly moving the part out of an ac magnetic field of sufficient strength. slowly moving the part into an ac magnetic field of sufficient strength.

Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization?. 45º. Longitudinal. Transverse.

Which of the following methods may be suitable to use to detect cracks open to the surface in aluminum forgings and castings? 1. Dye penetrant inspection. 2. Magnetic particle inspection. 3. Metallic ring (coin tap) inspection. 4. Eddy current inspection. 5. Ultrasonic inspection. 6. Visual inspection. 1, 4, 5, 6. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires. that the developer be applied to a flat surface. a longer-than-normal penetrating time. the surface to be highly polished.

Which of the following is a main determinant of the dwell time to use when conducting a dye or fluorescent penetrant inspection?. The size and shape of the discontinuities being looked for. The size and shape of the part being inspected. The type and/or density of the part material.

When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to. reveal all possible defects. evenly magnetize the entire part. ensure uniform current flow.

In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines generally causes. a large disruption in the magnetic field. a minimal disruption in the magnetic field. no disruption in the magnetic field.

If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part. was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied. has no appreciable damage. was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied.

(1) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from alternating current that is gradually reduced in strength. (2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct current that is alternately reversed in direction and gradually reduced in strength. Regarding the above statements,. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. only No. 1 is true. only No. 2 is true.

The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle buildup forming. a fernlike pattern. a single line. parallel lines.

A part which is being prepared for dye penetrant inspection should be cleaned with. a volatile petroleum-base solvent. the penetrant developer. water-base solvents only.

Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which condition?. The discontinuity pattern is straight. The discontinuity is found in a nonstressed area of the part. The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part.

In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the developer. seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of a defect. acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication. thoroughly cleans the surface prior to inspection.

What defects will be detected by magnetizing a part using continuous longitudinal magnetization with a cable?. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part. Defects parallel to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part.

Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect which defects?. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part. Defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part.

(1) In nondestructive testing, a discontinuity may be defined as an interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part. (2) A discontinuity may or may not affect the usefulness of a part. Regarding the above statements,. only No. 1 is true. only No. 2 is true. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

What type of corrosion may attack the grain boundaries of aluminum alloys when the heat treatment process has been improperly accomplished?. Concentration cell. Intergranular. Fretting.

Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys? 1. decrease in internal stress. 2. softening of the metal. 3. improved corrosion resistance. 1, 2. 1, 3. 2, 3.

Which heat-treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core?. Case hardening. Annealing. Tempering.

Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?. Tempering. Normalizing. Case hardening.

Normalizing is a process of heat treating. aluminum alloys only. iron-base metals only. both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals.

Which of the following occurs when a mechanical force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature, such as rolling, hammering, or bending? 1. The metals become artifically aged. 2. The metals become stress corrosion cracked. 3. The metals become cold worked, strain or work hardened. 2. 1 and 3. 3.

The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch. has little or no effect on a metal's heat treated characteristics. has a cumulative enhancement effect on the original heat treatment. can significantly alter a metal's properties in the reheated area.

Why is steel tempered after being hardened?. To increase its hardness and ductility. To increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness.

What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening or tempering treatment?. 3003-F. 5052-H36. 6061-O.

Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form. 6061-T9 stainless steel. Clad aluminum alloy.

What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been annealed?. Rapid cooling; high strength. Slow cooling; low strength. Slow cooling; increased resistance to wear.

Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to. clean, dry threads. clean, lightly oiled threads. both dry and lightly oiled threads.

What is generally used in the construction of aircraft exhaust collectors, stacks, and manifolds?. Stainless steel. Chrome-molybdenum alloy steel. Titanium nickel alloy.

Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolthead is. upward, or in rearward direction. upward, or in a forward direction. downward, or in a forward direction.

Alclad is a metal consisting of. aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aluminum core. pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core. a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy.

A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is. under shear loading. under tension loading. subject to rotation.

The Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) and the American Iron and Steel Institute use a numerical index system to identify the composition of various steels. In the number '4130' designating chromium molybdenum steel, the first digit indicates the. percentage of the basic element in the alloy. percentage of carbon in the alloy in hundredths of a percent. basic alloying element.

(Refer to Figure 42.) Which of the bolthead code markings shown identifies an AN corrosion resistant steel bolt?. 1. 2. 3.

Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolthead are. made of aluminum alloy. close tolerance bolts. standard steel bolts.

Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct?. When tightening castellated nuts on drilled bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line up, it is permissible to overtighten the nut to permit alignment of the next slot with the cotter pin hole. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the material thickness. Alloy steel bolts smaller than 1/4-inch diameter should not be used in primary structure.

Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be. equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together, plus approximately one diameter. equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together. one and one half times the thickness of the material which is fastened together.

When the specific torque value for nuts is not given, where can the recommended torque value be found?. AC 43.13-1B. Technical Standard Order. AC 43.13-2A.

(Refer to Figure 43.) Identify the clevis bolt illustrated. 1. 3. 2.

A particular component is attached to the aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt and a castle tension nut combination. If the cotter pin hole does not align within the recommended torque range, the acceptable practice is to. exceed the recommended torque range by no more than 10 percent. tighten below the torque range. change washers and try again.

A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt. NAS standard aircraft bolt. NAS close tolerance bolt.

How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable terminal secured?. With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin. With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between the fork and the fitting to which it is being attached. With a shear nut and cotter pin or a thin self-locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork.

Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?. For tension and shear load conditions. Where external tension loads are applied. Only for shear load applications.

A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is classified as an. NAS standard aircraft bolt. NAS close tolerance bolt. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt.

The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is. heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum. commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material is heat-treated aluminum alloy. strain-hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum.

The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper. Aluminum alloy containing zinc. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.

Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a. class 1 fit for the threads. class 2 fit for the threads. class 3 fit for the threads.

In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates. the major alloying element. the number of major alloying elements used in the metal. the percent of alloying metal added.

How is the locking feature of the fiber-type locknut obtained?. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying section. By making the threads in the fiber insert slightly smaller than those in the load carrying section.

Why should an aircraft maintenance technician be familiar with weld nomenclature?. So that accurate visual (pictorial) comparisons can be made. In order to gain familiarity with the welding technique, filler material, and temperature range used. In order to compare welds with written (non-pictorial) description standards.

(Refer to Figure 44.) Identify the weld caused by an excessive amount of acetylene. 4. 1. 3.

(Refer to Figure 44.) Select the illustration which depicts a cold weld. 3. 2. 4.

Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding?. To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal. To increase the hardness of the weld. To remove the surface scale formed during welding.

Holes and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken?. Reweld the defective portions. Remove all the old weld, and reweld the joint. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect, and reweld all gaps/holes.

Which condition indicates a part has cooled too quickly after being welded?. Cracking adjacent to the weld. Discoloration of the base metal. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions.

Select a characteristic of a good gas weld. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient to ensure fusion of the filler rod. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 inch above the base metal. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal.

One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide should be formed on the base metal at a distance from the weld of more than. 1/2 inch. 1 inch. 1/4 inch.

In examining and evaluating a welded joint, a mechanic should be familiar with. likely ambient exposure conditions and intended use of the part, along with type of weld and original part material composition. the welding technique, filler material, and temperature range used. the parts, proportions, and formation of a weld.

(Refer to Figure 45.) What type weld is shown at A?. Fillet. Butt. Lap.

(Refer to Figure 45.) What type weld is shown at B?. Butt. Double butt. Fillet.

(Refer to Figure 45.) What type weld is shown at G?. Lap. Butt. Joint.

On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement includes what percentage(s) of the base metal thickness?. 100 percent. 25 to 50 percent. 60 to 80 percent.

Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of rotation of a disk?. Dial indicator. Shaft gauge. Protractor.

(Refer to Figure 46.) The measurement reading on the illustrated micrometer is. 0.2851. 0.2911. 0.2901.

