Performance Test Astana

An aircraft with a mass of 110.000 kg is capable of maintaining a gradient of 2.6%. With all the atmospheric variables remaining the same, with what mass would it be able to achieve a gradient of 2.4%?. 110000 kg. 119167 kg. 121167 kg. 101530 kg.

If not VMBE or VMCG limited, what would V1 be limited by?. VMC. V2. VMU. VR.

Which denotes the stall speed in the landing configuration?. VMCG. VS0. VS. VS1G.

When comparing VX to VY: VX will sometimes be greater than VY, but sometimes be less than VY. VX will always be greater than VY. VY will always be greater than VX. VY will always be greater than or equal to VX.

If a jet engine fails during take-off, before Vl: The take-off should be aborted. The take-off may be continued if aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP. The take-off should be continued. The take-off can be continued or aborted.

The induced drag in an aeroplane: Increases as speed increases. Is independent of speed. Decreases as weight increases. Decreases as speed increases.

The information in a light aircraft manual gives two power settings for cruise. 65% and 75%. If you fly at 75% instead of 65%. Cruise speed will be higher. fuel consumption will be higher. Cruise speed will be higher. fuel consumption will be lower. Cruise speed will be the same. fuel consumption will be the same. Cruise speed will be higher, fuel consumption will be the same.

The reduced thrust take-off procedure may not be used when: Temperature varies by more than 10°C from ISA. runway wet. After dark. Anti-skid unserviceable.

A difference between a reduced (flex) and a derated thrust take-off is that: On a flex take-off, the TOGA thrust remains available. Derated thrust take-offs use an assumed temperature. The flex thrust is regarded as an operating limit. Flex take-offs can be conducted on contaminated runways.

Why is there a requirement for an approach climb gradient?. So that the aircraft will not stall when full flap is selected. Adequate performance for a go-around in the event of an engine failure. To maintain minimum altitude on the approach. So that an aircraft falling below the glide path will be able to re-intercept it.

During a take-off in a Performance class A aircraft, you will need to apply more than 15° of bank The required vertical obstacle clearance margin. Is increased from 15 ft (wet) to 35 ft. Is increased from 35 ft to 50 ft. Increased to 600 ft minimum. Is unaffected so long as the aircraft has passed 100 ft after take-off.

The drift down is a procedure applied: For a visual approach to a VASI. When the engine fails above the operating altitude for one engine inoperative. For an instrument approach at an airfield without an ILS. After aircraft depressurization.

During the rainy season the runways are frequently wet following heavy rain showers. What landing techniques should be adopted when operating on such runways?. Light touchdown landings with maximum airbrake and reverse thrust but minimum anti-skid braking. Positive landings with prompt full application of all retardation devices and maximum brake/autobrake with anti-skid. Use of reverse thrust should be kept to a minimum to avoid water spray and impingement, and anti-skid braking should be applied slowly to avoid hydroplaning. It is vital to maintain a normal approach and landing technique but use a slower approach and landing speed compared to dry runway operations.

Which of the following statements about performance definitions and safety factors is correct?. The gross climb gradient is the net climb gradient minus a safety margin. The net and gross climb gradients are equal for a four-engined aeroplane. The gross take-off flight path must clear all obstacles by at least 35 ft. The net climb gradient is the gross climb gradient minus a safety margin.

What does density altitude signify?. Flight levels. ISA altitude. Pressure altitude. An accurate indication of aircraft and engine performance.

When flying at the optimum range altitude, over time the: Fuel consumption gradually decreases. Fuel consumption initially decreases then gradually increases. Fuel consumption gradually increases. Fuel consumption remains constant.

With which conditions would one expect VMC to be the lowest?. Hot temp, low pressure altitude, high humidity. Cold temp, high altitude, low humidity. Cold temp, low altitude, low humidity. Hot temp, high pressure altitude, high humidity.

