Practica CAE

Which does ATC Term " Radar contact" signify?. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated. Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost. You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: Continue circling and wait for further instructions. The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling. Give way to other aircraft in emergency. The airport is unsafe, do not land.

An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than: 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter. 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter. 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter. 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.

When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case: The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan. Of an emergency. It is a deviation from the track. The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?. 2000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of course. 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course. 2000ft above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course. 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an " X" . This indicates: Need medical assistance. None of the other options. Need Food and Water. Need mechanical assistance.

4mm of rain is covering a runway. It is: Wet. Damp. Flooded. Contaminated.

On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the: Equator. North and south limits of the chart. Standard parallels. Parallel of origin.

On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5° apart along latitude 37°North is 9cm. The scale of the chart at the parallel approximates: 5 000 000. 3 750 000. 2 000 000. 6 000 000.

The earth may be referred to as: A globe. Round. An oblate spheroid. Elliptical.

The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is. Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field. Inversely proportional to the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field. Proportional to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field. Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.

An accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500psi. The accumulator gauge will read: 1500psi. 500psi. 1000psi. 2500psi.

On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45° North, a certain length represents 70NM. At latitude 30° North, the same length represents approximately: 86NM. 57NM. 81NM. 70NM.

Given: True track is 348°, drift 17° left, variation 32°W, deviation 4°E. What is the compass heading?. 033°. 007°. 359°. 337°.

Safety is often improved by applying the principles of CRM, e.g.: Abstention from any suggestion which might be untimely. Expression of one's doubts or different opinion for as long as this doubt cannot be rejected on the base of evidence. Unquestioned obedience to all the Captain's decisions. The avoidance of any conflict in order to preserve the crew's synergy.

Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli: Carbon dioxide. Oxygen. Nitrogen. Carbon monoxide.

The following actions are appropriate when faced with symptoms of decompression sickness: 1. Climb to higher level 2. descend to the higher of 10,000ft or MSA and land as soon as possible 3. breathe 100% oxygen 4. get medical advice about recompression after landing. 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 3. 1, 4. 1, 3.

What is understood by airsickness?. An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear. An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the blood. A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea, vomiting and dizziness. An illness caused by reduced air pressure.

The metabolism of alcohol: Can be accelerated even more by coffee. Is quicker when used to it. Can be influenced by easy to get medication. Is a question of time.

During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to overcome illusions is the: Visual sense by looking outside. "Seat-of-the-pants-Sense". Visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator. Vestibular sense.

A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to: Read a little low. React like an altimeter. Read a little high. Freeze at zero.

The atmosphere is heated primarily by: The sun's insolation. Shortwave terrestrial radiation from the earth. Long wave terrestrial radiation released by the earth. Earth bound electromagnetic radiation.

The purpose of the Annunciator unit of the Remote Indicating compass is to: Advise if the gyro is subject to excessive wander. Display the serviceability of the compass. Show whether the compass is operating either in the GYRO or COMPASS mode. Indicate that the gyro is synchronised with the detector unit.

The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400MHz is the: High altitude radio altimeter. Radio altimeter. Weather radar. Primary radar.

A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with: 1 degree of freedom. 0 degree of freedom. 2 degrees of freedom. 3 degrees of freedom.

In flight, when the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is: Turning left with too much bank. Turning right with not enough bank. Turning left with not enough bank. Turning right with too much bank.

When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will: Decrease. Remain constant. Increase at a linear rate. Increase at an exponential rate.

In the following METAR: METAR YUDO 1630Z 24015KMH 0600 R12/1000U FG DZ SCT010 17/16 Q1018: W/V is 240 deg (T) at 15 kilometres per hour, cloud is 4/8 at 100 ft, QNH is 1018 hPa. W/V is 240 deg (M) at 15 kt, runway visual range at touchdown on R/W 12 is 1000m showing a tendency to improve in the last 10 minutes, dewpoint is +16 deg C. W/V is 240 (T) at 15 kilometres per hour, airfield visibility is 600m, runway visual range at touchdown in R/W 12 is 1000m showing a tendency to improve in the last 10 minutes, QNH is 1018 hPa. Airfield visibility is 600m, runway visual range is a maximum of 1000m on touchdown on R/W 12, weather is fog and drizzle.

Refer to the following TAF extract; BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001. What does the abbreviation PROB30 mean?. The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT. Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes. Probability of 30%. Change expected in less than 30 minutes.

During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Agatti (QNH 1016 hPa) to Kochi (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this?. One of the QNH values must be wrong. The air at Kochi is warmer than that at Agatti. The altimeter is faulty. The air at Agatti is warmer than that at Kochi.

