Piper Cheyenne II XL PA-31T

1. A battery start may be attempted anytime the: A. Voltmeter reads more than 20 volts. B. GPU power is not available. C. Battery is above 24 volts. D. Battery voltage is between 27-30 volts.

2. The generators can be turned on: A. When NG reaches 68% (65% for II XL). B. When NG reaches 52%. C. When NG reaches 70%. D. At any time.

3. Ground power can be used for: A. Systems power. B. Engine starting. C. Battery charging. D. A and B.

4. No start are permissible if battery voltage drops below: A. 28 volts. B. 24 volts. C. 22 volts. D. 20 volts.

5. A ground power unit must be capable of delivering: A. 1.000-1.800 amps at 30-40 volts. B. 80-100 amps at 20-30 volts. C. 800 – 1.000 amps at 27 – 30 volts. D. 100-800 amps at 30-270 volts.

6. On 1981 and subsequent airplanes, as long as the battery is connected, the fire extinguishers, cockpit dome light, courtesy lights, clock, and ground clearance communications are powered from: A. Battery bus No. 1. B. Main bus. C. Battery bus No. 2. D. Essential bus.

7. On 1981 and subsequent airplanes, the fuses for equipment powered by the battery buses are located in the: A. Cockpit. B. Nose baggage compartment. C. Aft compartment. D. Passenger compartment.

8. The AC power produced by the inverters is: A. 28 VAC and 110 VAC. B. 28 VAC and 120 VAC. C. 30 VAC and 200 VAC. D. 26 VAC and 115 VAC.

9. A L GEN INOP annunciator illuminates when: A. The left generator is turned off. B. Either generator is turned off. C. The left generator has failed. D. Both A and C are correct.

10. After three starts are attempted, the starter must rest for: A. 1 minute. B. 30 minutes. C. 30 seconds. D. 3 minutes.

11. A takeoff with the BATTERY OVERTEMP annunciator illuminated is: A. Not authorized. B. Permissible is the gage is monitored. C. Permissible above sea level. D. Permissible if the light has been on for an extended period of time.

12. The maximum generator flight load of 200 amps requires an NG of: A. 49%. B. 53%. C. 59%. D. 63% (Preferable 68%).

13. The fire detection system is tested by the flight crew using the annunciator panel press-to-test switch. The switch: A. Heats up an infrared source by each detector. B. Checks only the annunciator system operation. C. Completes an electrical Circuit through the fire detector harnesses and annunciators. D. Confirms that both fire-extinguishing supply cylinders are fully charged.

14. When an engine fire occurs, the thermal detectors: A. Arm the fire-extinguishing system. B. Illuminate the MASTER CAUTION light, the appropriate ENG FIRE annunciator light, and sound the warning horn. C. Automatically discharge the appropriate fire-extinguishing system. D. Start automatic engine shutdown.

15. The fire-extinguishing system on 1980 and earlier series airplanes is armed: A. At all times, provided a fully charged battery is installed. B. Only when the circuit breakers are set and power is applied to the airplane. C. Only when the generator buses are active. D. By pulling out the left or right fire extinguisher T-handle.

16. The fire-extinguishing system on 1981 and subsequent series airplanes is armed: A. At all times, provided a fully charged battery is installed. B. Only when the circuit breakers are set and power is applied to the airplane. C. Only when the generator buses are active. D. By pulling out the left or right fire extinguisher T-handle.

17. The Halon 1301 fire-extinguishing agent is discharged by: A. A temperature switch. B. A mechanically fired pin at the base of the supply cylinder. C. Flame detector arresters. D. An electrically operated cartridge called a squib.

18. The fire-extinguishing supply cylinder pressure gage is checked: A. On the pilot’s preflight inspection. B. Before each flight. C. Only when the ambient temperature Exceeds 115°F. D. By maintenance personnel only.

19. Between supply cylinder recharges, each fire-extinguishing system can by fired: A. One time. B. Two times. C. Three times. D. Four times.

