Practicar URG

When flying in the rain and an air temperature of 1°C, a pilot should. not expect icing until the air temperature is 0°C or less. Use autopilot in icing to decrease the work load. be aware of the possibility of airframe icing.

Which initial flight deck indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant headwind shears to a calm wind?. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.

How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?. Ambient temperature lapse rate. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.

Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown. Which characteristics should be observed when a tailwind shears to a constant headwind?. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increase. VERTICAL SPEED: Increase. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, the increases to approach speed. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increase. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Increase, then decreases. PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, the increases to approach speed.

What is indicated by the following report? TYR UUA/OV TYR180015/TM 1757/FL310/TP B737/TB MOD-SEV CAT 350-390. An urgent pilot report fro moderate to severe clear air turbulence. A routine pilot report for overcast conditions from flight levels 350-390. A special METAR issued on the 18th day of the month at 1757Z.

Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?. Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly. Change course to fly on the polar side of the jetstream. Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.

What is indicated by the term 'embedded thunderstorms'?. Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass. Thunderstorms are obscured by other type of clouds.

Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds?. Clear ice. Frost ice. Rime ice.

What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?. Occasional light chop. Moderate chop. Intermittent light turbulence.

Which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?. A straight jetstream associated with a high pressure ridge. A jetstream associated with a wide isotherm spacing. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.

What sources reflect the most accurate information on current and forecast icing conditions?. Low-Level Sig Weather Prop Chart, RADATs, and the Area Forecast. PIREPs, Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart. AIRMET Zulu.

Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?. Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front. Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream. Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream.

Which weather condition is present when the tropical storm is upgraded to a hurricane?. Highest windspeed, 100 knots or more. A clear area or hurricane eye has formed. Sustained winds of 65 knots or more.

The threshold wind speed in the jet stream for clear air turbulence is generally considered to be. 100 Kts. 110 Kts. 120 Kts.

(Refer to Figure 148.) Which system in the Convective SIGMET listing has the potential of producing the most severe storm?. The storm in Texas and Oklahoma. The storms in Colorado, Kansas, and Oklahoma. The isolated storm 50 miles northeast of Memphis (MEM).

(Refer to Figure 146.) What method was used to obtain the METAR at Tyler (KTYR) at 1753Z?. Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS), having a precipitation discriminator. Automatic Meterological Observing Station (AMOS), with precipitation discriminator. Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS), without a precipitation discriminator.

Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?. Loss of, or diminished, air speed performance. Decreased takeoff distance. Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.

(Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?. Strong tailwind. Strong updraft. Significant performance increase.

Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?. Decreased stall speed. Decreased pitchup tendencies. Decreased angle of attack for stall.

A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft to be 280° at 205 knots; temperature -51°C at FL390. How would this data be encoded in the FB?. 7800-51. 789951. 280051.

Even a small amount of frost, ice, or snow may. increase takeoff performance. hinder lift production to a point where takeoff will be impossible. decrease takeoff ground run.

What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?. Cloud bases form. Precipitation starts. Stable air changes to unstable air.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for a DSM LIT SHV flight at 12,000 feet?. Windspeed decreases. Temperature decreases. Wind direction shift from northwest to southeast.

(Refer to Figure 145.) What condition is reported at Dallas (KDAL)?. The tops of the overcast is 10,000 feet. Temperature/dewpoint spread is 8°F. Altimeter setting is 30.07.

You are planning to arrive at the KHOU airport at 0900Z, what conditions can be expected as indicated by this TAF: KHOU 151720Z 1518/1618 22009KT P6SM SCT030 SCT250 FM160000 18005KT P6SM BKN050 BKN120 FM160600 21007KT P6SM VCSH SCT025 BKN200 FM160900 34010KT P6SM VCTS BKN035CB BKN250 TEMPO 1611/1613 TSRA BKN012 OVC025CB FM161600 35007KT P6SM BKN020. Winds from the south blowing to the north as 10 knots. Thunderstorms activity 5 to 10 miles from the airport's runway complex. Rain showers, scattered clouds at 2,500 feet, and overcast at 20,000 feet.

What is a feature of supercooled water?. The water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0°C until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates.

A calm wind that is forecast, in the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), is encoded as. VRB00KT. 00000KT. 00003KT.

Clouds with extensive vertical development over mountainous terrain are a sign of. a dry adiabatic lapse rate. a table air mass. an unstable air mass.

Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing. provide ice protection during flight. are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only. on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff.

Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?. Heated Type I fluid followed by cold Tupe II fluid. Cold Type II fluid followed by hot Type II fluid. Heated Type I or II fluid followed by cold Type I fluid.

Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems?. Arctic only. Artic and subtropical. Subtropical only.

Large areas of land. tend to increase temperature variations. do not influence the troposhere. minimize temperature variations.

Volcanic Ash Advisory charts are updated every. 4 hours. 6 hours. 12 hours.

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2 deicing/anti-icing fluid?. 30 percent. 50 percent. 80 percent.

Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence?. Descend if ambient temperature is falling. Descend if ambient temperature is rising. Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing.

The tropopause is generally found when the free air temperatures are. between -55degC and -65degC. between -40degC and -55degC. colder than -60degC.

(Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 3?. Decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind. Strong downdraft.

Which INITIAL flight deck indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decreases. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decreases. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.

What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?. Rotor cloud. Standing lenticular. Low stratus.

Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur?. In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core. Below the jet core where a ling straight stretch of the jetstream is located. On the equatorial side of the jetstream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds.