For a given aircraft mass, flying with a cost index greater than zero set will result in: Climb at the slowest safe speed, taking into account stall and speed stability. A cruise at a slower Mach number than the best range Mach number for a given altitude. A cruise at the maximum endurance speed. A cruise at a faster Mach number than the Mach number giving best air nautical miles per kg ratio for a given altitude.

With which conditions would the aircraft need to be flown, in order to achieve maximum speed?. Maximum thrust and maximum drag. Thrust set for minimum drag. Best lift - drag ratio. Maximum thrust and minimum drag.

When determining the accelerate-stop distance for a Performance Class A aeroplane, the available reverse thrust of the operative engine(s).... Is taken into account on a dry runway. Is NOT allowed to be used due to the risk of thrust asymmetry. Is taken into account on a wet runway. Has NO effect on accelerate-stop distance, regardless of the runway condition.

When take-off mass is limited by VMBE (maximum brake-energy speed), an increase in the uphill slope will: Allow an increase in the mass. Have no effect. Require a decrease in the mass. Decrease the TODR.

A higher mass at a given altitude will reduce the gradient of climb and the rate of climb. But the speeds: VX and VY will decrease. VX will increase and VY will decrease. VX and VY will remain constant. VX and VY will increase.

If the calculations for an aeroplane of 3250 lbs indicate a service ceiling of 4000 m, what will the service ceiling be when the actual take-off mass is 3000 lbs?. The same. Lower. Higher. Higher or Lower, more calculations will have to be done.

What happens to the field Limited take-off mass with runway slope?. It is unaffected by runway slope. It increases with an uphill slope. It increases with a downhill slope. It decreases with a downhill slope.

How is fuel consumption affected by the C of G position, in terms of air nautical miles per kg?. Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position. Decreases with a forward C of G. Decreases with an aft C of G. Increases with a forward C of G.

When operating with anti-skid inoperative: Neither take-off nor landing performance will be affected. Only landing performance will be affected. Both landing and takeoff performance will be affected. Only take-off performance will be affected.

When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adopt with an inoperative anti-skid system?. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP. Normal landing, full reverse and brakes at VP. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible. Smoothest possible touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP.

For a turbojet aeroplane the third segment of climb begins when. Acceleration to flap retraction speed begins (min 400 ft). The landing gear is fully retracted. The flaps are fully retracted. Acceleration from VLOF to V2 begins.

A balanced field length is when: ASDA equals TODA. V1 = VR. Distance taken to accelerate to V1 and distance to stop are identical. TORA x 1.5 = TODA.

The Landing speed, VREF, for a single-engine aircraft must be not less than: 1.3VS0. 1.2VMCA. 1.05VS0. 1.1VS0.

In a balanced turn load factor is dependent on: Bank angle only. Radius of turn and aircraft weight. Radius of turn and bank angle. TAS and bank angle.

The dry net take-off run required (TORR) for a jet aircraft, with one engine inoperative is: Brake release point to midpoint between VLOF and 35 ft. The same as for all engines. Brake release point to 15 ft. Brake release point to 35 ft.

During certification test fights for a turbojet aeroplane, the measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take of surface are: 1530 m with all engines operating. 1810 m with the critical engine failure recognized at V1 other factors remaining unchanged. What is the correct value of the take-off run?. 1950 m. 1810 m. 1759 m. 2081 m.

Give the correct sequence: VX, VS, VY. max endurance speed, VS, max range speed. VS, VX, VY. VS, max range speed, max endurance speed.

Which of the following combinations most reduces the take-off and climb performance of an aircraft?. High temperature and low pressure. Low temperature and low pressure. High temperature and high pressure. Low temperature and high pressure.

For a turboprop aircraft, the LDA at an aerodrome is 2200 m. If the conditions are indicated as wet what would the equivalent dry LDA be?. 1451 m. 1538 m. 1339 m. 1913 m.

Up to which height in NADP 1 noise abatement procedure must V2 10-20 kt be maintained?. 3000 ft. 1000 ft. 500 ft. 1500 ft.