20. A left engine fire persists after the left fire-extinguishing system has been dis-charged. The right fire extinguishing system: A. Can be used to extinguish the left side. B. Can be used to extinguish the left side Only after resetting the left system. C. Now has ½ the original chemical agent. D. Cannot be cross fed to the left side.

21. Pushing the LEFT (RIGHT) FIRE EXT button: A. Arms the respective fire-extinguishing system. B. Activates the respective fire-extinguishing system. C. Closes the respective fuel firewall shutoff valve and activates the fire-extinguishing system. D. Activates the respective fire-extinguishing system and arms the opposite side system.

22. When the contents of the fire-extinguishing supply cylinder are discharged through the thermal-relief valve, the FIREEXTNG INOP annunciator light: A. Illuminates on low brilliance. B. Flashes until it is reset. C. Illuminate for 30 second when power is applied to the airplane, then extinguishes. D. Does not illuminate.

23. During normal operation, low-pressure fuel is supplied to the engine fuel system by: A. Gravity feed. B. Ram vent pressure. C. The boost pump. D. Suction feed.

24. Cross feed operation is authorized: A. For single-engine operation and fuel balancing during two-Engine operation. B. For single-engine operation only. C. When both boost pumps on the side fail. D. For takeoff and climb out.

25. Boost pump failure is indicated by: A. Zero-fuel flow and the fuel pressure gage. B. The L/R fuel pressure gage, L/R ENG FUEL PRESS annunciator, MASTER CAUTION light, and warning horn. C. Automatic cross fed valve opening and warning horn. D. AUX FUEL PUMP light illumination.

26. Suction feed may be used (within limitations) to supply fuel to an engine: A. When the engine-driven fuel pump fails. B. For takeoff and climb out. C. When the transfer pump fails. D. When both boost pumps fait on one side.

27. The following recommendation applies to operation with aviation gasoline: A. The lowest available octane should be used High-octane fuels are prohibited. B. It cannot be mixed with recommended fuels. C. It cannot be used in the suction feed. D. Mode of operation.

28. Operation of the engine without boost pumps is limited to: A. 10 hours of operation during each TBO. B. 150 hours of operation during each TBO. C. Use with recommended fuels only. D. 10 hours of operation before the engine-driven fuel pump must be replaced or overhauled.

29. The use of aviation gasoline is limited to: A. 10 hours of operation during each TBO. B. 100 hours of operation during each TBO. C. 150 hours of operation during each TBO. D. 200 hours of operation during each TBO.

30. The Cheyenne should be filled to capacity by filling: A. The tips and then the nacelles. B. The nacelles and then the tips. C. From the tips only. D. The tanks in any sequence.

31. The wing and tail leading edges are deiced by: A. Pneumatically inflated boots. B. Pneumatically heated boots. C. Pneumatically inflated and heated boots. D. Pneumatically inflated/electrically heated boots.

32. When the SURFACE DE-ICE switch is activated, the system: A. Cycles continuously until the switch is turned off. B. Inflates the wing boots and then the empennage boots, in turn, one time. C. Inflates all boots simultaneously one time. D. Inflates the wing boots and then the empennage boots, in turn, continuously until the switch is turned off.

33. The engine ICE PROTECTION switches control: A. The ice deflector and bypass doors. B. The engine air inlet heating boots. C. The propeller heating boots. D. All the above.

34. On the Cheyenne IA and Tl 040 models, failure of the propeller heating elements in the left engine anti-ice system is indicated by: A. Flashing of the L DEICE OFF annunciator. B. Illumination of the L DEICE OFF annunciator for 90 seconds each cycle. C. Illumination of the L DEICE OFF annunciator for 45 seconds each cycle. D. Illumination of the L DEICE OFF annunciator for 34 seconds each cycle.