The practice developed and accepted by the North American air carrier industry using traditional North American fluids is to ensure that the freeze point of the remaining film is below ambient temperature by at least. 10°F. 20°F. 20°C.

Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?. Altocumulus. Cumulonimbus. Stratocumulus.

What weather difference is found on each side of a 'dry line'?. Extreme temperature difference. Dewpoint difference. Stratus versus cumulus clouds.

You are planning a flight to the West Coast of the United States, which is currently below the published weather minimums for an ILS approach to that airport. Winds are forecast to increase to above 20 knots from the west at your scheduled arrival time. What weather conditions should you expect?. Visual meteorological conditions. Advection fog will deepen with winds above 20 knots. A layer of low stratus or stratocumulus is expected.

Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process?. Apply heated Type II fluid. Decrease the water content. Increase the viscosity of Type I fluid.

A strong wind shear can be expected. on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetsream core. where the horizontal wind shear is 15 knots, in a distance equal to 2.5° longitude. if the 5°C isotherms are spaces 100 NM or closer together.

What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two-phase process?. Hot. Warm. Cold.

What type turbulence should be reported when it causes changes in altitude and/or attitude more than two-thirds of the time, with the aircraft remaining in positive control at all times?. Continuous severe chop. Continuous moderate turbulence. Intermittent moderate turbulence.

(Refer to Figure 146.) What was the ceiling at Walnut Ridge (KARG)?. 1,000 feet AGL. 2,400 feet AGL. 1,000 feet MSL.

What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?. Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity. Thunderstorms may occur over the station and within 50 miles of the station. Thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 miles of the runway complex.

Which INITIAL flight deck indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases. Indicates airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, 'pitch to airspeed', and apply maximum power. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.

Precipitation induced fog. results from relatively warm rain or drizzle falling through cooler air. results from relatively cooler rain or drizzle falling through warmer air. is usually of short duration.

Which is a definition of 'severe wind shear'?. Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500ft/min. Any changes of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in excess of 100ft/min.

When you hear a SIGMET on an ATC frequency forecasting severe icing conditions on the route to your destination, you plan for. the installed transport category aircraft ice protection system protecting against all types and levels of icing as designed, 24 hours after the valid time. very little airframe icing because of an OAT of -10 degrees C or colder, the moisture is already frozen and cannot adhere to aircraft surface. the possibility of freezing rain and freezing drizzle that can accumulate on and beyond the limits of any deicing/anti-icing equipment.

What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?. Sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. Add 15 knots to the normal V(R) speed as the snow will blow off.

The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $. less than 1/4 statute mile. measured 1/4 statute mile. a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile.

Adiabatic warming is also described as. chronographic warming. expansional heating. compressional heating.

The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is. 18 knots or less. greater than 18 knots. not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor.

What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.

During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2,000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3°C. You decide to. use a faster than normal approach and landing speed. approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect. fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the 'wind chill' effect and break up the ice.

(Refer to Figure 144.) If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?. 4 and 5. 2 and 3. 3 and 4.

Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 150 NM apart. When constant pressure charts show 60-knots isotachs less than 20 NM apart. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.

In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?. Less power is required. Higher pitch attitude is required. Lower descent rate is required.

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. 1,500 ft/min. 4,500 ft/min. 6,500 ft/min.

A steady state thunderstorm is associated with. surface heating. weather systems. mature stage.

Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake?. Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog. Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog. Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What is the forecast temperature at ATL for the 3,000-foot level?. +6°C. +6°F. Not reported.

Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure. at the surface. reduced to sea level. at a given atmospheric pressure altitude.

Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters 'V(C).' When V(C) appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of. a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport. a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex. 10 miles of the station originating the forecast.

At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?. At the poles. Middle latitudes (30° to 60°). At the equator.

Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades. can increase performance and cuase stalls or surges. could cause FDP vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power. can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.

Which weather condition is defined as an anti-cyclone?. Calm. High pressure area. Col.

What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?. Establish a straight course across the storm area. Climb or descend to a smoother level. Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible.

Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?. Downdraft are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity. Downdrafts coverage toward a central location under the storm after striking the surface. Downdraft become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse into a updraft reaching the surface.

Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?. Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases. Wind direction shifts to the left. Atmospheric pressure increases.

Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog?. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind. A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100 percent relative humidity. Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to 25-knot wind moving the precipitation up the slope.

What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?. The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. There is a inversion with colder air below.

The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by. the hight of the tropopause. measuring the dry adiabatic lapse rate. cloud types and the type of precipitation.

Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?. Nimbostratus. Standing lenticular. Cirrocumulus.

Data that may be added (manual weather augmentation) to the Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) report is limited to. the precipitation accumulation report, an automated variable visibility, and wind direction remark. thunderstorms (intensity and direction), precipitation (type and intensity), and obstruction to visibility (dependent on the visibility being 3 miles or less). density altitude, NOTAMs, and reported slant range visibility.

Frozen dew is. white and opaque. hard and opaque. hard and transparent.

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?. A stable layer of air. An unstable layer of air. Air mass thunderstorms.

In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a variable wind direction is noted by 'VRB' where the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind appears in the TAF as. 0003KT. VRB00KT. 00000KT.

If a sample of air is forced upward and it is colder than the surrounding air, it. sinks until it reaches denser air. gets energy from surrounding air and remains in place. warms from the surrounding air and rises to expansion.

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes. One microburst may continue for as long as an hour. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?. Cumulus. Dissipating. Mature.