Identify the correct statement. An outside micrometer is limited to measuring diameters. Tools used on certificated aircraft must be an approved type. Dividers do not provide a reading when used as a measuring device.

(Refer to Figure 47.) What is the measurement reading on the vernier caliper scale?. 1.411 inches. 1.436 inches. 1.700 inches.

Which tool is used to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness?. Depth gauge. Thickness gauge. Dial indicator.

Which number represents the vernier scale graduation of a micrometer?. .00001. .001. .0001.

Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylindrical work?. Combination set. Dial indicator. Micrometer caliper.

(Refer to Figure 48.) What does the micrometer read?. .2974. .3004. .3108.

If it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a hole approximately 1/4 inch in diameter, the mechanic should use a. telescoping gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the adjustable end of the telescoping gauge. 0- to 1-inch inside micrometer and read the measurement directly from the micrometer. small-hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge.

(Refer to Figure 49.) The measurement reading on the micrometer is. .2758. .2702. .2792.

What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension?. Machinist scale. Surface gauge. Dial indicator.

What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy?. Gauge block. Dial indicator. Machinist scale.

What precision measuring tool is used for measuring crankpin and main bearing journals for out-of-round wear?. Dial gauge. Micrometer caliper. Depth gauge.

The side clearances of piston rings are measured with a. micrometer caliper gauge. thickness gauge. dial gauge.

How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished?. Depth gauge and micrometer. Thickness gauge and push-fit arbor. Telescopic gauge and micrometer.

The twist of a connecting rod is checked by installing push-fit arbors in both ends, supported by parallel steel bars on a surface plate. Measurements are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a. dial gauge. height gauge. thickness gauge.

The clearance between the piston rings and the ring lands is measured with a. micrometer caliper. thickness gauge. depth gauge.

What may be used to check the stem on a poppet-type valve for stretch?. Dial indicator. Micrometer. Telescoping gauge.

Which tool can be used to determine piston pin out-of-round wear?. Telescopic gauge. Micrometer caliper. Dial indicator.

What metal has special short-time heat properties and is used in the construction of aircraft firewalls?. Stainless steel. Chrome molybdenum alloy steel. Titanium alloy.

Self-locking nuts may be used on aircraft provided that. the bolt and nut are safety wired. the bolt and nut is not under tension. the bolt or nut are not subject to rotation.

When stopping a nosewheel-type airplane after taxiing (or towing), the nosewheel should be left: Unlocked and pointed straight ahead. Turned at a small angle towards uphill if the parking area is not perfectly flat. Pointed straight ahead.

Both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages for use as turbine fuel. Which statement is true in reference to the advantages of each?. Kerosene has a higher heat energy/value per unit weight than gasoline. Gasoline has a higher heat energy/value per unit volume than kerosene. Kerosene has a higher heat energy/value per unit volume than gasoline.

Jet fuel number identifiers are: Performance numbers to designate the volatility of the fuel. Performance numbers and are relative to the fuel's performance in the aircraft engine. Type numbers and have no relation to the fuel's performance in the aircraft engine.

Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake fire?. Dry chemical. A fine, water mist. Carbon dioxide.

Which statement below reflects a typical requirement when towing some aircraft?. Discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent accidental operation of the nosewheel steering mechanism. Tailwheel aircraft must be towed backwards. If the aircraft has a steerable nosewheel, the torque-link lock should be set to full swivel.

(1) Jet fuel is of higher viscosity than aviation gasoline and therefore holds contaminants better. (2) Viscosity has no relation to contamination of fuel. Regarding the above statements: Only No. 1 is true. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

Characteristics of aviation gasoline are: High heat value, High volatility. High heat value, Low volatility. Low heat value, Low volatility.

When first starting to move an aircraft while taxiing, it is important to: Test the brakes. Closely monitor the instruments. Notify the control tower.

If a hot start occurs during starting of a turbine powerplant, what is the likely cause?. The starting unit overheated. The ambient air temperature was too high (over 100 degrees F). The fuel/air mixture was excessively rich.

The main differences between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are: Volatility and lead content. Volatility, lead content, and color. Lead content and color.

How are aviation fuels, which possess greater antiknock qualities than 100 octane, classified?. According to the milliliters of lead. By reference to normal heptane. By performance numbers.

When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet or turbofan engine, the hazard area extends aft of the engine approximately: 200 Feet. 100 Feet. 50 Feet.

A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause: Hard starting. Detonation. Vapor lock.

The color of 100LL fuel is. Blue. Colorless or straw. Red.

How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float-type carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel?. Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off, and the throttle fully open, until the fuel charge has been cleared. Turn off the fuel and the ignition. Discontinue the starting attempt until the excess fuel has cleared. Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch on, and the throttle fully open, until the excess fuel has cleared or until the engine starts.

Characteristics of detonation are: Cylinder pressure remains the same, excessive cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in engine power. Rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in engine power. Rapid rise in cylinder pressure, cylinder head temperature normal, and a decrease in engine power.

The most important condition to be monitored during start after fuel flow begins in a turbine engine is the: EGT, TIT, or ITT. RPM. Oil pressure.

Tetraethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to: Retard the formation of corrosives. Improve the gasoline's performance in the engine. Dissolve the moisture in the gasoline.

A hung start in a jet engine is often caused by: Malfunctions in the ignition system. The starter cutting off too soon. An excessively rich fuel/air mixture.

If fan engine fire develops during the starting procedures the first step you should take in extinguishing the fire is: Discontinue the start attempt and allow the fireguard to extinguish the fire using the available equipment. Continue cranking to start the engine and blow out the fire. Continue cranking and allow the fireguard to extinguish the fire using the available -equipment.

What must accompany fuel vaporization?. An absorption of heat. A decrease in vapor pressure. A reduction in volume.

Which of the following conditions has the most potential for causing engine damage when starting or attempting to start a turbine engine?. Hung start. Cold start. Hot start.

Why is ethylene dibromide added to aviation gasoline?. To remove zinc silicate deposits from the spark plugs. To scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder combustion chambers. To increase the antiknock rating of the fuel.

Which statement(s) is/are true regarding tiedown of small aircraft? 1. Manila (hemp) rope has a tendency to stretch when it gets wet. 2. Nylon or dacron rope is preferred to manila rope. 3. The aircraft should be headed downwind in order to eliminate or minimize wing lift. 4. Leave the nosewheel or tailwheel unlocked. 1, 2, 3, and 4. 1 and 2. 2.

Generally, when an induction fire occurs during starting of a reciprocating engine, the first course of action should be to. Discharge carbon dioxide from a fire extinguisher into the air intake of the engine. Continue cranking and start the engine if possible. Close the throttle.

When towing a large aircraft: A person should be in the cockpit to watch for obstructions. Persons should be stationed at the nose, each wingtip, and the empennage at all times. A person should be in the cockpit to operate the brakes.

Weathervaning tendency is greatest when taxiing: Both nosewheel and tailwheel-type airplanes in a quartering tailwind. A tailwheel-type airplane in a direct crosswind. A nosewheel-type airplane in a quartering headwind.

(Refer to Figure 50.) Identify the signal to engage rotor on a rotorcraft. 1. 3. 2.

(Refer to Figure 51.) Which marshalling signal should be given if a taxiing aircraft is in imminent danger of striking an object?. 1 or 3. 2. 3.

When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from the control tower means: Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately. OK to proceed but use extreme caution. Return to starting point.

A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause: Vapor lock. Detonation. Hard starting.

When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing white light from the control tower means: Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately. OK to proceed but use extreme caution. Return to starting point.

When taxiing an airplane with a quartering tailwind, the elevators and: Upwind aileron should be held in the up position. Upwind aileron should be held in the down position. Both ailerons should be kept in the neutral position.

What effect, if any, will aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel have on a turbine engine?. No appreciable effect. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on the turbine blades. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on the compressor blades.

When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing red light from the control tower means: Stop and wait for a green light. Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately. Return to starting point.

