PR0P3

Which diagnostic technique is most useful to evaluate spleen size and parenchyma?: Endoscopy. Electrocardiography. Ultrasonography. Otoscopy.

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of lymph node enlargement?: Infectious diseases. Immune-mediated diseases. Diabetes mellitus. Cancer (lymphoma).

Adherence of lymph nodes to surrounding tissue suggests: Benign hyperplasia. Neoplasia or severe inflammation. Normal variation. Nutritional disease.

What does a body condition score of 9/9 indicate?: Emaciation. Ideal. Moderate overweight. Obesity with massive fat deposits.

What is the most common cause of external lymphadenopathy in dogs?: Neoplastic disease. Parasitic infection. Skin diseases. Allergic reactions.

Chronic inflammatory lymph nodes are typically: Firm, fibrotic, sometimes adherent to surrounding tissue. Extremely painful and soft. Always malignant. Not palpable.

An otoscope is used to examine: External ear canal and tympanic membrane. Eye lens. Heart valves. Larynx.

Which of the following is commonly assessed during distant examination?: Posture and gait. Liver size. Kidney consistency. Cardiac valve sounds.

Greyhounds with an ideal BCS may have body fat percentage around: 7%. 20%. 30%. 50%.

Which protozoal parasite may be detected in lymph node aspirates?: Leishmania spp. Babesia spp. Toxoplasma gondii. Giardia spp.

An ophthalmoscope is used to examine: Interior structures of the eye. Ear canal. Oral cavity. Nasal passages.

Sterilisation is defined as: Complete destruction of all forms of microbial life including spores. Reduction of microbial load on living tissue. Cleaning visible dirt. Elimination of viruses only.

What is the normal resting heart rate of an adult horse?: 28–44 beats per minute. 60–100 beats per minute. 100–140 beats per minute. 10–20 beats per minute.

What is the most essential nutrient for all animals?: Water. Protein. Fat. Carbohydrate.

Which is an early sign of feline fear?: Flattened ears and mydriasis. Licking paws. Rubbing owner. Soft purring.

Ballottement technique helps detect: Intestinal motility. Floating viscera. Pulmonary sounds. Neurologic reflexes.

Chemical restraint should be considered when: Safe handling is compromised. Always with puppies. Never with horses. To replace exam.

During horse exam, handler and examiner should: Stand on opposite sides. Same side. One in front, one behind. Rotate randomly.

Used needles and sharps should be disposed of in: Approved puncture-resistant sharps containers. Regular trash bins. Plastic bags. Glass bottles.

Which BCS category corresponds to a dog with ribs difficult to palpate and slight abdominal distension?: 1/9. 5/9. 7/9. 9/9.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?: Immune surveillance. Iron recycling. Platelet storage. Insulin secretion.

Which cytological feature is most consistent with lymphoma?: Predominance of large lymphoblasts with prominent nucleoli. Mixture of small lymphocytes and macrophages. Abundant neutrophils. Predominantly plasma cells.

Main disadvantage of muzzle use in dogs is: Cannot smell. Risk of dyspnea and overheating. Blocks hearing. Causes blindness.

In cats, enlarged lymph nodes are most often due to: Inflammatory disease. Neoplasia. Hematologic disease. Parasites.

Best side to approach a horse is: Right side. Front. Left side (near). Behind.

Which factor is most important for obtaining a good quality lymph node aspirate?: Avoiding blood contamination. Using the largest possible needle. Applying maximal suction. Breaking the capsule intentionally.

Why is nutritional assessment important in hospitalised patients?: Poor nutrition negatively affects healing and recovery. It helps improve hair coat colour. It reduces vaccine needs. It eliminates the need for antibiotics.

During blood collection in dogs, the assistant should: Hold the dog firmly while keeping the vein accessible. Distract the dog with food. Close the dog's mouth with tape. Lie the dog on its back.

Protective masks are mainly used to: Reduce risk of inhaling infectious aerosols. Improve communication. Facilitate palpation. Reduce ambient noise.

The purpose of palpation is to assess: Consistency, size, shape, and sensitivity of tissues. Visual symmetry. Heart sounds. Reflex responses.

Superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain mainly: Caudal mammary glands, prepuce, scrotum and ventral abdominal wall. Thoracic limbs. Head and neck. Lungs.

Which dietary modification is often recommended for senior dogs?: Reduced caloric intake with adequate protein. High fat and low protein diet. Excessive calcium supplementation. No dietary adjustment needed.

What is the function of a reflex hammer?: Testing deep tendon reflexes. Measuring pulse. Performing auscultation. Inspecting mucous membranes.