The symbol ($) at the end of the following METAR indicates that METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $. the latest information is transmitted over a discrete VHF frequency at KFSM. the latest information is broadcast on the voice portion of a local navaid at KFSM. maintenance is needed on the system.

What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?. It describes areas of probable sever icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours. It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours. It indicated areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 mb).

Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that. a climb can be made to a higher altitude encountering more than light icing. a layer of warmer air exists above. ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below.

What is a characteristic of the troposphere?. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.

What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?. 3°C per 1,000 feet. 2°C per 1,000 feet. 4°C per 1,000 feet.

Low pressure areas are areas of. stagnant air. descending air. ascending air.

You are approaching an airport to land in 20 minutes. The METAR reports temperature 10 degrees C, dew point 10 degrees C, winds 310/04, scattered clouds and rain. You expect. radiation fog. deepening fog. clearing conditions.

What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?. Latent heat is released to the atmosphere. Latent heat is transformed into pure energy. Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet.

The rate of decrease in wind speed from the jet stream core is considerably greater on the. equatorial side. polar side. acute angle side.

Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as. convective turbulence. high altitude turbulence. clear air turbulence.

Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. Sudden increase in a headwind component.

What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion?. The movement of a colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

Which of the following weather conditions are conducive to inflight icing?. Visible rain with temperature below 0 degrees C. Visible rain with temperature below 10 degrees C. Visible rain with temperature below 5 degrees C.

Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds?. Cumulonimbus mammatus. Standing lenticular. Stratocumulus.

What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?. Supercooled water drops. Water vapor. Visible water.

What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?. Beginning of rain at the surface. Frequent lightning. Continuous updraft.

Clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is. most commonly found in temperature between -40 and 50°C. most commonly found in the vicinity of the tropopause. similar to that associated with a tropical maritime front.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an STL MEM MSY flight at FL 330?. Windspeed decrease. Wind shift from west to north. Temperature increase 5°C.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for a DEN ICT OKC flight at 11,000 feet?. Temperature decreases. Windspeed increases slightly. Wind shifts from calm to a westerly direction.

Where is a common location for an inversion?. At the tropopause. In the stratosphere. At the base of cumulus clouds.

SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 2SM +SHRA SCT005 BKN035 OVC050CB 24/23 A2980 RMK RAB1757 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA. This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition?. Wind steady at 100° magnetic at 12 knots, gust 21. Precipitation started at 1757. 5,000 feet overcast with towering cumulus.

Dew point fronts result from. air density differences due to the humidity levels. air density due to temprature. temperatures aloft.

What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity?. 4,000 feet thick. 2,000 feet thick. A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be higer than the freezing level.

In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form?. Warm fronts or occluded fronts. Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts. Cold front occlusions.

Where are jetstreams normally located?. In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere. In a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located. In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between the equatorial and polar tropopause.

At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. Decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. decreases pressure gradient force. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.

(Refer to Figure 145.) What type of report is listed for Lubbock (KLBB) at 1818Z?. An Aviation selected special weather report. A special report concerning very low station pressure. A Special METAR weather observation, concerning significant weather changes.

Where do squall lines most often develop?. In an occluded front. Ahead of a cold front. Behind a stationary front.

METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44. Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland (KMAF)?. Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour. The ceiling was at 25,000 feet MSL. Wind was 020° magnetic at 20 knots.

Which type weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET?. Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4-inch hail or tornadoes. Cumulonimbus clouds with tops above the tropopause and thunderstorms with 1/2-inch hail or funnel clouds. Any thunderstorm with a severity level of VIP 2 or more.

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

(Refer to Figure 144.) On final approach to the airport, airplane in position 5 would experience. decreased ground speed. downdraft. poor performance.

What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encountered during flight?. Thunderstorms at higer levels. Freezing rain at higher levels. Snow at higher levels.

When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period?. After sunrise. About 1 hour before sunrise. At midnight.

Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?. It is more complicated. The holding time is increased. More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplanes surface.

Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to. -20°F ambient temperature. +32°F outside temperature or below. a freezing point no greater than 20°F below the ambient or airplane surface temperature.

Cumulus clouds often indicate. possible turbulence. a temperature inversion. a dry adiabatic lapse rate.

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling. Dew collects on the surface and the freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air temperature. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.

What course of action should the pilot take if encountering freezing rain?. Climb because the temperature is warmer at a higher altitude. Descend because the temperature is warmer at a lower altitude. No changes is necessary if all anti-ice/deice equipment is working.

The most likely condition in which to experience severe inflight icing with the ambient temperature below 0°C is. rain. visible moisture. fog.

METAR KFSO 030856Z VRB02KT 7SM MIFG SKC 15/14 A3012 RMK SLP993 6///// T01500139 56012 In the above METAR, the SLP993 6//// indicates. sea-level pressure 993.6 hectopascals that has dropped .4 hectopascals in the last 6 hours. sea-level pressure 993.6 hectopascals and that an indeterminable amount of precipitation has occurred over the last 3 hours. sea-level pressure 993.6 hectopascals and that four-tenths of an inch of precipitation has fallen in the last 6 hours.

What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORECAST (FD) for FL390 - '731960'?. 230° at 119 knots. 131° at 96 knots. 073° at 196 knots.

How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere?. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. Has exactly the same effect as in the Norther Hemisphere.

What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?. Trough. Ridge. Hurricane or typhoon.

Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?. Land breeze. Valley wind. Katabatic wind.