35. The ICE PROTECTION switches should be operated in the ON position in icing conditions and visible moisture when the outside air temperature is: A. 20°C or less. B. 5°C or less. C. 10°C or less. D. At freezing level.

36. The SURFACE DEICE switch should not be operated until wing leading-edge ice accumulates to approximately: A. 1/8 to 1/4 inch. B. 1/4 to 3/8 inch. C. 1/2 to 5/8 inch. D. 5/8 to 7/8 inch.

37. Do not operate the pneumatic deicing system at temperatures of less than: A. - 20°C. B. - 40°C. C. - 50°C. D. - 60°C.

38. The heated windshield is coated with a tin oxide to dissipate static electricity. In cleaning this type of windshield, use only: A. Ammonia-based cleaners. B. Windex of Glass Plus-type cleaners. C. Mild soup and water. D. None of the above.

39. The engine ice protection system is activated or deactivated through the operation of the : A. Nose squat switch. B. Right squat switch. C. Left squat switch. D. All of the above.

40. The ice protection system can be used as a particle separator when operating in e sandy environment; to use it for this mode of operation, turn the ice protection switches on and: A. Pull the ice deflector control circuit breaker after selecting ice protection on each engine bus. B. Pull the ice deflector control circuit breaker on the essential bus after selecting ice protection on. C. Pull the prop deice and intake deice circuit breakers. D. Ice protection cannot be used as a particle separator.

41. With the engine ice protection system on, torque loss is: A. None. B. Up to approximately 125 foot-pounds. C. Up to approximately 175 foot-pounds. D. 34 foot-pounds.

42. For Cheyenne IIXL airplanes, engine bleed air is: A. Supplemented by recirculated air through jet pumps. B. Tempered by precoolers in each nacelle. C. Mixed with ambient air in a bleed manifold. D. Controlled by bleed-air shutoff valves.

43. For Cheyenne II XL airplanes, if the left and right BLEED HOT lights come on simultaneously, the probable cause is: A. Failure of the ECS overpressure switch. B. A faulty electrical circuit. C. Duct overheat in the cabin underfloor area. D. Failure of the pressure regulator shutoff valve.

44. On Cheyenne IIXL airplanes, if ECS overtemperature of ECS overpressure exceed their preset values, the: A. Cabin pressure will increase at a slow rate. B. Pressure regulator shutoff valve will close. C. Hot air bypass valve will open. D. ECS bypass valve will open.

45. On Cheyenne IIXL airplanes, the ECS SELECT switch must be in the LO position: A. During engine starting, takeoff, and landing. B. For ground heating or cooling. C. If the automatic temperature control fails. D. When the CABIN AIR selector is at OUTSIDE position.

46. For the cockpit lighting dimmers to function, the DIM-OFF-BRT switch must be in: A. DIM. B. OFF. C. BRT. D. Either A or C.

47. The dome light switch controls: A. Pilot’s dome light. B. Copilot´s dome light. C. The pilot-copilot dome light. D. Dome and map lights.

48. The EXIT light switch on the overhead panel controls: A. Door stair lights. B. Aisle lights. C. Passenger reading lights (T1040). D. All the above.

49. The switch that allows selection of additional courtesy light dim is located on the: A. Overhead panel. B. Cabin sidewall. C. Center pedestal. D. Door stair.

50. The nose compartment light is controlled with a switch . A. On the overhead panel. B. On the cabin sidewall. C. Integral to the nose compartment door. D. Integral to the cabin entrance door.

51. The light(s) which, if left on, will reduce battery voltage is: A. The dome light. B. The exit light. C. The nose compartment light. D. All of the above.

52. A flashing MASTER CAUTION light/reset button indicates: A. A green annunciator light is illuminated. B. An amber annunciator light is flashing. C. A red annunciator light is flashing. D. A red annunciator light is illuminated steady.

53. When the flashing MASTER CAUTION light/reset button is pressed: A. The associated red annunciator extinguishes. B. It extinguishes and reset. C. It illuminates steady. D. The associated amber annunciator extinguishes.