When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of water will experience wind: From the land in daytime and from the water at night. From the water in daytime and from the land at night. Continually from water to the land. Continually from land to water.

Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 4781 FT pressure level (FL50). 300 hPa. 700 hPa. 500 hPa. 850 hPa.

Which of the following statements is correct?. VTH is the maximum speed for setting approach flaps. VTH is the correct touchdown speed. VTH is the correct speed when crossing the Runway threshold. VTH is the maximum speed for an aborted takeoff.

The rate of climb: Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed. Is approximately climb gradient multiplied by true airspeed divided by 100. Is angle of climb multiplied by true airspeed. Is the downhill component of the true airspeed.

A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires: More thrust and a lower coefficient of drag. A higher coefficient of lift. Less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. More thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.

The critical engine inoperative: Does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant. Increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect. Decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine. Increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.

The C of G is: The point on the aircraft through which gravity appears to act. The point on the aircraft where the lift acts through. The point on the aircraft from where the dihedral angle is measured. The point on the aircraft where the datum is located.

A frangible obstacle is classed as: An obstruction in the take off path that is a minimum hazard to an aircraft. An obstruction that must be removed from any part of the manoeuvring. An obstruction in the take off path that limits the length of the stopway. An obstruction that must be taken into account for performance calculations.

Weight acts: Parallel to the gravitational force. Perpendicular to the relative airflow. perpendicular to the chord line. Perpendicular to the longitudinal axis.

Bernoulli’ s equation states that: Dynamic pressure equals stagnation pressure. The sum of static pressure and dynamic pressure is equal to stagnation pressure. Static pressure equals stagnation pressure. The sum of centre of pressure and dynamic pressure is total pressure.

Lateral stability can be increased using: Wing dihedral. Spoilers. Frise ailerons. Wing anhedral.

The direction of drag is: Perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. Parallel to longitudinal axis of the aircraft. Parallel to the free stream airflow. Perpendicular to the free stream airflow.

The formula for the Mach Number is?. M= TAS / Speed of Sound. M= IAS / Speed of Sound. M= TAS* Speed of Sound. M= Speed of Sound / TAS.

Which of the following devices is used to counter adverse yaw on rolling into or out of a turn?. A dorsal fin. Vortex generators. A yaw damper. Differential ailerons.

On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight will be shown: Squawk code, Magnetic heading , Ground speed, Airplane callsign. Destination, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign. Squawk code, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign. Squawk code, Flight level , True heading, Airplane callsign.

Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is: 6. 4. 3. 5.

An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because: DME transmits twin pulses. They are not on the receiver frequency. DME uses the UHF band. The pulse recurrence rates are varied.

The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates: Transponder malfunction. Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight. An emergency. Radio communication failure.

The indicator of the ground VDF equipment responds to: The identification transmitted from the aircraft. The voice modulated signal transmitted by the aircraft. The carrier wave received. The signal being reflected from the aircraft.

Which of the following does NOT affect the accuracy of VDF bearings: Ground reflections. Sky waves. Duct propagation. Synchronous transmissions.

Given: VS = Stalling speed [Br] VMCA = Air minimuum control speed VMU = Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure) V1 = Take-off decision speed VR = Rotation Speed V2min = Minimum take-off safety speed VLOF = lift-off speed The correct formula is: VS < VMCA < V2min. VR < VMCA < VLOF. V2min < VMCA < VMU. VMU < VMCA < V1.

In the following METAR CYKF 271617Z AUTO 24009KT 220V280 6SM -SN BKN014 BKN019 BKN039 OVC048 M03/M05 A2982 RMK SLP115= The above SPECI has winds that vary from ____ degrees true to _____ degrees. A Variation in wind direction is only provided when the wind varies from _____ degrees or more: 271, 617, 30. 220, 280, 30. 220, 280, 60. 024, 009, 60.

An aircraft flying into the territory of the DC FRZ and DC SFRA must. Comply with ATC instructions. For VFR flight within 60NM, complete the FAA on-line ADIZ traning course. Follow the rules of the Air Defence Identifications Zones. Follow the rules of the TFR.

On a Sectional chart, a thin line with "VR259" in black block letters indicates. A Victor Airway. an IFR Military Training Route below 1500 AGL. a GPS only IFR route. a VFR Military Training Route below 1500 AGL.

The effect of a headwind is to??? the climb gradient and to ?? the rate of climb. Not affect, increase. increase, not affect. decrease, increase. increase, decrease.

The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The presure in the aneroide capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively: (i) static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t-t. (i) static pressure (ii) total pressure. (i) total pressure (ii) static pressure. (i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure.