If the center of gravity moves aft from the most forward position: The range and the fuel consumption will increase. The range will decrease and the fuel consumption will increase. The range and the fuel consumption will decrease. The range will increase and the fuel consumption will decrease.

Absolute ceiling is defined by: Altitude where theoretical rate of climb is zero. Altitude where low speed buffet and high-speed buffet speeds are coincident. Altitude obtained when using lowest steady fight speed. Altitude at which rate of climb is 100 fpm.

Climbing to cruise altitude with a headwind will: Decreased time to climb. Decrease ground distance covered to climb. Increase time to climb. Increased ground distance covered to climb.

During aircraft certification, the value of VMCG is found with nose wheel steering inoperative. This is because: VMCG must be valid in both wet and dry conditions. the aircraft may be operated even if the nose wheel steering is inoperative. nose wheel steering does not affect VMCG. nose wheel steering does not work after an engine failure.

The speed for minimum power required in a turbojet will be: Same as speed for minimum drag. Slower in a climb and faster in the decent. Slower than the speed for minimum drag. Faster than the speed for minimum drag.

VR for a jet aircraft must be faster than. the greater of: VMBE and V1. 1.05VMCA and V1. V1 and 1.1VMCA. VMCA and 1.1 V1.

According to Part CAT, the declared runway distances... Do not need to be adjusted for runway line up losses if the aeroplane mass is anything other than field-length limited. Need to be increased by a margin equal to the line-up or turnaround loss. Do not account for runway line-up, and are usually adjusted in case of a 90° entry or 180° turnaround. Account for Class A and Class C aeroplane line-up losses.

In wet conditions. what extra percentage over the dry gross landing distance must be available for a turbojet?. 15%. 92%. 43%. 67%.

Concerning Landing gear, which factors limit take-off performance?. Tyre temperature. Tyre speed and VMBE. Brake temperature. Brake wear.

Flying at an altitude close to coffin corner gives: Max speed. Greater 1 engine inoperative range. Greater 1 engine inoperative endurance. Less manoeuvrability.

Requirements for the third segment of climb are: A climb gradient of 5% is required in the third segment. Legal minimum altitude for acceleration is 1500 ft. Minimum acceleration altitude for one engine inoperative should be used. Level acceleration with an equivalent gradient of 1.2%.

With respect to en-route diversions (using drift down graph). if you believe that you will not clear an obstacle do you. Fly slight faster. Jettison fuel from the beginning of the drift down. Asses remaining fuel requirements, then jettison fuel as soon as possible. Drift down to clearance height and then start to jettison fuel.

When in a gliding maneuver, in order to achieve maximum endurance the aircraft should be flown at: The speed for min. power. The speed for max. lift. The speed for min. drag. The speed for max. lift / drag.

If the flap setting is changed from 10 degrees to 20 degrees. V2 will. Increase. Not change. Increase or decrease depending on weight. Decrease if not limited to VMCA.

When does THRUST = DRAG?. Climbing at a constant IAS. All of the above. Flying level at a constant IAS. Descending at a constant IAS.

What effect does a downhill slope have on the take-off speeds?. It increases V1. It has no effect on V1. It increases the IAS for take-off. It decreases V1.

During the certification of an aeroplane, the take-off distance with all engines operating and the take-off distance with one engine inoperative are: • 1547 m • 1720 m What is the distance used in the aircraft certification?. 1547 m. 1720 m. 1779 m. 1798 m.

Take-off on a runway with standing water, with a depth of 0.5 cm. Compared to a dry runway, field length limited mass will: Increase, with a reduced V1. Decrease, with a decreased V1. Decrease. with an increased V1. Remain the same, with a reduced V1.

With regard to a Commercial Air Transport jet aeroplane, which of thevfollowing defines Specific Range over the Ground (SRG)?. The number of nautical ground miles per unit of fuel. The fuel flow divided by ground speed. The number of nautical ground miles per unit of thrust. The air distance travelled per unit of power.