54. The annunciator panel tights can be dimmed with: A. A dimmer switch on the right end of the panel. B. The NAV light switch. C. A switch on the end of the panel. D. An overhead lighting rheostat.

55. When the test switch is activated: A. The amber and green lights illuminate instantly. B. The warning horn sounds after one second. C. The MASTER CAUTION and red lights flash. D. All the above are correct.

56. The FLAP light illuminates when: A. The annunciator test switch is pressed. B. The flap test switch is actuated. C. The flap control amplifier has failed. D. Both B and C.

57. The PT6A engine is defined as a: A. Fixed-shaft, turboprop engine. B. Twin spool, constant-speed engine. C. Twin-shaft, free-turbine turboprop engine. D. Single-spool, variable-speed engine.

58. The torque gage indicates the power: A. Developed by the gas generator. B. Delivered by the propeller. C. Of the combined gas generator and power turbine. D. Delivered to the propeller.

59. The compressor interstage bleed system functions to: A. Provided hot point cooling air. B. Prevent compressor stalls and surges. C. Supply air for pneumatic services. D. Pressurize the engine oil system.

60. The major portion of the thrust developed by the gas generator is used: A. To drive the compressor and accessory gear. B. At direct exhaust thrust. C. To drive the power turbine. D. As input torque to the reduction gear.

61. The engine oil level should be checked: A. Before engine starting. B. At low idle rpm. C. One hour after shutdown. D. Within 20 minutes of shutdown.

62. Oil temperature is controlled by: A. Fuel bypassed through a heat ex-changer. B. An oil cooler and electrically positioned door. C. A thermostatically controlled by-pass. D. Mechanically positioned oil cooler doors.

63. The purpose of the cross-generator start is: A. To reduce battery load. B. To provide a faster start. C. To lower ITT (cooler start). D. To overcome propeller drag.

64. During flight, if the condition lever is moved to STOP, the propeller will: A. Overspeed to the HTG limit. B. Go to the secondary low pitch stop at 12°. C. Windmill in proportion to airspeed and altitude. D. Go to the full feather position.

65. On the ground, if the condition lever is moved to STOP, the propeller will: A. Assume a full reverse position. B. Remain at last assumed blade angle. C. Stop on a 20° blade angle. D. Go to the full feather position.

66. The maximum observed ITT for engine starting is: A. 700°C. B. 1.090°C. C. 685°C. D. 660°C.

67. If oil pressure decreases below 40 psi during flight, the correct action is: A. Secure the engine and land as soon as possible. B. Continue to destination at reduced power. C. No action is required if NG is greater than 68%. D. Report as an engine discrepancy after completing the flight.

68. The maximum observed ITT during full reverse thrust for the II XL model is: A. 700°C. B. 1.090°C. C. 805°C. D. 750°C.

69. The maximum torque setting for takeoff for the II XL model is: A. 1.484 ft-lb. B. 1.714 ft-lb. C. 1.194 ft-lb. D. 1.500 ft-lb.

70. The maximum shaft horsepower developed at full reverse thrust is limited to: A. 200. B. 455. C. 620. D. 500.

71. Illumination of the Ignition light indicates: A. The igniters are operating. B. The exciter box is operating. C. Electrical power is available to the exciter box. D. All the above are correct.

72. The air supply for pneumatic requirements on Cheyenne, Il, Il XL, and Tl 040 airplanes is supplied from: A. An engine-driven compressor. B. A ram-air turbine. C. A bleed port on the engine compressor. D. Cabin blowers.

73. The deice pneumatic pressure gage should normally read: A. 5.5 psi. B. 18 psi. C. 20 psi. D. 21 psi.

74. (Answer for your model airplane) Bleed-air shutoff valve are: A. Provided on the Cheyenne I, II, and T1040. B. Not provided on the Cheyenne I, II, and T1040. C. Provided on the Cheyenne II XL. D. Not provided on the Cheyenne II XL.