When approaching the front of an idling jet engine, the hazard area extends forward of the engine approximately: 10 Feet. 15 Feet. 25 Feet.

During starting of a turbine powerplant using a compressed air starter, a hung start occurred. Select the proper procedure: Advance power lever to increase RPM. Re-engage the starter. Shut the engine down.

When starting and ground operating an aircraft's engine, the aircraft should be positioned to head into the wind primarily: To aid in achieving and maintaining the proper air flow into the engine induction system. For engine cooling purposes. To help cancel out engine torque effect.

The priming of a fuel injected horizontally opposed engine is accomplished by placing the fuel control lever in the: IDLE-CUTOFF position. AUTO-RICH position. FULL-RICH position.

If a radial engine has been shut down for more than 30 minutes, the propeller should be rotated through at least two revolutions to: Check for hydraulic lock. Check for leaks. Prime the engine.

A person should approach or leave a helicopter in the pilot's field of vision whenever the engine is running in order to avoid. The tail rotor. The main rotor. Blowing dust or debris caused by rotor downwash.

A primary reason why ordinary or otherwise nonapproved cleaning compounds should not be used when washing aircraft is because their use can result in. hydrogen embrittlement in metal structures. hydrogen embrittlement in nonmetallic materials. a general inability to remove compound residues.

How may magnesium engine parts be cleaned?. Soak in a 20 percent caustic soda solution. Spray with MEK (methyl ethyl ketone). Wash with a commercial solvent, decarbonize, and scrape or grit blast.

When an anodized surface coating is damaged in service, it can be partially restored by. applying a thin coat of zinc chromate primer. chemical surface treatment. use of a suitable mild cleaner.

For which of the following reasons would a water break test be conducted?. To make certain that a newly alodized aluminum surface is sufficiently coated. To make certain that a bare metal surface is thoroughly clean. To make certain that an anodizing coating has been sufficiently removed before an electrical bonding connection can be made.

Select the solvent recommended for wipedown of cleaned surfaces just before painting. Aliphatic naptha. Dry-cleaning solvent. Aromatic naptha.

Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces which have been affected by electrolyte should be neutralized with a solution of. boric acid. sodium bicarbonate. potassium hydroxide.

Which of the following are acceptable to use when utilizing chemical cleaning agents on aircraft? 1. Synthetic fiber wiping cloths when using a flammable agent. 2. Cotton fiber wiping cloths when using a flammable agent. 3. Atomizing spray equipment. 2 and 3. 1. 2.

Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber. Aliphatic naphtha. Methyl ethyl ketone. Aromatic naphtha.

Fayed surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of. forming passive oxides. entrapping corrosive materials. corrosion by imbedded iron oxide.

Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum structures have the effect of producing. passive oxidation. improved corrosion resistance. corrosion.

Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur. when two surfaces fit tightly together but can move relative to one another. only when two dissimilar metals are in contact. when two surfaces fit loosely together and can move relative to one another.

The rust or corrosion that occurs with most metals is the result of. a tendency for them to return to their natural state. blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals, or between dissimilar metals. electron flow in or between metals from cathodic to anodic areas.

Which of the following are the desired effects of using Alodine on aluminum alloy? 1. A slightly rough surface. 2. Relieved surface stresses. 3. A smooth painting surface. 4. Increased corrosion resistance. 3 and 4. 1, 2, and 4. 1 and 4.

Which of the listed conditions is NOT one of the requirements for corrosion to occur?. The presence of an electrolyte. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area. The presence of a passive oxide film.

The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is called. brinelling. granulation. exfoliation.

A nonelectrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint-bonding qualities is called. anodizing. alodizing. dichromating.

Which of the following are acceptable to use in cleaning anodized surfaces? 1. Steel wool. 2. Brass wire brush. 3. Aluminum wool. 4. Stainless steel wire brush. 5. Fiber bristle brush. 1, 3, & 5. 2 & 4. 3 & 5.

Intergranular corrosion in aluminum alloy parts. may be detected by surface pitting, and white, powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal. commonly appears as threadlike filaments of corrosion products under a dense film of paint. cannot always be detected by surface indications.

Which of the following may not be detectable even by careful visual inspection of the surface of aluminum alloy parts or structures?. Filiform corrosion. Intergranular corrosion. Uniform etch corrosion.

What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed steel surfaces?. Steel wire brushes. Fine-grit aluminum oxide. Medium-grit carborundum paper.

A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is. improper heat treatment. dissimilar metal contact. improper application of primer.

Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts with a. stiff, nonmetallic brush. silicon carbide brush. carborundum abrasive.

Why is it important not to rotate the crankshaft after the corrosion preventive mixture has been put into the cylinders on engines prepared for storage?. Fuel may be drawn into one or more cylinders and dilute or wash off the corrosion preventive mixture. The seal of corrosion preventive mixture will be broken. Engine damage can occur from hydraulic lock.

Which of the following is an acceptable first step procedure to help prevent scratching when cleaning a transparent plastic surface?. Gently wipe the surface with a clean, dry, soft cloth. Flush the surface with clean water. Gently wipe the surface with a clean, soft cloth moistened with de-mineralized or distilled water.

What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when oil or grease come in contact with a tire?. Wipe the tire thoroughly with a dry cloth, and then rinse with clean water. Wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a washdown and rinse with soap and water. Wipe the tire with a cloth dampened with aromatic naphtha and then wipe dry with a clean cloth.

Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and severe when. the surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller than surface area of the anodic metal. the surface areas of the anodic and cathodic metals are approximately the same. the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic metal.

Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of. excessive anodization. contact between two unlike metals. excessive etching.

Which of these materials is the most anodic?. Cadmium. 7075-T6 aluminum alloy. Magnesium.

The interior surface of sealed structural steel tubing would be best protected against corrosion by which of the following?. Charging the tubing with dry nitrogen prior to sealing. Evacuating moisture from the tubing before sealing. A coating of linseed oil.

Which of these materials is the most cathodic?. Zinc. 2024 aluminum alloy. Stainless steel.

Of the following, when and/or where is galvanic corrosion is most likely to occur?. When an electrolyte (water) covers the surface of an aluminum skin, seeps into the cracks between lap joints, and oxygen is excluded from the area. At the interface of a steel fastener and aluminum alloy inspection plate in the presence of an electrolyte. In an area of unprotected metal exposed to an atmosphere containing battery fumes, exhaust gases, or industrial contaminants.

One way of obtaining increased resistance to stress corrosion cracking is by. relieving compressive stresses (via heat treatment) on the metal surface. creating compressive stresses (via shot peening) on the metal surface. producing nonuniform deformation while cold working during the manufacturing process.

(1) In the corrosion process, it is the cathodic area or dissimilar cathodic material that corrodes. (2) In the Galvanic or Electro-Chemical Series for metals, the most anodic metals are those that will give up electrons most easily. Regarding the above statements,. only No. 1 is true. only No. 2 is true. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

Spilled mercury on aluminum. greatly increases susceptibility to hydrogen embrittlement. may cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in prolonged contact. causes rapid and severe corrosion that is very difficult to control.

What power of 10 is equal to 1,000,000,000?. 10 to the sixth power. 10 to the tenth power. 10 to the ninth power.

Find the square root of 1,746. 41.7852. 41.7752. 40.7742.

(Refer to Figure 52.) Solve the equation. 115. 4.472. 5.

Find the square root of 3,722.1835. 61.00971. 61.00. 61.0097.

Which of the following is the square root of (-1776)/(-2) - 632?. 128. 256. 16.

(Refer to Figure 69.) Solve the equation. 12. 60. 76.

Find the cube of 64. 4. 192. 262,144.

Find the value of 10 raised to the negative sixth power. 0.000001. 0.000010. 0.0001.

What is the square root of 4 raised to the fifth power?. 32. 64. 20.

The number 3.47 x 10 to the negative fourth power is equal to. .00347. 34,700. .000347.