At maximum range speed in a turbojet the angle of attack is: More than L/D max. Maximum. The same as L/D max. Less than L/D max.

The effects of a contaminated runway on take-off are: Decreased weight, same V1, increased VR. Decreased weight, decreased V1, decreased VR. Decreased weight, increased V1, increased VR. Decreased weight, same V1, same VR.

A jet aircraft's maximum altitude is usually limited by: Thrust limits. Its certification maximum altitude. The altitude at which low and high-speed buffet will occur. Its pressurization maximum altitude.

Two identical aircraft at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics?. At a given angle of attack. the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane. At a given angle of attack, the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane. There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes. At a given angle of attack. both the vertical and the forward speeds are greater for the heavier aeroplane.

If there is an increase in atmospheric pressure and all other factors remain constant, it should result in: Increased take-off distance and decreased climb performance. Increased take-off distance and increased climb performance. Decreased take-off distance and decreased climb performance. Decreased take-off distance and increased climb performance.

For a turbojet aeroplane the second segment of the climb begins when: Flap retraction begins. The landing gear is fully retracted. Accelerating from V2 to flap retraction speed begins. The flaps are fully retracted.

How does the slush thickness affect the V1 reduction required?. No effect at all. No effect if mass is reduced. Smaller reduction if thicker. Greater reduction if thicker.

SFC (Specific Fuel Consumption) will: Not be affected by C of G position. Decrease if C of G is moved further forward of the C of P. Increase if C of G is moved further forward of the C of P. Only be affected by C of G position if it is behind the C of P.

When climbing at a constant Mach number through the troposphere, TAS: Remains constant. Increases then decreases. Decreases. Increases.

A light twin-engine aircraft is climbing from the screen height of 50 ft. and has an obstacle 10000 m along the net fight path. If the net climb gradient is 10%, there is no wind and obstacle is 900 m above the aerodrome elevation then what will the clearance be?. The aircraft will not clear the object. 85 m. 115 m. 100 m.

With a downward sloping runway: VR will decrease. V1 will increase. V1 will decrease. VR will increase.

Why are step climbs used on long range fights in jet transport aircraft?. To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as mass reduces. They are only justified if the actual wind conditions differ significantly from the forecast conditions used for planning. To comply with ATC fight level constraints. Step climbs have no significance for jet aircraft. they are used by piston aircraft.

VMC means the minimum control speed with..... All engines operating and it will be lower at low temperatures. The critical engine inoperative, and it will be higher at higher temperatures. The critical engine inoperative, and it will be lower at higher temperatures. All engines operating and it will be lower at high temperatures.

An aircraft may use either 5° or 15° flap setting for take-off. The effect of selecting the 5° setting as compared to the 15° setting is: Take-off distance will increase and take-off climb gradient will decrease. Take-off distance and take-off climb gradient will both decrease. Take-off distance will decrease and take-off climb gradient will increase. Take-off distance and take-off climb gradient will both increase.

With respect to field length Limit, fill in the blanks in the follow statement. The distance to accelerate to_____at which point an engine fails, followed by the reaction time of_____and the ensuing deceleration to a full stop must be completed within the_____. VR, 2 sec, TORA. VEF, 2 sec, TORA. V1 , 2 sec, ASDA. VGO, 2 sec. ASDA.

Landing on a runway with 5 mm wet snow will: Decrease landing distance. Not affect the landing distance. Increase landing distance. Give a slightly reduced landing distance. due to increased impingement drag.

What factor must be applied to the landing distance available at the destination aerodrome to determine the landing performance of a turbojet aircraft on a dry runway?. 1.43. 0.70. 1.15. 0.60.

When considering the Class A obstacle clearance after take-off what is the standard maximum bank angle permitted in the first and second segments?. 0°. 25°. 5°. 15°.