75. If the airplane is equipped with a semi-automatic pressurization controller, the blue ASCEND-DESCEND lights indicate, when on, that the: A. System is operating in the positive differential mode. B. Cabin altitude is changing as determined by the position of the ASCEND-DESCEND switch. C. Electrical power to the controller has failed. D. System is operating in the negative differential mode.

76. If the DC power supply to the Dukes pressurization controller fails: A. The cabin will depressurize rapidly. B. The cabin pressure will increase. C. The cabin altitude will fluctuate rapidly. D. The airplane must be depressurized manually during descent.

77. The maximum cabin-to-atmosphere differential relief valve setting for the Garrett pressurization system is: A. 6.5 psi. B. 6.7 psi. C. 5.5 psi. D. 5.6 psi.

78. The cabin may be depressurized by: A. Pulling the PRESS CONT (door seal) circuit breaker. B. Lifting the emergency gear extension cover. C. Selecting a cabin altitude equal to the airplane altitude. D. All the above.

79. All landing gear uplock and down lock mechanisms are engaged/disengaged by motion derived from: A. Spring bungees. B. Gear hydraulic actuators. C. Air load. D. All the above.

80. Landing gear shock struts should be serviced to approximately 3.25 inches strut extension with: A. Full fuel and oil aboard the airplane empty. B. No fuel and oil aboard and the airplane fully loaded. C. Full fuel and oil aboard and the airplane fully loaded. D. Any load configuration.

81. Placing the LANDING GEAR lever in the up position: A. Mechanically positions the landing gear selector valve for retraction. B. Blocks bypass flow back through the system, creating hydraulic pressure. C. Electrically positions the door selector valve for door opening. D. Both A and B.

82. When the landing gear reaches the fully extended position, the LANDING GEAR lever: A. Remains in the DN position and pump output bypasses. B. Return to the down neutral position and the pump continues to maintain pressure in the landing system. C. Returns to the down neutral position and pump output bypasses. D. Remains in the DN position and pump output bypasses.

83. With the landing gear in transit to the retracted position, position light indication will be: A. Three green lights on until all gear are up and locked. B. All four lights out. C. Three green lights out and the red light on. D. Three green lights and the red light on.

84. When an engine is started, proper operation of the engine-driven hydraulic pump can by checked by: A. Observing the pressure gage. B. Moving the LANDING GEAR lever to the DN position and observing. C. Moving the LANDING GEAR lever to the UP position and observing lever return to the up neutral position. D. None of the above.

85. Emergency extension of the landing gear with the hand pump is provided on: A. Cheyenne IIXL and T1040 airplanes only. B. All Cheyenne and T1040 airplanes. C. Cheyenne I and II only. D. Cheyenne I only.

86. The nose gear: A. Is steerable through a total arc of 28° with rudder and 80° arc with brakes and differential power. B. Will caster when turned beyond 40° to one side. C. Will not turn beyond 14° to one side. D. May be turn up to 50° beyond the tow turn limits marked on the upper strut housing.

87. Nosewheel steering is: A. Hydraulically actuated. B. Mechanically actuated. C. Disengaged in flight. D. Both B and C.

88. To set the parking brakes: A. Apply the brakes and gentry pull the PARKING BRAKE handle. B. Apply the brakes and pull very hard on the PARKING BRAKE handle. C. Pell the PARKING BRAKE handle. D. Apply the brakes and push the PARKING BRAKE handle in.

89. Pitch stability is improved by: A. Electric elevator trim. B. Elevator trim tab. C. A bobweight attached to the control column. D. A movable horizontal stabilizer.

90. Control coordination during normal turns is improved by: A. A spring and cable arrangement interconnecting the rudder and the ailerons. B. A cable interconnecting the flaps. C. A rudder/elevator interconnect. D. An elevator/aileron interconnect.