Which alternative answer is equal to 16,300?. 1.63 x 10 to the fourth power. 1.63 x 10 to the negative third power. 163 x 10 to the negative second power.

Find the square root of 124.9924. 111.8 x 10 to the third power. .1118 x 10 to the negative second power. 1,118 x 10 to the negative second power.

What is the square root of 16 raised to the fourth power?. 1,024. 4,096. 256.

(Refer to Figure 53.) Solve the equation. .0297. .1680. .0419.

The result of 7 raised to the third power plus the square root of 39 is equal to. 349.24. .34924. 343.24.

Find the square root of 1,824. 42.708 x 10 to the negative second power. .42708. .42708 x 10 to the second power.

(Refer to Figure 65.) Which of the figures is using scientific notation?. 1. 2. both 1 and 2.

(Refer to Figure 70.) Which alternative answer is equal to 5.59?. 1. 2. 3.

The total piston displacement of a specific engine is. dependent on the compression ratio. the volume displaced by all the pistons during one revolution of the crankshaft. the total volume of all the cylinders.

What is the surface area of a cube where a side (edge) measures 7.25 inches?. 381.078 cu. in. 315.375 sq. in. 52.5625 sq. in.

(Refer to Figure 54.) Compute the area of the trapezoid. 52.5 square feet. 60 square feet. 76.5 square feet.

(Refer to Figure 71.) What is the volume of a sphere with a radius of 4.5 inches?. 47.71 cubic inches. 381.7 square inches. 381.7 cubic inches.

What size sheet of metal is required to fabricate a cylinder 20 inches long and 8 inches in diameter? (Note: C = pi x D). 20 inches x 25-5/32 inches. 20 inches x 24-9/64 inches. 20 inches x 25-9/64 inches.

(Refer to Figure 55.) Find the area of the triangle shown. 12 square inches. 6 square inches. 15 square inches.

What force is exerted on the piston in a hydraulic cylinder if the area of the piston is 1.2 square inches and the fluid pressure is 850 PSI?. 1,020 pounds. 960 pounds. 850 pounds.

A rectangular-shaped fuel tank measures 60 inches in length, 30 inches in width, and 12 inches in depth. How many cubic feet are within the tank?. 12.5. 15.0. 21.0.

Select the container size that will be equal in volume to 60 gallons of fuel. (7.5 gal = 1 cu ft). 7.5 cubic feet. 8.0 cubic feet. 8.5 cubic feet.

(Refer to Figure 56.) Compute the area of the trapezoid. 24 square feet. 48 square feet. 10 square feet.

(Refer to Figure 57.) Determine the area of the triangle formed by points A, B, and C. A to B = 7.5 inches A to D = 16.8 inches. 42 square inches. 63 square inches. 126 square inches.

What is the piston displacement of a master cylinder with a 1.5-inch diameter bore and a piston stroke of 4 inches?. 9.4247 cubic inches. 7.0686 cubic inches. 6.1541 cubic inches.

How many gallons of fuel will be contained in a rectangular-shaped tank which measures 2 feet in width, 3 feet in length, and 1 foot 8 inches in depth? (7.5 gal = 1 cu ft). 66.6. 75. 45.

A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 27-1/2 inches in length, 3/4 foot in width, and 8-1/4 inches in depth. How many gallons will the tank contain? (231 cu in = 1 gal). 7.366. 8.83. 170.156.

A four-cylinder aircraft engine has a cylinder bore of 3.78 inches and is 8.5 inches deep. With the piston on bottom center, the top of the piston measures 4.0 inches from the bottom of the cylinder. What is the approximate piston displacement of this engine?. 200 cubic inches. 360 cubic inches. 235 cubic inches.

A rectangular-shaped fuel tank measures 37-1/2 inches in length, 14 inches in width, and 8-1/4 inches in depth. How many cubic inches are within the tank?. 59.75. 433.125. 4,331.25.

A six-cylinder engine with a bore of 3.5 inches, a cylinder height of 7 inches and a stroke of 4.5 inches will have a total piston displacement of. 256.88 cubic inches. 259.77 cubic inches. 43.3 cubic inches.

Select the fraction which is equal to 0.0250. 1/4. 1/40. 1/400.

1.21875 is equal to. 83/64. 19/16. 39/32.

If the volume of a cylinder with the piston at bottom center is 84 cubic inches and the piston displacement is 70 cubic inches, then the compression ratio is. 7:1. 1.2:1. 6:1.

Express 7/8 as a percent. 8.75 percent. .875 percent. 87.5 percent.

What is the speed of a spur gear with 42 teeth driven by a pinion gear with 14 teeth turning 420 RPM?. 588 RPM. 160 RPM. 140 RPM.

An engine develops 108 horsepower at 87 percent power. What horsepower would be developed at 65 percent power?. 81. 70. 61.

A certain aircraft bolt has an overall length of 1-1/2 inches, with a shank length of 1-3/16 inches, and a threaded portion length of 5/8 inch. What is the grip length?. .5625 inch. .8750 inch. .3125 inch.

Select the fractional equivalent for a 0.0625 inch thick sheet of aluminum. 1/16. 3/64. 1/32.

Express 5/8 as a percent. .625 percent. 6.25 percent. 62.5 percent.

Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to 77/64. 0.08311. 0.8311. 1.2031.

An airplane flying a distance of 750 miles used 60 gallons of gasoline. How many gallons will it need to travel 2,500 miles?. 31,250. 9,375. 200.

What is the speed ratio of an input gear with 36 teeth meshed to a gear with 20 teeth?. 9:5. 1:0.56. 1:1.8.

A pinion gear with 14 teeth is driving a spur gear with 42 teeth at 140 RPM. Determine the speed of the pinion gear. 588 RPM. 420 RPM. 126 RPM.

The parts department's profit is 12 percent on a new part. How much does the part cost if the selling price is $145.60?. $128.13. $125.60. $130.00.

If an engine is turning 1,965 rpm at 65 percent power, what is its maximum rpm?. 2,653. 3,023. 3,242.

An engine of 98 horsepower maximum is running at 75 percent power. What is the horsepower being developed?. 87.00. 33.30. 73.50.

A blueprint shows a hole of 0.17187 to be drilled. Which fraction size drill bit is most nearly equal?. 11/64. 9/32. 11/32.

Which decimal is most nearly equal to a bend radius of 31/64?. 0.2065. 0.4844. 0.3164.

Sixty-five engines are what percent of 80 engines?. 81 percent. 65 percent. 52 percent.

The radius of a piece of round stock is 7/32. Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to the diameter. 0.2187. 0.4375. 0.3531.

Maximum life for a certain part is 1100 hours. Recently, 15 of these parts were removed from different aircraft with an average life of 835.3 hours. What percent of the maximum part life has been achieved?. 75.9 percent. 76.9 percent. 75.0 percent.

What is the ratio of 10 feet to 30 inches?. 4:1. 1:3. 3:1.

How much current does a 30-volt, 1/2 horsepower motor that is 85 percent efficient draw from the bus? (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts). 14.6 amperes. 12.4 amperes. 14.3 amperes.

Solve the equation. [(4 x -3)+(-9 x 2)] ÷ 2 =. -30. -15. -5.

Solve the equation. (64 x 3/8) ÷ 3/4 =. 18. 24. 32.

Solve the equation. (32 x 3/8) ÷ 1/6 =. 12. 2. 72.

What is the ratio of a gasoline fuel load of 200 gallons to one of 1,680 pounds?. 5:7. 2:3. 5:42.

Solve the equation. 1/2 (-30 + 34) 5. 10. 95. 160.

(Refer to Figure 58.) Solve the equation. 174.85. 68.037. 14.002.

(Refer to Figure 59.) Solve the equation. +31.25. -5.20. -31.25.

Solve the equation. 4 - 3[-6(2 + 3) + 4] =. 82. -25. -71.