What procedure is likely to require V1 to be reduced?. Reduced thrust take-off. Take off with anti-skid inoperative. When ASDA is greater than TODA. Improved climb procedure.

The effect of a headwind component on glide range is: The range will only be affected if incorrect speeds are flown. The range will increase. The range will not be affected. The range will decrease.

Which conditions are most suited to a selection of lower flap for take-off?. High elevation, no obstacles, short runway, low temperature. High airfield elevations, distant obstacles. long runway, high ambient temperaturee. Low airfield elevation, close obstacles, long runway, high temperature. Low airfield elevation, no obstacles, short runway, low temperature.

VS1G is the?. 1-g stall speed at which the aeroplane can develop a lift force (normal to the flight path) equal to its weight. Reference stall speed in the landing configuration. Reference stall speed in a specific configuration. Stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specified configuration.

With a constant weight and Mach No., a higher altitude will require: Lower CL. Higher AoA. Lower CD. No change.

VREF for a Class B aircraft is defined by: 1.3Vmcl. 1.2Vmcl. 1.2Vs. 1.3Vs.

Which is true regarding a balanced field?. Take-off distance will always be more than stopping distance. Distances will remain equal, even if engine failure speed is changed. Provides minimum field length required in the case of an engine failure. Provides largest gap between net and gross margins.

With regards to the optimum altitude during the cruise, the aircraft is: May be flown above or below the optimum altitude, but never at the optimum altitude. Flown as close to the optimum altitude as ATC will allow. Always flown at the optimum altitude. Always flown 2000 ft below the optimum altitude.

What landing distance requirements need to be met at an alternate airfield compared to a destination airfield for a turboprop?. None applicable. More than destination. Same as destination. Less than destination.

What is spray impingement drag?. Water spray from the tyres hitting the airframe. Water spray being ingested into the engines reducing performance. Spray from anti-ice fluids on the airframe. Water displacement from the tyres.

The buffet onset boundary chart tells the pilot the: Mach number for low speed buffet and shock buffet for various masses and altitudes. Values for low speed stall and Mach buffet onset for various masses and altitudes. Maximum operating MMO for various masses and altitudes. Critical Mach number for various masses and altitudes.

Which combination of slat and flap angles which will give best climb performance?. Small slat angle, large flap angle. Large slat angle, large flap angle. Large slat angle, small flap angle. Small slat angle, small flap angle.

If V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following statements will be true?. TOD will be greater than ASD. ASD will be equal to TOD. Take-off is not permitted. VMCG must be reduced to equal V1.

A Tailwind on take-off will not affect. Climb limit mass. VMBE. Field limit mass. Obstacle clearance.

V2MIN is determined by: (excluding VMCA). 1.2VSR for all turboprops and 1.15VSR for all turbojets. 1.08VSR for 4 engine turboprops with 1.13VSR for 2 and 3 engine turboprops. 1.15VS for all aeroplanes. 1.2VS for all turbojets.

In dry conditions, when landing at an alternate airport in a turbojet by what factor should the landing distance available be divided to give landing distance?. 0.6. 1.0. 1.43. 1.67.

The coefficient of lift may be increased by lowering the flaps or: Reducing nose-up elevator trim. Increasing CAS. Increasing angle of attack. Increasing TAS.

An aircraft is certified to land with flaps at either 25 or 35 degrees of flap. If the pilot selects the higher setting, there will be: Increased landing distance and improved go-around performance. Increased landing distance and reduced go-around performance. Reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance. Reduced landing distance and reduced go-around performance.

Give the correct order for the following: V1, VMCA, VR, VMCG, V2. VMCG, VR, V1, V2. VMCG, V1, VR, V2. V1, VMCG, Vr, V2.

Climbing in the troposphere at a constant TAS: Mach number decreases. Mach number increases. IAS increases. CAS increases.