When high level moisture is available, cirrus clouds form on the. polar side of the jet stream. equatorial side of the jet stream. acute angle slide of the jet stream.

Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport, at the ETA?. Low-level Prog Chart. Weather Depiction Charts. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

For a flight to an airport in the vicinity of the coast, land surface cooling means you can expect to encounter. sea breezes. land breezes. a chinook wind.

Where is the usual location of a thermal low?. Over the arctic region. Over the eye of a hurricane. Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.

The pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate?. The pilot in command may continue to the original destination airport, after climbing to a higher altitude. The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions. The flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing equipment is operational and is used.

What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather?. Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface. Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.

The VV001 in the following METAR indicates METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV001 A2989 RMK AO2 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 $. an observer reported the vertical visibility as 100 feet. a 100 foot indefinite ceiling. the variability value is 100 feet.

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1 deicing/anti-icing fluid?. 30 percent. 50 percent. 80 percent.

A flight is scheduled at daybreak. The current weather is rainy but is expected to clear, with temperature/dew point spread forecast to be 10 degrees C/10 degrees C and winds 330 degrees at 5 knots. What weather conditions should you expect?. Visual meteorological conditions until later in the day. These conditions could produce radiation fog. Dense fog that deepens later in the day.

Vertical wind shear can be determined by comparing winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is. 4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet. 6 knots or more per 1,000 feet. greater than 8 knots per 1,000 feet.

A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates the probability of. thunderstorms or other precipitation. precipitation or low visibility. thunderstorms or high wind.

What characterizes a ground-based inversion?. Convection currents at the surface. Cold temperatures. Poor visibility.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. The appearance of an anvil top. The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum.

Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?. The jetstream is located north of the surface sytems. The jetstream is located south of the low and warm front. The jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an SAT ELP TUS flight at 16,000 feet?. Temperature decreases slightly. Windspeed decreases. Wind direction shift from southwest to east.

(Refer to Figure 145.) What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)?. Light rain showers. Heavy rain showers began 42 minuted after the hour. The ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated 1,800 feet above sea level.

When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases. at a faster rate than dry air because of the release of latent heat. at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat. at a slower rate than dry air because condensation release heat.

A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates. the absence of clouds in the area. an area of no convective turbulence. an area where precipitation drops are not detected.

Clear ice generally forms in outside temperature ranges of. -15 to -25 deg C. 0 to -10 deg C. colder than -25 deg C.

Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?. Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thunderstorms.

What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. Descending to the surface and the outward. Moving outward from the high at high altitudes and into the high at the surface.

What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?. Air mass thunder produce precipitation which falls outside of the updraft. Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts. Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating.

Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?. Wet snow. Freezing rain. Ice pellets.

Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?. In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.

Shear turbulence from a thunderstorm has been encountered. 10 miles from the sever thunderstorm. 15 miles from the sever thunderstorm. 20 miles from the sever thunderstorm.

Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?. Upper winds blowing across the front. Upper low located directly over the surface low. The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front.

Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?. Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?. Katabatic. Advection. Adiabatic.

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

(Refer to Figure 145.) The peak wind at KAMA was reported to be from 320° true at 39 knots,. which occurred at 1743Z. with gusts to 43 knots. with .43 of an inch liquid precipitation since the last report.

Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms and some contain isotachs. The contours depict. ridges, lows, trough and highs aloft. highs, lows, troughs, and ridges on the surface. highs, lows, troughs, and ridges corrected to MSL.

When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least. 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed. 2,500 feet. 500 feet above any moderate to severe turbulence layer.

If the winds aloft are blowing parallel to the front,. the front can be expected to move with the upper winds. the winds aloft can be expected to turn at the frontal boundary. the front moves slowly if at all.

Airborne weather radar is installed to help the crew. penetrate weather between storm cells. avoid severe weather. avoid storm turbulence and hail.

A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface wind is. 58 mph or greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch or more in diameter. 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail 1/2 inch or more in diameter. 45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch or more in diameter.

(Refer to Figure 149A Area 10.) What is the forecast wind direction, speed, and temperature over ELY at 30,000 feet?. 330 degrees, 35 knots, 33 degrees C. 040 degrees, 35 knots, -33 degrees C. 220 degrees, 35 knots, -33 degrees C.

Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids. need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.

Which arctic flying hazard is caused when a cloud layer of uniform thickness overlies a snow or ice covered surface?. Ice fog. Whiteout. Blowing snow.

A cyclone is. a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean. a tropical depression with sustained winds of 63 knots. a tropical depression with a barometric pressure in the center of the feature that is 35 mb lower than pressure outside the weather feature.

Summer thunderstorms in the arctic region will generally move. northeast to southeast in polar easterlies. southwest to northeast with the jetstream flow. directly north to south with the low-level polar airflow.

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. One microburst may continues for as long as 2 to 4 hours. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. 8,000 ft/min. 7,000 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.

How are haze layers cleared or dispersed?. By convective mixing in cool night air. By wind or movement of air. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.

What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORECAST (FD) for FL390 - '750649'?. 350° at 64 knots. 250° at 106 knots. 150° at 6 knots.

Doppler wind measurements indicate that the windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately. 15 knots. 25 knots. 45 knots.

(Refer to Figure 145.) What weather improvement was reported at Lubbock (KLBB) between 1750 and 1818 UTC?. The wind shift and frontal passage at 1812Z. The vertical visibility improved by 2,000 feet. The temperature and dewpoint spread improved.