Solve the equation. -6[-9(-8 + 4) - 2(7 + 3)] =. -332. 216. -96.

Solve the equation. (-3 + 2)(-12 - 4) + (-4 + 6) x 3. 20. 22. 28.

(Refer to Figure 60.) Solve the equation. 11.9. 11.7. 11.09.

What is defined as a group of bits representing a complete piece of information?. Byte. Bit. Word.

Convert the binary number 1111 to decimal form. 14. 15. 16.

(Refer to the Figure 66.) Solve the equation. 35,998. 36,002. 62,208.

Convert 7 to binary form. 0111. 0011. 1110.

Examples of units used in the conventional (U.S. or English) measurement include. inch, meter, and rod. inch, kilometer, and fraction. inch, feet, and yard.

(Refer to Figure 67). Solve the equation. 5.58. 12.16. 0.042.

(Refer to Figure 68.) Which results in the largest number?. 1. 2. 3.

A certificated mechanic without an inspection authorization who signs the appropriate block on FAA Form 337 is doing what?. Certifying that the work was done in accordance with the requirements of 14 CFR part 43. Approving the work for return to service. Certifying the maintenance information used as FAA-approved data.

A person installing a product, part, or appliance on a type certificated product must make certain that the item's records document what type of statement?. The product, part, or material meets FAA airworthiness standards. A product produced by an owner or operator does not need a statement. The product or material was not produced under an FAA production approval.

What is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product may continue to be operated?. Airworthiness Directives. Aviation Maintenance Alerts. Aviation Safety Data.

For aircraft operated under part 91, which of the following records must be retained for at least one year, or until the work is repeated or superseded?. Records of time since overhaul of items requiring overhaul on a time specified basis. Records of maintenance, alterations, preventive maintenance, 100-hour, annual, and progressive inspections. Records of the current inspection status of the aircraft, including time since last required inspection.

Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least those items in the appendix of: 14 CFR Part 43. 14 CFR Part 65. AC 43.13-3.

Which of the following may a certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic perform on aircraft and approve for return to service? 1. A 100-hour inspection. 2. An annual inspection, under specified circumstances. 3. A progressive inspection, under specified circumstances. 1, 2. 1, 3. 1, 2, 3.

When a 100-hour inspection is completed, if separate maintenance records for the airframe, powerplant(s), and propeller(s) are maintained, where is the entry for the inspection recorded?. In each record. In the airframe record only. In any one of the records.

Which statement is true regarding the use of FAA Form 337?. FAA Form 337 is authorized for use with both U.S. and foreign registered aircraft. FAA Form 337 is authorized for use with U.S. registered aircraft, and foreign registered aircraft when located in the United States. FAA Form 337 is not authorized for use with other than U.S. registered aircraft.

After making a certain repair to an aircraft engine that is to be returned to service, an FAA Form 337 is prepared. How many copies are required and what is the disposition of the completed forms?. Two; one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy for the FAA. Two; one copy for the FAA and one copy for the permanent records of the repairing agency or individual. Three; one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy for the FAA, and one copy for the permanent records of the repairing agency or individual.

When approving for return to service after maintenance or alteration, the approving person must enter in the maintenance record of the aircraft: The date the maintenance or alteration was begun, a description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else), signature, and certificate number. A description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, date of completion, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else), signature, and certificate number. A description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, date of completion, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else), signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held.

Which aircraft record entry is the best description of the replacement of several damaged heli-coils in a casting?. Eight 1/4 -- 20 inch standard heli-coils were replaced. The damaged inserts were extracted, the tapped holes gaged, then new inserts installed, and tangs removed. Eight 1/4 -- 20 inch standard heli-coils were installed in place of damaged ones. Eight 1/4 -- 20 inch standard heli-coil inserts were repaired by replacing the damaged inserts with a lock-type insert, after the tapped holes were checked for corrosion.

Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a .125-inch deep dent in a straight section of 1/2-inch aluminum alloy tubing?. Dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing flared to 45°. Dent within acceptable limits, repair not necessary. Dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing flared to 37°.

Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a control cable showing approximately 20 percent wear on several of the individual outer wires at a fairlead?. Wear within acceptable limits, repair not necessary. Removed and replaced the control cable and rerigged the system. Cable repositioned, worn area moved away from fairlead.

What is/are the appropriate action(s) concerning minor repairs performed on a certificated aircraft? 1. FAA Form 337's must be completed. 2. Entries must be made in the aircraft's maintenance record. 3. The owner of the aircraft must submit a record of all minor repairs to the FAA at least annually. 2. 2 and 3. 1 and 2.

After a mechanic holding an airframe and powerplant rating completes a 100-hour inspection, what action is required before the aircraft is returned to service?. Make the proper entries in the aircraft's maintenance record. An operational check of all systems. A mechanic with an inspection authorization must approve the inspection.

An aircraft was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to fly the aircraft to another maintenance base. Which statement is correct?. The owner must obtain a special flight permit. The aircraft may be flown without restriction up to 10 hours to reach another maintenance base. The aircraft becomes a restricted category type until it is approved for return to service.

Which statement is true regarding the requirements for maintenance record format?. Any format that provides record continuity and includes the required information may be used. The format provided by the manufacturer of the aircraft must be retained. Any desired change from manufacturer provided format requires approval from the Federal Aviation Administration.

Which maintenance action is an airframe major repair?. Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect flutter and vibration characteristics. Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

For aircraft operated under part 91, when is aircraft total time required to be recorded in aircraft maintenance records?. After satisfactorily completing maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration (excluding inspections). After satisfactorily completing inspections. After satisfactorily completing airframe, component, or propeller maintenance.

Who is responsible for upkeep of the required maintenance records for an aircraft?. The maintaining repair station or authorized inspector. The maintaining certificated mechanic. The aircraft owner.

If work performed on an aircraft has been done satisfactorily, the signature of an authorized person on the maintenance records for maintenance or alterations performed constitutes: Approval of the aircraft for return to service. Approval for return to service only for the work performed. Verification that the maintenance or alterations were performed referencing approved maintenance data.

Where is the record of compliance with Airworthiness Directives or manufacturers' service bulletins normally indicated?. FAA Form 337. Aircraft maintenance records. Flight manual.

Which is an appliance major repair?. Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump. Repairs to a propeller governor or its control. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light circuits.

Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an annual, 100 hour, or progressive inspection?. The owner or operator of the aircraft. The person approving or disapproving for return to service. The designee or inspector representing the FAA Administrator.

An aircraft owner was provided a list of discrepancies on an aircraft that was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning who may correct the discrepancies? 1. Only a mechanic with an inspection authorization. 2. An appropriately rated mechanic. 3. Any certificated repair station. 2 & 3. 2. 1.

In order to reconstruct lost or destroyed aircraft maintenance records, what is it necessary to establish?. Dates of all maintenance, preventive maintenance and alterations. Dates and/or times of all 100-hour, annual, or progressive inspections. Total time-in-service of the airframe.

What is the status of data used as a basis for approving major repairs or alterations for return to service?. Data must be least FAA-acceptable when it is used for that purpose. Data must be FAA-approved prior to its use for that purpose. Data may be FAA-approved after its use for that purpose.

Where should you find this entry? 'Removed right wing from aircraft and removed skin from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches from tip in accordance with figure 8 in the manufacturer's structural repair manual No. 28-1.'. Aircraft engine maintenance record. Aircraft minor repair and alteration record. FAA Form 337.

For aircraft operated under part 91, what difference is there, if any, between the record entry requirements for maintenance (e.g., repair or alteration) and the record entry requirements for inspections (beyond the description of the work performed and the type and extent of inspection)?. There is no difference. Aircraft total time is required to be included only in the maintenance entry. Aircraft total time is required to be included only in the inspection entry.

An FAA Form 337 is used to record and document: Preventive and unscheduled maintenance and special inspections. Major and minor repairs, and major and minor alterations. Major repairs and major alterations.