Two identical turbojets are holding at the same altitude and have the same specifc fuel consumption. Aeroplane 1 weighs 130.000 kg and fuel flow is 4300 kg/hr. If aeroplane 2 weighs 115.000 kg what is the fuel flow of aeroplane 2?. 3804 kg/hr. 4044 kg/hr. 3364 kg/hr. 3530 kg/hr.

How does the power required graph move with an increase in altitude?. Straight up. Straight across to the right. Up and to the right. Straight down.

Pitch angle during decent at a constant Mach number will: Increase. Increase at first then decrease. Stay constant. Decrease.

What happens to the speed for VX and VY with increasing altitude?. VX remains constant and VY increases. Both remain constant. VX remains constant and VY decreases. VX increases and VY remains constant.

During a Constant Descent Arrival (CDA) a higher than forecast headwind is experienced putting the aircraft below the profile. What action is to be taken by the captain?. Contact ATC to inform them of your deviation and request new instructions. Reduce rate of descent to regain profile. Select speedbrakes. Reduce thrust.

If the maximum take-off mass is limited by tyre speed, what effect would a down sloping runway have?. Decrease the mass. Only increase the mass if not limited by any other Limitation. Always increase the mass. No effect.

To maintain the same angle of attack and altitude at a higher gross weight an aeroplane needs: The same airspeed. Less airspeed and same power. More airspeed and less power. More airspeed and more power.

VLO is defined as: The minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift of the ground. The long-range cruise speed. The actual speed that the aircraft lifts of the ground. The maximum speed for landing gear operation.

Putting in 16.500 litres of fuel with an SG of 780 kg/m2 , and writing 16.500 kg of fuel on the Load sheet will result in: TOD increasing and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast. TOD and ASD remaining constant, if the calculated speeds are used. TOD and ASD increasing. if the calculated speeds are used. TOD and ASD decreasing. and the calculated V2 being too fast.

In climb limited mass calculations, the climb gradient is a ratio of: TGS over rate of climb. Height gained over distance travelled across the ground. Height gained over distance travelled through the air. TAS over rate of climb.

Select the correct statement with regard to the effect on the ground roll distance if the flap setting is increased from 5° to 10°. Reduced due to the increased lift, which increases the stalling speed, requiring a lower take-off speed. Increased due to the reduced lift, which increases the stalling speed and the required take-off speed. Increased due to the increased drag, which increases the stalling speed and the required take- off speed. Reduced due to the increased lift, which reduces the stalling speed and the required take- off speed.

When flying in a headwind, the speed for max range should be: Should be increased. or decreased depending on the strength of the wind. Slightly decreased. Slightly increased. Unchanged.

The pilots of an airliner suspect a fuel leak and choose to divert to an alternate aerodrome. What speed should this be flown at?. VMP. VMO. VMD. LRC.

The main reason for using the step climb technique is to: Adhere to ATC procedures. Increase range. Increase endurance. Decrease sector times.

What factors would cause V2 to be Limited by VMCA?. With low temperature. Flaps at high settings. Combination of the above. With high pressure.

When gliding into a headwind airspeed should be: The same as the max. range glide speed in still air. Higher than the max. range glide speed in still air. Lower than the max. range glide speed in still air. Reduced to gust penetration speed.

A turboprop aircraft with a maximum all up mass in excess of 5700 kg is limited to: 25° angle of bank up to 400 ft. 20° angle of bank up to 400 ft. 15° angle of bank up to 400 ft. 10° angle of bank up to 400 ft.

In a glide (power-of descent) if pitch angle is increased, glide distance will. Remain constant. Increase. Depend on the aircraft. Decrease.

Reference point zero refers to the: Point where the aircraft reaches V2. Point where gear is selected up. Point where the aircraft reaches 35 ft. Point where the aircraft lifts of the ground.

Cruising with 1 or 2 engines inoperative at high altitude. compared to all engines operative cruise. Range will: Decrease. Decrease with 1 engine inoperative. and increase with 2 engines inoperative. Not change. Increase.