All ATC facilities using radar weather processors with the ability to determine precipitation intensities will describe the intensity as. light, moderate, heavy, intense, extreme, or severe. light, moderate, heavy, extreme, severe. light, moderate, heavy, extreme.

Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?. Air mass thunderstorms. Cold front or squall line thunderstorms. Storms associated with icing and supercooled water.

The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is to. raise the eutectic point. decreases the freeze point. increases the minimum freezing point (onset of crystallization.

METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005. SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015 22/21 A3000. Which change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820 UTC?. The rain became lighter. Atmospheric pressure increased. A funner cloud was observed.

Which type of weather can only be directly observed during flight and then reported in a PIREP?. Turbulence and structural icing. Jetstream-type winds and icing. Level of the tropopause and turbulence.

Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as. 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain. 5,000 feet above the tropopause. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.

Forecast winds and temperatures aloft for an international flight may be obtained by consulting. Area Forecasts published by the departure location host country. The current International Weather Depiction Chart appropriate to the route. Wind and Temperature Aloft Charts prepared by the U.S. National Centers of Environmental Prediction (NCEP).

Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?. The parcel of air resists convection. The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer that the surrounding air.

What is the general direction of movement of a hurricane located in the Caribbean or Gulf of Mexico region?. Northwesterly curving to northeasterly. Westerly, until encountering land, then easterly. Counterclockwise over open water, then dissipating outward over land.

What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades?. could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power. It can increase performance and cause stalls or surges. It can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.

Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water; however,. ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in contact with FPD. ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in contact with it. ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it.

Jet streams are strongest during which season in the Northern Hemisphere?. Spring. Summer. Winter.

In this METAR excerpt, "SLP993 SNINCR 1/10" means. 0.1 inch snow on the runway land zone during the last hour. 1" of snow in the last 10 hours. there is 10" of snow on the ground with a 1" increase in the last hour.

If a SIGMET alert is announced, how can information contained in the SIGMET be obtained?. ATC will announce the hazard and advise when information will be provided in the FSS broadcast. By contacting a weather watch station. By contacting the nearest flight service.

Steep frontal surfaces are usually associated with. Fast moving warm front. Fast moving cold front. dry lines.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over OKC at FL 370?. 265° true; 27 knots; ISA +1°C. 260° true; 27 knots; ISA +6°C. 260° magnetic; 27 knots; ISA +10°C.

What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission? 'SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE.'. A downburst is located at the center of the airport. Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway. There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?. Absence of wind and turbulence. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can. reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent. increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent. reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?. On clear nights with stable air and light winds. On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation. On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/dewpoint spread.

A squall is a sudden increase of at least 15 knots in average wind speed to a sustained speed of. 24 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.

What type turbulence should be reported when it causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude, less than one-third of the time?. Occasional light chop. Moderate turbulence. Moderate chop.

METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020 BKN040 30/27 A3001. SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK RAB12 WS TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC. What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815 UTC at Harrison (KHRO)?. The ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds developed. Thundershowers began at 12 minuted past the hour. Visibility reduced to IDR conditions.

Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to. minimum temperature occurring after sunrise. incoming terrestrial radiation peaking at noon. Temperature reaching a maximum closer to noon than to sunset.

(Refer to Figure 144.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?. Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft. Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft. Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.

Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?. Squall line. Advection fog. Frontogenesis.

The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and. increased thrust. a decreased stall speed. an increased stall speed.

(Refer to Figure 145.) What was the local Central Standard Time of the Aviation Routine Weather Report at Austin (KAUS)?. 11:53 a.m. 5:53 p.m. 10:53 a.m.

Embedded thunderstorms, which can be hazardous during instrument flight, are most likely to occur. behind a fast-moving cold front. in a warm front occlusion. in a cold front occlusion.

A jet stream is a narrow, shallow, meandering river of maximum winds extending around the globe in a wavelike pattern with speeds of. 50 knots or greater. 71 knots or greater. 100 knots or greater.

Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest value. during the downdraft and heavy rain showers. when the thunderstorm is approaching. immediately after the rain shower has stopped.

Which process causes adiabatic cooling?. Expansion of air as it rises. Movement of air over a colder surface. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over MKC at FL 260?. 260° true; 43 knots; ISA +10°C. 260° true; 45 knots; ISA -10°C. 260° magnetic; 42 knots; ISA +9°C.

Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?. The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10°C. A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. A wind direction difference of at least 30° between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.

Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2) are issued. every morning at 0400. two times a day. hourly.

What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?. Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones. Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause. Thin layer of cirrus (ice crystal) clouds at the tropopause level.

What hazard should you expect for a morning departure from KPDX, based on this METAR? KPDX 271154Z 00000KT 9SM CLR -10/-10 A2979. Wind shear. Frost on the aircraft. Sea breeze.

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter are strong and may include horizontal winds near the surface as strong as. 34 knots. 20 knots. 45 knots.

KFTW UA/OV DFW/TM 1645/FL100/TP PA30/SK SCT031-TOP043/BKN060-TOP085/OVC097-TOPUNKN/WX FV00SM RA/TA 07. This pilot report to Fort Worth (KFTW) indicates. the aircraft is in light rain. that the top of the ceiling is 4,300 feet. the ceiling at KDFW is 6,000 feet.

If squalls are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions exist?. Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15 knots, to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting for at least 1 minute. A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1 minute or longer. Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.

What is a feature of a stationary front?. The warm front surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface. Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather. Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone.

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?. Decreasing headwind or tailwind. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.