During an annual inspection, if a defect is found which makes the aircraft unairworthy, the person disapproving must: Void the aircraft's Airworthiness Certificate. Submit a Malfunction or Defect Report. Provide a written notice of the defect to the owner.

If more space is needed for a work description entered on FAA Form 337, what information should be included on the attached sheet(s), in addition to the rest of the work description?. Make, model, and serial number of the aircraft. Aircraft nationality and registration mark, and the date the work was accomplished. Name, date, and office designator of the FAA inspector from the supervising district office.

What is ATA iSpec 2200?. Standardized electronic documentation for aircraft models. Fuel specifications for transport-category airplanes. Airline transport catalog for aircraft parts.

When a discrepancy list is provided to an aircraft owner or operator after an inspection, it says in effect that: The item inspected is unairworthy. Except for these discrepancies, the item inspected is airworthy. The item inspected may or may not be airworthy depending on the discrepancies found.

When work is performed on an aircraft that necessitates the use of FAA Form 337, who should prepare the form?. The person who performs or supervises the work. The person who approves for return to service. The aircraft owner or operator.

For aircraft operated under part 91, which of the following records must be retained and transferred with the aircraft when it is sold?. Records of maintenance, alterations, preventive maintenance, 100-hour, annual, and progressive inspections. Records of inspections performed in accordance with 14 CFR part 43, Appendix D. Records of the current status of applicable AD's, and date and time when recurring AD's are next due.

Which aircraft record entry best describes a repair of a dent in a tubular steel structure dented at a cluster?. Removed and replaced the damaged member. Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area. Filled the damaged area with a molten metal and dressed to the original contour.

If a double-acting actuating cylinder in a 3,000 psi system has a piston with a surface area of three square inches on the extension side, and a rod with a cross-section area of one square inch attached to the piston on the other side, approximately how much force will the actuator be able to produce when retracting?. 9,000 pounds. 6,000 pounds. 3,000 pounds.

The boiling point of a given liquid varies. directly with pressure. inversely with pressure. directly with density.

Which of the following is NOT considered a method of heat transfer?. Convection. Conduction. Diffusion.

An engine that weighs 350 pounds is removed from an aircraft by means of a mobile hoist. The engine is raised 3 feet above its attachment mount, and the entire assembly is then moved forward 12 feet. A constant force of 70 pounds is required to move the loaded hoist. What is the total work input required to move the hoist?. 840 foot-pounds. 1,890 foot-pounds. 1,050 foot-pounds.

Which condition is the actual amount of water vapor in a mixture of air and water?. Relative humidity. Dewpoint. Absolute humidity.

Under which conditions will the rate of flow of a liquid through a metering orifice (or jet) be the greatest (all other factors being equal)?. Unmetered pressure, 18 PSI; metered pressure, 17.5 PSI; atmospheric pressure, 14.5 PSI. Unmetered pressure, 23 PSI; metered pressure, 12 PSI; atmospheric pressure, 14.3 PSI. Unmetered pressure, 17 PSI; metered pressure, 5 PSI; atmospheric pressure, 14.7 PSI.

(Refer to Figure 61.) The amount of force applied to rope A to lift the weight is. 12 pounds. 15 pounds. 20 pounds.

Which will weigh the least?. 98 parts of dry air and 2 parts of water vapor. 35 parts of dry air and 65 parts of water vapor. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.

Which is the ratio of the water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure?. Absolute humidity. Relative humidity. Dewpoint.

The speed of sound in the atmosphere. varies according to the frequency of the sound. changes with a change in temperature. changes with a change in pressure.

The speed of sound in the atmosphere is most affected by variations in which of the following? 1. Sound frequency (cps). 2. Ambient temperature. 3. Barometric pressure. 1. 2. 3.

If the volume of a confined gas is doubled (without the addition of more gas), the pressure will (assume the temperature remains constant). increase in direct proportion to the volume increase. remain the same. be reduced to one-half its original value.

If the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant and its pressure is tripled, the volume will. triple. be reduced to one-third its original volume. remain the same.

How much work input is required to lower (not drop) a 120-pound weight from the top of a 3-foot table to the floor?. 120 pounds of force. 360 foot-pounds. 40 foot-pounds.

Which atmospheric conditions will cause the true landing speed of an aircraft to be the greatest?. Low temperature with low humidity. High temperature with low humidity. High temperature with high humidity.

If the fluid pressure is 800 PSI in a 1/2-inch line supplying an actuating cylinder with a piston area of 10 square inches, the force exerted on the piston will be. 4,000 pounds. 8,000 pounds. 800 pounds.

In physics, which of the following factors are necessary to determine power? 1. Force exerted. 2. Distance moved. 3. Time required. 1 and 2. 2 and 3. 1, 2, and 3.

What force must be applied to roll a 120-pound barrel up an inclined plane 9 feet long to a height of 3 feet (disregard friction)? L ÷ I = R ÷ E L = Length of ramp, measured along the slope. I = Height of ramp. R = Weight of object to be raised or lowered. E = Force required to raise or lower object. 40 pounds. 120 pounds. 360 pounds.

Which statement concerning heat and/or temperature is true?. There is an inverse relationship between temperature and heat. Temperature is a measure of the kinetic energy of the molecules of any substance. Temperature is a measure of the potential energy of the molecules of any substance.

What is absolute humidity?. The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated. The actual amount of the water vapor in a mixture of air and water. The ratio of the water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure.

The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated is called. dewpoint. absolute humidity. relative humidity.

If both the volume and the absolute temperature of a confined gas are doubled, the pressure will. not change. be halved. become four times as great.

If all, or a significant part of a stall strip is missing on an airplane wing, a likely result will be. asymmetrical lateral control at or near stall angles of attack. decreased lift in the area of installation at high angles of attack. asymmetrical lateral control at low angles of attack.

The purpose of stall strips on airplane wings is to. increase lift in the areas of installation. prevent stall in the areas of installation. ensure that the wing root areas stall first.

An airplane wing is designed to produce lift resulting from. positive air pressure below and above the wing's surface along with the downward deflection of air. positive air pressure below the wing's surface and negative air pressure above the wing's surface along with the downward deflection of air. negative air pressure below the wing's surface and positive air pressure above the wing's surface along with the downward deflection of air.

The purpose of aircraft wing dihedral is to. increase lateral stability. increase longitudinal stability. increase lift coefficient of the wing.

Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the. wingspan to the wing root. square of the chord to the wingspan. wingspan to the mean chord.

A wing with a very high aspect ratio (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing) will have. increased drag at high angles of attack. a low stall speed. poor control qualities at low airspeeds.

The desired effect of using winglets on an aircraft's wingtips is to. increase the lift to drag ratio. reduce the aspect ratio. optimize wing dihedral and improve lateral stability.

Which of the following is Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia?. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside force.

The main rotor system on a helicopter is classified in three groups. Which of those listed is NOT one of these groups?. The fully articulated rotor system. The flexible-beam rotor system. The semi-rigid rotor system.

Which of the following statements are correct?. When the cyclic pitch control lever is raised, the blade angle of all the rotor blades increases uniformly and they create the lift that allows the helicopter to take off vertically. When the collective pitch control lever is raised, the blade angle of all the rotor blades increases uniformly and they create the lift that allows the helicopter to take off vertically. When the collective pitch control lever is raised, the blade angle of the aft rotor blades decreases uniformly and they create the lift that allows the helicopter to take off vertically.

What does the acronym TSO mean regarding a type certificated aircraft part, material, component and/or process?. Training Specific Organization. Type Supplement Original. Technical Standard Order.

What does the Type Certificate Data Sheet designation code '2 PCSM' mean?. Two place (number of seats), closed, sea, monoplane. Two wing (biplane), primary category, semimonocoque (airframe). Neither of the other two choices.