Which of the following procedures must be adopted on a flight under IFR conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver the position fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of conventional navigation system by an unacceptable amount?. The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off the faulty system. It must be continued under VFR conditions. It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next flight all systems must be checked. It may be continued using conventional navigation systems.

Contact Approaches: Require at least 3 SM flight visibility. Can only be initiated by pilot request. May be requested by the pilot to an airfield without an Instrument Approach Procedure. May be issued to the aircraft by ATC upon entering the Terminal Control Area.

Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall. Straight wings and a T-tail. Swept back wings and a T-tail. Straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines. Swept back wings and wing mounted engines.

Stalling speed in a 15 degrees bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45 degrees bank level turn will be. 70 kts. 60 kts. 85 kts. 83 kts.

The purpose of the horizontal stabilizer is to. Give the airplane sufficient directional stability. Give the airplane enough weight in the tail. Give the airplane sufficient lateral stability. Give the airplane sufficient longitudinal stability.

For small multiengine aircraft weighing less than 6000 lbs a (light twin): the single-engine rate of climb simply cannot be a negative number. the single-engine rate of climb must be 50FPM or greater. the single-engine rate of climb at 5,000 MSL must be determined. the single-engine rate of climb gradient must be 1.43% at 5,000 MSL.

Which of the following statements is correct?. VR occurs before VLOF. VS is a very specific airspeed. VLE is the maximum airspeed at which the landing gear may be extended or retracted. VNE occurs before VNO.

Reduced vertical separation minima (rvsm). Can only be flown by registered Air Carriers operating under FAR 121 OpSpecs. Requires that aircraft operators (airlines or corporate operators) must receive approval from the aircraft's state of registry to conduct operations in RVSM airspace. Are required for flight above FL290. May only be flown by aircraft with specially certified altimeters in a Crew Resource Management (CRM) environment.

As an airplane using gps moves through the enroute. Terminal and approaches phases of the flight GPS required navigational performance (RNP) standar levels are. +/-2NM, +/-1NM, +/-0.3NM. +/-2NM, +/-1NM, +/-0.1NM. +/-2NM, +/-0.5NM, +/-0.1NM. +/-5NM, +/-3NM, +/-1NM.

Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is. 5. 4. 3. 6.

During a flight over the sea at FL 135 the True Altitude is 13'500 ft: local QNH is 30.09 In. What information, if any, can be gaines about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ?. It is warmer tha ISA. Its average temperature is the same as ISA. There is insufficient informacion to make any assumption. It is colder tha ISA.

Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 4781 FT pressure level (FL50). 525 mmHg. 375 mmHg. 225 mmHg. 637 mmHg.

Which would normally be the longest possible distance: TODA. TORA. LDA. ASDA.

Two factors which contribute to the formation of radiation fog are. A high relative humidity and no wind. A high relative humidity and clear night skies. A light wind (5 to 8 knots) and good cloud cover. Clear night skies and a low relative humidity.

You are departing an airport (Altimeter setting 29.88) and proceed to another airfield (195ft AMSL) with the same altimeter setting. After landing, which barometric setting on the altimeter makes it again indicate 500ft. 29.29. 30.57. 30.32. 29.44.

What positions are connected by contour lines on a weather chart?. Positions with the same air density. Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels. Positions with the same wind velocity. Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure.

What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 m?. 8 m (27'). 15 m (50'). 64 m (210'). 32 m (105').

In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?. Temperature at the airfield. Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL. Elevation of the airfield. Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.

What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?. Positions with the same air pressure at a given level. Positions with the same relative pressure heights. Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level. Positions with the same temperature at a given level.

The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure. Reduced to sea level. At a determined density altitude. At height of observatory. At flight level.

The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: QFF. QNH. QFE. QNE.

The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?. 1016 hPa. Less than 1016 hPa. More than 1016 hPa. It is not possible to give a definitive answer.

The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?. More than 1016 hPa. 1016 hPa. Less than 1016 hPa. It is not possible to give a definitive answer.

The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?. 1009 hPa. Less than 1009 hPa. More than 1009 hPa. It is not possible to give a definitive answer.

The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?. More than 1022 hPa. 1022 hPa. It is not possible to give a definitive answer. Less than 1022 hPa.

The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available.What is the QFF?. Less than 1022 hPa. More than 1022 hPa. 1022 hPa. It is not possible to give a definitive answer.

Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB?. Between -20° C and -30° C. Between -2° C and -15° C. Between -30° C and -40° C. Close to the freezing level.

The scheduled landing distance required is the distance: From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft has decelerated to a speed of 20kts. From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft has come to a complete stop. From a screen of a designated height to the point at which the aircraft has come to a complete stop. From the point at which the aircraft is 50 metres above the runway to the point at which the aircraft has come to a complete stop.