(Refer to Figure 144.) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?. 3. 2. 1.

Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream?. Cold front and warm front. Warm front. Occluded front.

What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?. The air is unstable. A temperature inversion exists. The air is stable.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over TUS at FL 270?. 347° magnetic; 5 knots; ISA -10°C. 350° true; 5 knots; ISA +5°C. 010° true; 5 knots; ISA +13°C.

Error management evaluation. should recognize not all errors can be prevented. may include error evaluation that should have been prevented. must mark errors as disqualifying.

The most important key to risk management is. understanding pilot predisposition. management of external pressures. the sense of security provided by experience.

To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should. lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath. climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath. remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?. Direct headwind. Light quartering tailwind. Light quartering headwind.

Penetrating fog while flying an approach at night, you might experience the illusion of. pitching up. flying at a lower altitude. constant turning.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.

An experienced pilot trying to meet a schedule. can expect the flight crew to alert them to problems or areas of concern. will always err on the side of caution. can fail to perceive operational pitfalls.

What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?. Light and variable. Wind shear. Frontal passage.

What conditions would cause an air traffic controller to issue you a safety alert?. When your approach has become unstable, and you are required to execute a go-around. When the aircraft altitude places it in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstruction, or other aircraft. When they have implemented a temporary reduction in approach control separation minimums.

When a recently certificated pilot decides to not wait any longer for the fog and low ceilings to burn off, this pilot may be exhibiting the hazardous. resigned attitude. macho attitude. impulsive attitude.

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?. Look only at far away, dim lights. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.

You have just touched down hard in the rain on a narrower-than-usual runway at night. You realize you have just experienced. runway length illusion. an atmospheric height illusion. ground lighting illusion.

The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known as. inversion illusion. autokinesis. somatogravic illusion.

Sleep inertia refers to a period of. heightened alertness and visual acuity following a rest period. alignment between a person's internal biological clock and local external time cues. impaired performance following awakening from a regular sleep cycle or nap.

Altitude-induced hypoxia is caused by what atmospheric condition?. significantly less oxygen molecules at high altitudes. Insufficient partial pressure of the inhaled oxygen. Incorrect balance of oxygen and carbon dyoxide.

CRM error management includes. effective use of all available resources: human resources, hardware, and information. error callout and error guidance training. error prevention, error detection, and recovery from the error.

The crew monitoring function is essential,. particularly during high altitude cruise flight modes to prevent CAT isues. particularly during approach and landing to prevent CFIT. during RNAV departures in class B airspaces.

A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. a VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?. Application of stress management and risk element precedures. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

When using the Earth's horizon as a reference point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, most concern would be for aircraft. above the horizon and increasing in size. on the horizon with little relative movement. on the horizon and increasing size.

Under 14 CFR Part 91, what are the minimum number of hours that must pass after a person consumes alcohol before they may act as a crewmember?. 8. 10. 12.

What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create?. Does not cause illusions. Lower than actual. Higher than actual.

What type of stressor can lead to poor decision making?. Lack of sleep. Lack of high workload. Lack of motivation.

Automatic Decision-Making is. a reflexive type of decision-making. an impulsive type of decision-making. an internalized type of decision-making.

Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute. looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. 1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unneecessary.

A pilot should be aware the alcohol in one beer can be detected for as long as. minimum of 60 minutes. 2 hours. 3 hours.

In order to achieve the highest level of safety. each crewmember must carefully monitor the aircraft's flight path. the crewmembers must continually monitor their seat dependent tasl. the captain's judgment must not be questioned.

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to. sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.

In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as. somatogravic illusion. ground lighting illusion. autokinesis.

While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?. The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. An off-airway route to the point of departure. The route filed in the flight plan.

An experienced pilot mistakes the runway heading for the instructed heading for departure. What kind of error is this?. Experience error. Detection error. Insight detection.

In a multicrew environment, who is responsible for the tone, pace, and outcome of decisions made, and will be held accountable for all outcomes in air carrier flights?. First officer. Air carrier. Captain.

An air carrier aircraft flown into the ground while troubleshooting a landing gear fault is an example of. neglect and reliance on memory. loss of situational awareness. lack of aviation experience.

Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is. developing lift. operating at high airspeeds. using high power settings.

The illusion associated with landing on a narrower than usual runway may result in the pilot flying a. lower approach with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. slower approach with the risk of reducing airspeed below VSO or landing hard. higher approach with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway.

If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

What is the hijack code?. 7200. 7500. 7777.

To improve the effectiveness and safety of the entire operations team as a working system, CRM training should include. usage of seat-dependent checklists. employee groups beyond the flight crew. failures the flight crew must work through as a team.

Accident-prone pilots tend to. have disdain toward rules. follow methodical information gathering techniques. excessively utilize outside resources.

An experienced, current, and proficient pilot fails to notice the landing gear is not extended for landing. This is an example of. systems training. problem detection. procedures knowledge.

Cultural issues in CRM. are not appropriate subjects for effective CRM training in any population. must be addressed for each training population. can be discussed if the training syllabus allows training time for there topics.

What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.

Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases. the percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased. the percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased. oxygen partial pressure is decreased.

After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later.

Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of. pitching up. pitching down. leveling off.

While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as. autokinesis. Coriolis illusion. the leans.

Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.

Consumption of alcohol. can severely impair a person for more than 8 hours. is of no concern in aviation after 8 hours regardless of amount consumed. in small amounts has no effect on judgment and decision-making.