Under the Federal Aviation Regulations, an aviation maintenance technician is required to perform maintenance on an aircraft so that it: Always meets its original type design. Is at least equal to its original or properly altered condition. Exceeds minimum standards with regard to aerodynamic function, structural strength, resistance to vibration, and other qualities affecting airworthiness.

An aircraft mechanic is privileged to perform major alterations on U.S. certificated aircraft; however, the work must be done in accordance with FAA-approved technical data before the aircraft can be returned to service. Which is NOT approved data?. Airworthiness Directives. AC 43.13-2A. Supplemental Type Certificates.

A Technical Standard Order (TSO) is issued by whom?. The Aircraft industry. Part manufacturers. The Administrator.

The Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Specification No. 100 (1) Establishes a standard for the presentation of technical data in maintenance manuals. (2) Divides the aircraft into numbered systems and subsystems in order to simplify locating maintenance instructions. Regarding the above statements: Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. Only No. 1 is true.

An aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet contains: Maximum fuel grade to be used. Control surface adjustment points. Location of the datum.

Suitability for use of a specific propeller with a particular engine-airplane combination can be determined by reference to what informational source?. Propeller Specifications or Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheet. Aircraft Specifications or Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet. Alphabetical Index of Current Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets, Specifications, and Listings.

(Refer to Figure 62, 62A, & 62B as necessary.) How many parts will need to be fabricated by the mechanic in the construction and installation of one doubler?. 2. 3. 4.

How long are AD compliance records required to be kept?. Until the work is repeated or superseded by other work. For one year after the work is performed, or until the work is repeated or superseded by other work. They shall be retained, and then transferred with the aircraft when it is sold.

Which regulation provides information regarding instrument range markings for an airplane certificated in the normal category?. 14 CFR Part 21. 14 CFR Part 25. 14 CFR Part 23.

Which of the following are sometimes used as authorization to deviate from an aircraft's original type design? 1. FAA Form 337. 2. Supplemental Type Certificate. 3. Airworthiness Directive. 4. Technical Standard Order. 1, 2, 3, and 4. 1, 2, and 4. 1, 2, and 3.

The action required by an AD may take what form? 1. Inspection. 2. Part(s) replacement. 3. Design modification. 4. Change in operating procedure(s). 5. Overall change in the content, form and disposition of aircraft maintenance records. 1, 2, 3, and/or 4. 1, 2, 3, and/or 5. 1, 2, 3, 4, and/or 5.

(1) The Federal Aviation Regulations require approval after compliance with the data of a Supplemental Type Certificate. (2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order system requires no further approval for installation in a particular aircraft. Regarding the above statements: Only No. 2 is true. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. Only No. 1 is true.

(1) Manufacturer's data and FAA publications such as Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets, and advisory circulars are all approved data. (2) FAA publications such as Technical Standard Orders, Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets, and Aircraft Specifications and Supplemental Type Certificates are all approved data. Regarding the above statements: Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. Only No. 1 is true. Only No. 2 is true.

(Refer to Figure 62.) The -100 in the title block (Area 1) is applicable to which doubler part number(s)?. -101. -102. Both.

Airworthiness Directives are issued primarily to: Provide information about malfunction or defect trends. Present recommended maintenance procedures for correcting potentially hazardous defects. Correct an unsafe condition.

Technical information about older aircraft models, of which no more than 50 remain in service, can be found in the: Aircraft Listing. Summary of Deleted and Discontinued Aircraft Specifications. Index of Antique Aircraft.

When an airworthy (at the time of sale) aircraft is sold, the Airworthiness Certificate: Becomes invalid until the aircraft is reinspected and approved for return to service. Is voided and a new certificate is issued upon application by the new owner. Is transferred with the aircraft.

The following words are an example of what kind of statement in an AD? 'Required within the next 25 hours time-in-service after the effective date of this AD, unless already accomplished. Amendment. Compliance. Applicability.

Type Certificate Data Sheets are issued for which of the following products?. Aircraft, engines, and propellers. Aircraft, engines, and appliances. Aircraft, engines, propellers, and appliances.

A complete detailed inspection and adjustment of the valve mechanism will be made at the first 25 hours after the engine has been placed in service. Subsequent inspections of the valve mechanism will be made each second 50-hour period. From the above statement, at what intervals will valve mechanism inspections be performed?. 100 hours. 50 hours. 125 hours.

The issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate is governed by: 14 CFR Part 23. 14 CFR Part 21. 14 CFR Part 39.

The following is a table of airspeed limits as given in an FAA-issued aircraft specification: Normal operating speed 260 knots Never-exceed speed 293 knots Maximum landing gear operation speed 174 knots Maximum flap extended speed 139 knots The high end of the white arc on the airspeed instrument would be at: 260 knots. 293 knots. 139 knots.

Aviation Maintenance Alerts (formerly General Aviation Airworthiness Alerts). Provide mandatory procedures to prevent or correct serious aircraft problems. Provide information about aircraft problems and suggested corrective actions. Provide temporary emergency procedures until Airworthiness Directives can be issued.

(1) Propellers are NOT included in the Airworthiness Directive system. (2) A certificated powerplant mechanic may make a minor repair on an aluminum propeller and approve for return to service. Regarding the above statements: Only No. 2 is true. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

Where are technical descriptions of certificated propellers found?. Applicable Airworthiness Directives. Aircraft Specifications. Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets.

Primary responsibility for compliance with Airworthiness Directives lies with the: Aircraft owner or operator. Certificated mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization who conducts appropriate inspections. Certificated mechanic who maintains the aircraft.

(Refer to Figure 62, 62A, and 62B as necessary.) Using only the information given (when bend allowance, set back, etc. have been calculated) which doubler is it possible to construct and install?. -101. -102. Both.

Which of the following includes all the regulatory definitions of 'maintenance'?. Overhaul, repair, parts replacement, and preservation, and preventive maintenance. Overhaul, repair, parts replacement, preservation, inspection, and preventive maintenance. Overhaul, repair, parts replacement, inspection, and preservation.

When is a mechanic responsible for checking AD compliance?. Never, the owner or operator is solely responsible. When performing an inspection required under part 91, 125, or 135. Anytime an aircraft or portion thereof is returned to service.

Placards required on an aircraft are specified in: AC 43.13-1B. The Federal Aviation Regulations under which the aircraft was type certificated. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets.

(1) A Supplemental Type Certificate may be issued to more than one applicant for the same design change, providing each applicant shows compliance with the applicable airworthiness requirement. (2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order system requires no further approval for installation in a particular aircraft. Regarding the above statements: Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. Only No. 1 is true.

Specifications pertaining to an aircraft model manufactured under a type certificate, of which less than 50 are shown on the FAA Aircraft Registry, can be found in the: Aircraft Listing. Summary of Discontinued Aircraft Specifications. FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil Aircraft Specifications.

What is the maximum penalty for cheating or other unauthorized conduct when taking an FAA mechanic test?. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year, and suspension or revocation of any certificate held. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year, and suspension of any certificate held.

What is the maintenance recording responsibility of the person who complies with an Airworthiness Directive?. Advise the aircraft owner/operator of the work performed. Make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment. Advise the FAA district office of the work performed, by submitting an FAA Form 337.

An aircraft has a total time in service of 468 hours. The Airworthiness Directive given was initially complied with at 454 hours in service. How many additional hours in service may be accumulated before the Airworthiness Directive must again be complied with? The following is the compliance portion of an Airworthiness Directive. 'Compliance required as indicated, unless already accomplished. I. Aircraft with less that 500-hours' total time in service: Inspect in accordance with instructions below at 500-hours' total time, or within the next 50-hours' time in service after the effective date of this AD, and repeat after each subsequent 200 hours in service. II. Aircraft with 500-hours' through 1,000-hours' total time in service: Inspect in accordance with instructions below within the next 50-hours' time in service after the effective date of this AD, and repeat after each subsequent 200 hours in service. III. Aircraft with more than 1,000-hours' time in service: Inspect in accordance with instructions below within the next 25-hours' time in service after the effective date of this AD, and repeat after each subsequent 200 hours in service.'. 46. 200. 186.