Which of the following statements is correct?. Gross take-off distance is less than net take-off distance. Gross acceleration is net acceleration minus 9.81m/s2. Gross landing distance is greater than net landing distance. Gross gradient is less than net gradient.

VLO is defined as: Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground. The maximum speed for landing gear operation. The long range cruise speed. Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground.

The speed VS is defined as. speed for best specific range. stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controll. design stress speed. safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.

Gross performance is: The minimum performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual. The maximum performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual. 65 percent of net performance. The average performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual.

Density altitude is the: Height above the surface. Pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature. Altitude read directly from the altimeter. Altitude reference to the standard datum plane.

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?. When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter. At standard temperature. When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg. When the altimeter setting is 1013" Hg.

Pressure altitude is: The altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub-scale. The altimeter indication when QNH is set on the sub-scale. The altimeter indication when 1013.25 Hpa is set on the sub-scale. The altitude above sea level.

The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of: True airspeed to rate of climb. Rate of climb to true airspeed. The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage. The increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.

Which of the equations below expresses approximately the un-accelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100. Climb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100.

The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as. VSO. VMC. VS1. VS.

What are the standard temperature and pressure values at sea level?. 59 degrees Fahrenheit and 29.92 millibars. 15 degrees Celsius and 1013.25 hPa. 59 degrees Celsius and 1013.2 millibars. 0 degrees Celsius and 1013 hPa.

The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by. increasing the CAS. Increasing the TAS. increasing the angle of attack. decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting.

The absolute ceiling is defined as: The outer boundary of our galaxy. The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0 ft/minute. The altitude where the rate of climb is maximum. The altitude where a certain maximum rate of climb (e.g. 100 ft/min) is attained.

Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off. Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off. Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface. Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).

For a single engine class B aeroplane, V2 may not be less than: 1.2Vs. not applicable. 1.15Vs. 1.5Vs.

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?. 59° F and 29.92 millibars. 0° C and 1013.2 bar. 59° C and 1013.2 millibars. 15° C and 29.92" Hg.

Fog and cloud formation takes place by: Evaporation. Condensation. None of the above. Sublimation.

What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?. -25° C. -55° C. -35° C. -75° C.

You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shortly before an active cold front passes. What does the altimeter indicate?. It is not affected by a pressure change. It decreases. It increases. The pressure changes are very small and therefore, there is no visible change of the indication.

You intend to overfly a mountain ridge at an altitude of 15000 ft AMSL. The average air temperature is 15° C lower than ISA, the sea level pressure 1003 hPa. Which altimeter indication (standard setting) is needed?. 16170 ft. 14370 ft. 15630 ft. 13830 ft.

The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on: relative humidity. stability of air. air temperature. dew point.

The percent by volume of the gases to be found in the atmosphere is distributed according to size as follows: more nitrogen than oxygen. less nitrogen than water vapour. more oxygen than nitrogen. Less oxygen than carbon dioxide.

Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called: Isobars. Barometric. Isogonic lines. Agonic.

You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shortly after an active cold front has passed. What does the altimeter indicate?. It decreases. The pressure changes are very small and therefore, there is no visible change of the indication. It increases. It is not affected by a pressure change.

The temperature gradient in the international standard atmosphere (ISA) is: 1° C/100m. 0.65° C/100m. 0,5° C/100m. 0,6° C/100m.

How does the level of the tropopause vary with latitude in the Northern Hemisphere?. It varies with longitude not latitude. Decreases North - South. Decreases South - North. Constant.

Where is the ozone layer?. Ionosphere. Stratosphere. Troposphere. Tropopause.

The troposphere is deepest: the same all over the earth. near the equator. over the poles in summer. near the poles.

What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earths weather?. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas. Variation of solar energy at the Earths surface. None of the above. Changes in air pressure over the Earths surface.

Given a surface temperature of +10° C, and a dew point of +5° C, at what height might you expect cumulus clouds to form: 1000 ft. 6000 ft. 4000 ft. 2000 ft.

In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated?. Troposphere. Stratosphere. Stratopause. Tropopause.

The pressure at sea level in the ISA is: 1013.25 hPa. 1012.35 hPa. 1025.13 hPa. 29,95 in Hg.

You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft while a cold front passes the airport. What does the altimeter indicate?. The pressure changes are very small and therefore, there is no visible change of the indication. It first decreases and then increases. It first increases and then decreases. It is not affected by a pressure change.

In a cold air advection wind blows towards warmer air and causes: Strong wind forces. A veering. No wind at all. A backing.

As a parcel of air warms, its ability to hold water vapour: Remains unaltered. Unable to say - it also depends on the pressure. Decreases. Increases.