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?. A stressful situation causing anxiety. The excessive consumption of alcohol. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

An air carrier crew fixated on completing the last flight of a four day trip often may exhibit. get-there-itis. staged decision-making. naturalistic decision-making.

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?. Redice head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. Rely on the kinesthetic sense. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.

You have just touched down on the runway faster than planned in the haze at night. You realize that you have just experienced. an atmospheric distance illusion. a gravotopic height illusion. the elevator illusion.

A pilot making a blood donation in order to help a sick associate should be aware that for several weeks. sufficient oxygen may not reach the cells in the body. fewer oxygen molecules will be available to the respiratory membranes. the ability of the body tissues to effectively use oxygen is decreased.

The maximum tailwind component of the airplane is 10 knots. The actual tailwind calculated is 11 knots. Other aircraft are continuing to land, so you decide to ignore the limitation and land as well. Which hazardous attitude are you displaying?. Impulsivity. Resigantion. Anti-authority.

If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off. prior to the point where the jet touched down. beyond the point where the jet touched down. at the point where the jet touched down on the upwind edge of the runway.

When is ear blockage most likely to occur?. Upon descent and is aggravated by upper respiratory infection. During initial climb-out as expanding air in the middle ear pushes the eustachian tube open. During cruise flight as the pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin equalizes.

What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher.

Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 below and behind the flightpath of the generating aircraft. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. Wake turbulence behind a proppeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is necessary factor in the formation of vortices.

To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly. below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.

A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minuted of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.

What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance?. One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed. One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed. One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size.

Crew resource management (CRM) is. a dilution of the captain's authority. the only method of accident avoidance and error prevention. one way to make good decisions.

What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?. Rapid, shallow breathing. Pain and cramping of the hands and fet. Dizziness.

Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is. closer to the runway than it actually is. farther from the runway than it actually is. the same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.

What is the most fatal (in number) phase of flight?. Takeoff. Landing. Approach.

Human behavior. rarely results in accidents unless deliberate actions are performed. is responsible for three out of four accidents. is well understood, so behavioral induced accidents are exceedingly rare occurrences.

Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?. Tingling sensations. Visual acuity. Decreased breathing rate.

It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. 500 feet or less to another aircraft. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.

What does the term 'minimum fuel' imply to ATC?. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. Advisory that indicated an emergency situation is possible should and undue delay occur.

Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?. 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

Which of the following is one of the five traits discovered to be common in pilots who have had accidents in their past?. A low correlation between traffic safety violations and flying safety mishaps. A tendency to be impulsive rather than disciplined, especially in decision making. A sense of respect for rules and precedures.

A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when. ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscle and inner ear. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. body sensation are used to interpret flight attitudes.

While experiencing a hangover, a pilot. will have impaired motor and mental responses. is no longer under the influence of alcohol. may experience discomfort, but no impairment.

When an aircraft pilot takes off as ordered in the afternoon when embedded thunderstorms are indicated on radar and NOAA is broadcasting weather watches, it might be described as an example of. the resigned effect. an anti-authority attitude. an impulsive attitude.

CRM training refers to. the two component of flight safety and resource management, combined with mentor feedback. the three components of initial indoctrination awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and continual reinforcement. the five components of initial indoctrination awareness, communication principles, recurrent practice and feedback, coordination drills, and continual reinforcement.

One purpose of crew resource management is to give crews the tools to. recognize and mitigate hazards. maintain currency with regulations. reduce the need for outside resources.

What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?. Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. Alcohol has little effect if followed by an ounce of black coffee for every ounce of alcohol.

When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too. high. low. shallow.

Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by. prescribed an over-the-counter medications. prescription medications only. over-the-counter medications only.

CRM is defined as. application of team management in the flight deck environment. the use of human factors principles in the aviation environment. a human error avoidance approach to aviation management in the flight deck.

You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency fue to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.

When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach. altitude may be higher than it appears. altitude may be lower than it appears. may results in leveling off too high and landing hard.

In order to assess risk in aeronautical decision making, what two basic considerations are recommended?. Convenience and effort required. Likelihood and severity. Time and cost efficiency.

Stress distraction can interfere with judgment to the extent that. unwarranted risk are taken. physical response rate to stimuli are impaired. perceptions are clouded.

(Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Parallel only. Direct.

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies 'NoPT,' the pilot should. advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed. not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?. Read the clearance back in its entirety. Request a clarification from ATC. Do nos accept the clearance.

The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is. 265 knots. 230 knots. 156 knots.

Which dispatch requirement applies to a flag air carrier that is scheduled for a 7-hour IFR flight?. No alternate airport is required if the forecast weather at the ETA at the destination airport is at least 1,500 feet 3 miles. An alternate airport is nor required if the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling MDA. An alternate airport is required.

(Refer to Figure 114, Area 9.) What is the minimum altitude southwest bound on V8 at LUCER intersection?. 9,300 feet. 9,000 feet. 10,500 feet.

(Refer to Figure 185A.) The threshold of RWY 07L at McCarran Intl is displaced. 878 feet, due to a pole. 2,133 feet, due to a hangar. 1,659 feet, due to a pole.

The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?. 3/8 SM. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727 operate within Class B airspace without special ATC authorization?. 230 knots. 250 knots. 275 knots.

What action should be taken when a pilot is 'cleared for approach' while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?. Descend to minimum vector altitude. Remain at last assigned altitud until established on a published route segment. Descend to initial approach fix altitude.

Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain 'VFR-on-top'?. Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual flight rule while in VFR conditions. Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules. Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.