(Refer to Figure 62, 62A, and 62B as necessary.) Which doubler(s) require(s) heat treatment before installation?. -101. -102. Both.

What information is generally contained in Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets?. Empty weight of the aircraft. Useful load of aircraft. Control surface movements.

Which regulation provides the airworthiness standards for an airplane certificated in the normal category?. 14 CFR Part 27. 14 CFR Part 25. 14 CFR Part 23.

Check thrust bearing nuts for tightness on new or newly overhauled engines at the first 50-hour inspection following installation. Subsequent inspections on thrust bearing nuts will be made at each third 50-hour inspection. From the above statement, at what intervals should you check the thrust bearing nut for tightness?. 150 hours. 200 hours. 250 hours.

What regulations are covered by 14 CFR Part 1?. Certification of airmen other than crewmembers. General operating and flight rules. Definitions and abbreviations.

Certificated mechanics with a powerplant rating may perform. any inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a powerplant or propeller or any component thereof, and may release the same to service. 100-hour and/or annual inspections required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on powerplants, propellers, or any components thereof, and may release the same to service. 100-hour inspections required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on powerplants, propellers, or any components thereof, and may release the same to service.

A repair, as performed on an airframe, shall mean. the upkeep and preservation of the airframe including the component parts thereof. the restoration of the airframe to a condition for safe operation after damage or deterioration. simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations.

The replacement of fabric on fabric-covered parts such as wings, fuselages, stabilizers, or control surfaces is considered to be a. minor repair unless the new cover is different in any way from the original cover. minor repair unless the underlying structure is altered or repaired. major repair even though no other alteration or repair is performed.

Which is classified as a major repair?. The splicing of skin sheets. Installation of new engine mounts obtained from the aircraft manufacturer. Any repair of damaged stressed metal skin.

The 100-hour inspection required by Federal Aviation Regulations for certain aircraft being operated for hire may be performed by. persons working under the supervision of an appropriately rated mechanic, but the aircraft must be approved by the mechanic for return to service. appropriately rated mechanics only if they have an inspection authorization. appropriately rated mechanics and approved by them for return to service.

A person working under the supervision of a certificated mechanic with an airframe and powerplant rating is not authorized to perform. repair of a wing brace strut by welding. a 100-hour inspection. repair of an engine mount by riveting.

Certificated mechanics, under their general certificate privileges, may. perform minor repairs to instruments. perform 100-hour inspection of instruments. perform minor alterations to instruments.

An Airworthiness Directive requires that a propeller be altered. Certificated mechanics could. perform and approve the work for return to service if it is a minor alteration. not perform the work because it is an alteration. not perform the work because they are not allowed to perform and approve for return to service, repairs or alterations to propellers.

The replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a. minor alteration. major repair. minor repair.

FAA certificated mechanics may. approve for return to service a major repair for which they are rated. supervise and approve a 100-hour inspection. approve for return to service a minor alteration they have performed appropriate to the rating(s) they hold.

A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may perform the. annual inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a powerplant or any component thereof and approve and return the same to service. 100-hour inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a powerplant or any component thereof and approve and return the same to service. 100-hour inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on an airframe, powerplant or any other component thereof and approve and return the same to service.

What part of the Federal Aviation Regulations prescribes the requirements for issuing mechanic certificates and associated ratings and the general operating rules for the holders of these certificates and ratings?. 14 CFR Part 43. 14 CFR Part 91. 14 CFR Part 65.

A certificated mechanic shall not exercise the privileges of the certificate and rating unless, within the preceding 24 months, the Administrator has found that the certificate holder is able to do the work or the certificate holder has. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 18 months. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 12 months. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 6 months.

Under Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, what is the maximum penalty for falsification, alteration, or fraudulent reproduction of certificates, logbooks, reports, and records?. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year. Imprisonment for one year and a $5,000.00 fine. Suspension or revocation of any certificate held.

How long does the holder of a certificate issued under 14 CFR part 65 have to notify the FAA after any change in permanent mailing address?. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

How long is a mechanic certificate with airframe and/or powerplant ratings valid?. Until the holder is relieved of duties for which the holder was employed and certificated. Until surrendered, suspended, or revoked. Until 24 months after the holder has last exercised the privileges of the certificate.

Why is a mechanic applicant issued a temporary certificate after successful completion of the required tests?. To allow for review of his/her application and supplementary documents. So that a background check/ investigation may be completed. Both of the other two choices.

What is the maximum duration of a temporary airman certificate?. 60 days. 90 days. 120 days.

When may an otherwise qualified mechanic who does not read, write, speak, and understand the English language be eligible to apply for a mechanic certificate?. When a special authorization has been granted by the Administrator. When employed outside the United States by a U.S. air carrier. When employed outside the United States.

Which of the following statements is true for a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic regarding repairs and alterations?. He/she may perform an airframe major repair or major alteration, but cannot approve the work for return to service. He/she may perform airframe minor repairs and minor alterations and approve the work for return to service, but cannot perform an airframe major repair or major alteration. He/she may perform an airframe major repair or major alteration and approve the work, but not the entire aircraft, for return to service.

(1) Certificated mechanics with an airframe rating may perform a minor repair to an airspeed indicator providing they have the necessary equipment available. (2) Certificated mechanics with a powerplant rating may perform a major repair to a propeller providing they have the necessary equipment available. Regarding the above statements,. only No. 1 is true. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. only No. 2 is true.

Who is responsible for determining that materials used in aircraft maintenance and repair are of the proper type and conform to the appropriate standards?. The installing person or agency. The owner or operator of the aircraft. The manufacturer of the aircraft.

Which of these publications contains standards for protrusion of bolts, studs, and screws through self-locking nuts?. AC 43.13-1B. AC 43.13-2. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets.

The replacement of a damaged engine mount with a new identical engine mount purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a. major or minor repair, depending upon the complexity of the installation. major repair. minor repair.

Who has the authority to approve for return to service a propeller after a 100-hour inspection? 1. A mechanic with a powerplant rating. 2. Any certificated repairman. 3. A non-certificated mechanic working under the supervision of a certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings. 1. 2. 1 and 3.

Instrument repairs may be performed. by the instrument manufacturer only. by an FAA-approved instrument repair station. on airframe instruments by mechanics with an airframe rating.

How is a quality system assured?. By an indepedent organization. By a dependent organization. By an internal reporting and auditing system.

According to Dr. James Reason, there are two types of human failure which can occur. They are: active and latent. mental and physical. proper and improper.

Many areas of aviation have shifted their focus from eliminating error to. preventing and managing error. identifying and mitigating error. reducing and containing error.

When we think of aviation safety in a contemporary way, human error is. the starting point. the ending point. the intervention point.

All of the following are consequences of human error, except. mental stressor. catastrophic. personal injury.

The positive aspects of human factor issues are referred to as the. Magnificent Seven. Dirty Dozen. MEDA.

The "SHEL" model is another human factors tool. The goal is to determine not only what the problem is, but also. where and why it exists. how we prevent the problem. how many factors contribute to the error.

The three types of human error are. omission, commission, and extraneous. active, latent, and stressor. mental, situational, and physiological.

14 CFR Part 65 contains information for the certification of. pilots, flight Instructors, and ground instructors. airmen other than flight crewmembers. flight crewmembers other than pilots.

Which of the following is an instance when a special flight permit may not be issued?. Flying passengers on a scheduled operation. Flying the aircraft to a location where repairs or maintenance can be performed. Flying a customer demonstration flight.

John and Nancy have been tasked with completing a hydraulic pump inspection. John is 5 feet 9 inches tall. Nancy is 5 feet 6 inches tall. What could result if Nancy is not tall enough to accomplish the task?. Personal reference. Human error. Complacency.

14 CFR Part 65 Subpart D contains regulations regarding the certification of. repairman. pilots. mechanics.