91. When trimming the elevator electrically. A. Tab position is not indicated. B. Tab position is shown on the scale adjacent to the elevator trim wheel. C. The pilot can override the copilot´s trim inputs. D. B and C are both correct.

92. Concerning the electric elevator trim system: A. Either element of the trim switch on a control wheel will actuate elevator trim. B. Both elements of a trim switch must be moved simultaneously to achieve trim. C. Copilot inputs override pilot inputs. D. None of the above are correct.

93. Runaway electric elevator trim can be controlled by: A. Depressing the red TRIM INTERUPT button on the control wheel and pulling the ELEC TRIM circuit breaker. B. Releasing the control wheel trim switch. C. Trimming in the opposite direction with the trim switch on the opposite control wheel. D. Any of the above.

94. A flap annunciator light is provided on: A. Airplane with de Dukes flap system. B. Airplanes with the Calco flap system. C. Airplanes with either the Dukes or the Calco system. D. Some airplanes with the Dukes flap system.

95. Illumination of the FLAP annunciator light indicates: A. Flap asymmetry. B. DC power failure to the flap system. C. Flap motor failure. D. All of the above.

96. The SAS servo actuator: A. Adjusts elevator down spring tension as required. B. Actuates the elevator trim tabs to maintain longitudinal stability. C. Is controlled by the SAS computer. D. A and C are both correct.

97. The SAS override system: A. Is hydraulically actuated. B. Is electrically actuated. C. Is pneumatically actuated. D. Automatically actuates during high angles of attack.

98. Angle-of-attack information to the SAS computer is provided by: A. A stall warning vane in the wing landing edge. B. Static pressure. C. Pitot pressure. D. An angle-of-attack sensing vane in the airstream.

99. The pitot and static system supplies dynamic and/or static air pressure for operation of the: A. Airspeed indicator. B. Vertical velocity. C. Altimeter. D. All of the above.

100. The autopilot may be engaged: A. Anytime power is on the airplane. B. Before the flight director mode is Engaged. C. After the flight director mode is engaged. D. Only after the flight director and NAV modes are engaged.

101. The autopilot controls the airplane using commands generated by the flight director when the: A. Autopilot is engaged, but not coupled to the flight director. B. Autopilot is engaged and coupled to the flight director. C. Flight director only is engaged. D. Autopilot is engaged and coupled to the ADC.

102. The basic attitude reference or gyro mode is energized when: A. Power is applied to the system. B. The flight director button is depressed. C. Any operational mode is selected. D. The PNI test button is depressed.

103. Operation of the autopilot on the ground: A. Is impossible; it will not engage. B. Will cause serious damage to the System. C. Is possible only when the flight director is off. D. May cause the auto trim to run.

104. Prior to autopilot engagement, the pilot should make sure that: A. The flight director is off. B. The V-bar commands are satisfied. C. The airplane is straight and level. D. All the above are correct.

105. The static wicks are important because they: A. Collect static electricity. B. Function as an aerodynamic aid. C. Dissipate lightning strikes. D. Dissipate static electricity.

106. The fully serviced oxygen cylinder pressure at 70°F is: A. 1.800 psi. B. 3.000 psi. C. 200 psi. D. 2.000 psi.

107. The oxygen pressure gage reads: A. Directs system low pressure. B. Electrically derived system low pressure. C. Direct system high pressure. D. Electrically derived system high pressure.

108. The oxygen system is activated by: A. Automatic controls at 10.000 feet cabin altitude. B. Manually positioning the oxygen control knob to on. C. The N-100% selector. D. The EMERGENCY/ON handle.

109. The constant-flow masks deliver oxygen: A. At all times when the system is activated, and the masks is plugged in / lan yard pulled. B. Upon inhalation only when the system is activated, and the mask is plugged in/lanyard pulled. C. When the system is activated, and the mask is removed from the stowage container. D. When the regulator switch is positioned to AUTO.