The main goal of biosecurity in veterinary hospitals is: Prevent transmission of infectious agents between animals and humans. Improve hospital decoration. Replace vaccination. Increase number of patients.

What is the typical cytological finding of leishmaniasis in lymph nodes?: Macrophages containing amastigotes. Clusters of carcinoma cells. Abundant eosinophils. Necrotic debris alone.

Which clinical sign is commonly associated with splenomegaly?: Abdominal enlargement and palpable mass. Coughing. Epistaxis. Lameness.

In veterinary clinical examination, the acronym BAR means: Bright, Alert and Responsive. Balanced, Active and Reactive. Brisk, Aware and Ready. Basic, Attentive and Reliable.

Which of the following belongs to special examination techniques?: Endoscopy. Percussion. Inspection. Palpation.

Suppurative lymphadenitis cytology shows: Abundant neutrophils, often degenerate. Clusters of epithelial cells. Mixture of plasma cells. Predominantly eosinophils.

Which is NOT a classical method of physical examination?: Inspection. Palpation. Persussion. Endoscopy.

Viral infections in lymph nodes often cause: Lymphoid depletion with reduced cell populations. Abundant neutrophilic infiltrate. Clusters of epithelial cells. Presence of fungal spores.

In the evaluation of mental status, 'coma' refers to: Normal alertness. Exaggerated response to stimuli. Response only to painful stimuli. Complete lack of response.

What is the normal resting respiratory rate of an adult horse?: 8-16 breaths per minute. 20-40 breaths per minute. 30-50 breaths per minute. 40-60 breaths per minute.

The safest position when examining a horse is: Standing close to the shoulder. Directly behind the hindquarters. Far away at the flank. Lying under the abdomen.

Which of the following signs indicates a fearful or aggressive cat?: Purring softly. Ears back and hissing. Rubbing against the owner. Kneading with front paws.

Eosinophil-rich lymph node cytology is associated with: Parasitic or allergic diseases. Fungal infections. Metastatic carcinoma. Normal response.

An emphysematous palpation finding indicates: Presence of fluid in tissue. Presence of air or gas producing crepitation. Inflammation. Normal muscle tone.

Abundant plasma cells in lymph node cytology may indicate: Chronic antigenic stimulation. Acute suppurative inflammation. Lymphoma. Normal finding in all dogs.

Protective goggles are recommended during: Procedures with risk of splashes (e.g. dental scaling). Palpating lymph nodes. Auscultating the heart. Measuring temperature.

Which nutrient must be reduced in the diet of obese dogs?: Calories (fat and carbohydrates). Water. Protein. Fibre.

Which disease is strongly associated with obesity in cats?: Hepatic lipidosis. Otitis. Dermatitis. Conjunctivitis.

Rottweilers with an ideal BCS may have body fat percentage around: 7%. 32%. 20%. 50%.

Eosinophilic lymphadenitis is most often associated with: Parasitic or allergic conditions. Bacterial infections. Viral diseases. Congenital defects.

Reactive hyperplasia of lymph nodes is caused by: Antigenic stimulation such as infection or inflammation. Primary neoplasia. Congenital anomaly. Ischaemia.

Tactile percussion is used mainly to: Detect fluid wave in abdominal cavity. Assess lung resonance. Evaluate reflexes. Measure heart rate.

Lip chain in horses is mainly used in: Foals. Breefing stallions. Donkeys. Ponies.

What is the normal resting heart rate of goats?: 70-90 beats per minute. 20-40 beats per minute. 100-140 beats per minute. 40-60 beats per minute.

Which description corresponds to 'stupor' in mental status evaluation?: Normal bright alertness. No response except to painful stimuli. Exaggerated movements and frenzy. Convulsive activity.

Auscultation is mainly used for: Listening to heart, lungs, and intestinal sounds. Inspecting coat colour. Assessing reflexes. Evaluating tissue consistency.

Which of the following is NOT a classical method of clinical examination?: Inspection. Palpation. Percussion. Fluoroscopy.

What is the normal resting heart rate of sheep?: 70-90 beats per minute. 20-40 beats per minute. 100-140 beats per minute. 40-60 beats per minute.

Which part of the spleen is mainly responsible for blood filtration and erythrocyte removal?: Red pulp. White pulp. Capsule. Hilum.

Which is a limitation of fine needle aspiration of lymph nodes?: Lack of architectural information. Inability to detect neoplastic cells. Requires general anaesthesia. Always causes severe haemorrhage.

A dull percussion sound is typical of: Liver or heart. Lungs. Intestines with gas. Skin.

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic classification of enlarged lymph nodes?: Reactive hyperplasia. Lymphoma. Metastatic neoplasia. Hyperthyroidism.