Part 1

1. The lower deck of the A318 is divided into three cargo compartments: the forward cargo compartment, the aft cargo compartment, and the bulk compartment. A. storage. B. cargo. C. overhead. D. passenger.

2. The inflation and deployment of the escape slide for the forward and aft cabin doors are manually initiated. A. False. B. True.

3. The manual inflation handle for the escape slide is located on the left-hand side of the girt bar. A. False. B. True.

4. The emergency exit escape slides on the A319, A320, and A321 are stowed in containers in the aft cargo compartment. A. True. B. False.

5. The slide raft is pneumatically pushed open as soon as the cabin door handle is lifted. A. True. B. False.

6. The automatic inflation of the escape slide can be manually initiated by pulling the manual inflation handle. A. True. B. False.

7. The emergency exit escape slides are installed above each door in the overhead stowage compartment. A. False. B. True.

8. The escape slide is of dual-lane type for the A318, A319, and A320. A. False. B. True.

9. The containers of the emergency exit escape slides are in the wing root fairing. A. True. B. False.

10. The manual inflation handle for the escape slide is used to open the cockpit sliding windows. A. False. B. True.

11. What is the purpose of the red manual inflation handle for the escape slide?. A. To open the door. B. To attach the survival kit. C. To initiate automatic inflation. D. To manually inflate the slide.

12. The inflation and deployment of the escape slide start automatically when the cabin door opens in the. A. mode. B. armed. C. open. D. locked.

13. On the A319, A320, and A321, the forward and aft cargo compartments can have an optional cargo. A. loading system. B. automated. C. semi-automatic. D. automated and manual.

14. The lower deck of the A318 is divided into three cargo compartments: the forward cargo compartment, the aft cargo compartment, and the ____ cargo compartment. A. central. B. bulk. C. rear. D. side.

15 .To open a cockpit sliding window from the inside, push down the black push button on top of the ___handle. A. locking. B. opening. C. closing. D. emergency.

16. The inflation and deployment sequence of the slide raft for the FWD and rear cabin doors is automatically initiated when the door is opened in the ____configuration. A. closed. B. locked. C. armed. D. open.

17. The red manual inflation handle for the escape slide is located on the ____side of the girt bar. A. left hand. B. right hand. C. top. D. bottom.

18. In case of a ditching, the survival kit must be connected to the slide raft before opening the. A. cockpit window. B. cabin door. C. overhead bin. D. emergency exit.

19. One or more Escape Slide/Slide Raft Cabin Passenger Door may be inoperative provided the associated door is considered. A. operational. B. closed. C. locked. D. inoperative.

20. The Structure Repair Manual is a customized document exclusive to specific airlines. A.True. B. False.

21. The introduction chapter of the SRM provides airplane information such as Weight Variant and Airplane Allocation List. A. True. B. False.

22. The weight variant given in the Airplane allocation list always represents the current status of the aircraft. A. True. B. False.

23. For permanent repairs with inspection program, inspections are not quoted along with the repair. A. True. B. False.

24. Each subject within the SRM uses a four-element numbering system. A. True. B. False.

25. What is the first document to use to assess damage on the aircraft structure?. A. Aircraft Operation Manual. B. Pilot's Handbook. C. Structure Repair Manual. D. Maintenance Manual.

26. Where is general information or information applicable to more than one chapter included in the SRM?. A. Chapter 50. B. Chapter 51. C. Chapter 52. D. Chapter 53.

27. In the "MOD/Definition Comparison" service, what does the "Aircraft status" criterion allow you to filter by?. A. The family of the aircraft. B. The type of aircraft. C. The status of the aircraft (e.g. delivered or to be delivered). D. The owner ICAO code of the aircraft.

28. What is the primary purpose of the Structure Repair Manual (SRM)?. A. To provide a list of all Airbus aircraft models. B. To provide guidelines on how to repair aircraft. C. To provide a history of Airbus. D. To provide a list of all aircraft manufacturers.

29. How is the SRM organized?. A. By aircraft model. B. By type of damage. C. By ATA specification. D. By date of publication.

30. What is the significance of 'Allowable Damage'?. A. It indicates damage that requires immediate repair. B. It indicates damage that can be ignored. C. It indicates damage that can be temporarily tolerated without immediate repair. D. It indicates damage that has been repaired previously.

31. What does a 'gouge' refer to?. A. A line of damage. B. A damage area resulting in a cross-sectional change. C. A mark caused by a sharp object. D. A series of scratches.

32. What causes 'corrosion'?. A. Physical impact. B. Chemical or electro-chemical effect. C. Exposure to high temperatures. D. Regular wear and tear.

33. Which factors determine the type of surface protection for components?. A. Material and Function. B. Material, Function, and Location. C. Function and Location. D. Only Material.

34. Which of the following is NOT an exception to external areas having surface protection?. A. Leading edges of slats. B. APU exhaust. C. Wing flaps. D. Cabin Pressurization Control System Outflow Valve.

35. What is the definition of corrosion?. A. Enhancement of metals. B. Destruction of metals by chemical effects. C. Strengthening of metals. D. Natural wear and tear of metals.

36. Which of the following is NOT a step necessary for satisfactory control of corrosion?. A. Regular maintenance. B. Applying heat. C. Initial identification of corrosion. D. Complete removal of corrosion when it occurs.

37. Which of the following is NOT a corrosive agent?. A. Acids. B. Alkalies. C. Pure water. D. Salts.

38. Which atmosphere can cause special problems due to the presence of oxidized sulphur and nitrogen compounds?. A. Marine Atmosphere. B. Industrial Atmosphere. C. Tropical Atmosphere. D. Desert Atmosphere.

39. How many main zones are the internal areas of an aircraft divided into, in terms of surface protection?. A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

40. Which of the following is NOT a group of protective treatment mentioned?. A. Pretreatment. B. Paint coatings. C. Special coatings. D. Heat treatments.

41. What is the primary purpose of pretreatment of materials?. A. To add color to the materials. B. To increase weight. C. To increase corrosion-resistant properties and provide a good surface for paint adhesion. D. To make the material shiny.

42. What is the primary cause of corrosion in the general atmosphere?. A. Lack of oxygen. B. Excess of nitrogen. C. Moisture and oxygen. D. Carbon dioxide.

43. Which of the following is NOT a step necessary for satisfactory control of corrosion?. A. Regular maintenance. B. Applying heat. C. Initial identification of corrosion. D. Complete removal of corrosion when it occurs.

44. The fastener contact area of the tool must be rough and textured. A. True. B. False.

45. A clear indication of a loose fastener is when the head of a fastener is rolled upwards at its periphery. A. True. B. False.

46. If a fastener is suspected to be loose, it should be ignored until the next maintenance cycle. A. True. B. False.

47. The use of a washer under a nut/collar is only permitted when used in the original construction. A. True. B. False.

48. It's always recommended to use two washers instead of one under the nut/collar. A. True. B. False.

49. The hand hammering method is the most recommended method for installing rivets in the aircraft structure. A. True. B. False.

50. What is the primary concern when drilling titanium due to its nature?. A. Its flexibility. B. Its hardness. C. Its lightness. D. Its transparency.

51. What should be checked regarding the drilling equipment?. A. The color of the drill. B. The weight of the drill. C. Wear of bearings and spindle concentricity. D. The brand of the drill.

52. Which of the following is NOT an indication of drilling problems?. A. Different amounts of swarf emerging from flutes. B. Drill turning blue. C. Outer corners of drill breaking off. D. Drill making a humming sound.

53. Which of the following is NOT a method used for the installation of rivets?. A. Continuous squeeze riveting process. B. Pneumatic hammering. C. Electric drilling. D. Hand hammering.

54. What is the recommended hole pitch value for a non-pressure tight joint in aluminum alloy assemblies?. A. 2 to 3D. B. 3 to 4D. C. 4 to 6D. D. 5 to 7D.

55. For aluminum rivets installed in aluminum alloy assemblies with a thickness of 1.2 mm or thicker, what is the recommended edge distance value in terms of 'D'?. A. Minimum 1.5 x 'D'. B. Minimum 2.0 x 'D'. C. Minimum 2.5 x 'D'. D. Minimum 3.0 x 'D'.

56. What is the primary benefit of the cold expansion process?. A. It increases the weight of metal structures. B. It increases the fatigue life of metal structures. C. It increases the temperature resistance of metal structures. D. It increases the elasticity of metal structures.

57. By how much does the hole diameter increase as a result of the expansion process?. A. One to two percent. B. Two to four percent. C. Three to five percent. D. Five to seven percent.

58. Which of the following is NOT a step in the cold expansion of holes in aluminum alloy structure?. A. Drilling a start hole. B. Painting the cold expanded hole. C. Reaming the start hole. D. Cold expanding the start hole.

59. If the maximum oversize of a hole following cold expansion is exceeded, what should be done?. A. Ignore the discrepancy. B. Fill the hole with a sealant. C. Contact AIRBUS. D. Re-drill the hole.

60. Why is it recommended to use a lubricant when drilling aluminum alloys?. A. To make the drill shiny. B. To help remove swarf and reduce heat build-up. C. To make the hole bigger. D. To color the aluminum.

61. After rivets are installed, why is inspection necessary?. A. To ensure the joint is tight and rivets are correctly formed. B. To check the color of the rivets. C. To ensure the rivets are shiny. D. To measure the length of the rivets.

62. Which of the following can indicate a loose fastener?. A. A shiny spot around the fastener. B. A red mark on the fastener. C. A black or dark grey stain adjacent to the fastener head. D. The fastener making a sound.

63. What is the primary purpose of using a countersunk fastener?. A. To provide a decorative finish. B. To give a smooth surface. C. To strengthen the material. D. To increase the weight of the material.