(Refer to Figures 360 and 388.) N60JB desired to list ROC as an alternate for BUF. The active RWY at ROC was expected to be RWY 28. What weather forecast was required at Greater Rochester Intl, for N60JB to list it as an alternate?. Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 800-2. Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 600-2. Nonprecision approach 800-2 1/4, precision approach 600-2.

You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution light as you pass V1. You should. continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the illumination as an inflight emergency. promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only having asymmetrical reverse thrust. abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse thrust for deceleration.

A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude?. 1,000 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL. 5,000 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class G airspace?. 700 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The distance from the FAF to the MAP for the VOR or GPS RWY 13L/13R approach is. 6.2 NM. 3.2 NM. 2.6 NM.

Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?. When cleared for an IFR approach. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

(Refer to Figure 126.) What is the radius from the airport of the outer circle, A?. 5 miles. 10 miles. 15 miles.

What terms or values should be used when providing a quality of braking action report to ATC?. Good, Medium, Poor, and Nil. Good, Good to Medium, Medium, Medium to Poor, Poor, and Nil. 0, 1, 2 ,3, 4, 5, 6.

(Refer to Figures 257A and Legend 38.) What approach lights are available for the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX?. ALSF-2 with sequenced flashing lights. MALSR with a displayed threshold. HIRL and TDZ/Cl.

GBAS approaches are. flown using the same techniques as an ILS once selected and indentified. flown the same as an LDA with glide slope turning and identification. automatically turned and displayed after selection of the three character procedure identifier.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if. the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting. the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area. the NAVAIDs use for the final approach are unmonitored.

When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency?. Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as UNICOM. Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency. Wait until visual contact is made with the airport and then broadcast position and intention to land on UNICOM.

What service is provided for aircraft operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?. The same as within Class C airspace when communications and radas contact is established. Radar vector to and from secondary airports within the outer area. Basic radar service only when communications and radar contact is established.

To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word 'MEDEVAC' should be entered in which section of the flight plan?. Aircraft type/special equipment. Pilot's name and address block. Remarks block.

(Refer to Figure 258.) As you approach DEPEW on the RNAV (GPS) RWY 32 approach, your GPS changes from "armed" to "active," and the CDI needle begins to show increasing deviation to the left with no increase in cross track. In this situation, you. should immediately execute the missed approach. know that the sensitivity of the CDI has increased. would turn to the right to center the CDI needle.

(Refer to Figure 114.) The minimum crossing altitude at APLES INT southwest bound on V394 is. 7,500 feet. 9,100 feet. 11,500 feet.

Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by. stating 'Have Numbers'. stating 'Have Weather'. repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

(Refer to Figure 126.) Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the inner and outer circles?. 3,000 feet AGL. 3,000 feet above airport. 4,000 feet above airport.

What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

(Refer to Figure 293.) What is the distance from ASALT intersection to the MAP?. 8.6 NM. 2.6 NM. 6 NM.

(Refer to Figure 374.) Inbound to DEN from Dallas/Fort Worth (DFW), Center gives you a vector and a frequency for Denver Approach Control, but you miss-copy the frequency. You determine you probably were assigned. 119.3 and should expect a tower frequency of 124.3. 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of 124.3. 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of 132.35.

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is. 200 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

What is the purpose of the term 'hold for release' when included in an IFR clearance?. A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions. When an IFR clearance is received by telephone, the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released. gate hold procedure are in effect and the pilot receives and estimate of the time the flight will be released.

When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach?. Anytime at the pilot's dicretion. Only at the MAP. Only when advised by the controller.

Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the procedure name from. the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint in the correct sequence. the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint and verified by the pilot(s). the aircraft navigation database.

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport) is. 800-2, 1,100-1, or 900-1-1/2. 1,000-1, 900-1-1/4, or 800-2. 1,000-1, 900-1-1/2, or 800-2.

When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?. 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less. 3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less. 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.

(Refer to Figure 343.) The airport diagram of Bradley Intl Airport has a symbol (appears to be a triangle balanced on top of another triangle) located close to the approach end of RWY 19. What does this symbol indicate?. Runway Radar Reflectors. Practice hover area for the Army National Guard helicopters. Two course lights, back to back, which flash beams of light along the course of an airway.

The weather conditions that meet the minimum requirements for a flag air carrier to take off from an alternate airport that is not listed in the Operations Specifications are. 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1000-1. 800-1/2, 900-1, or 1000-2. 800-1, 900-2, or 1000-3.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The distance from Canarsie (CRI) to RWY 13R at JFK is. 5.2 NM. 6.2 NM. 8.6 NM.

A runway condition code (RwyCC) will not be issued by ATC if all three segments of a runway are reporting values of. 0. 5. 6.

(Refer to Figure 163A.) Arriving at Ryan Field at 1600Z under visual meteorological conditions (VMC) in a turbine-powered airplane, at what altitude should you enter the traffic pattern and remain at that altitude until further descent is required for a safe landing?. 1,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL.

What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in Class C airspace?. No specific certification but a two-way radio. At least a Private Certificate and two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, and a TSO-C74b transponder.

Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport (civil/Navy) between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is. 265 knots. 230 knots. 200 knots.

(Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airport should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?. 250 knots. 260 knots. 230 knots.

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to 'VERIFY 9,000' and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?. Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000.

What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain 'VFR-on-top'?. May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers. Must maintain VFR clearance above or below. May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between layers.

You are in IMC and descending below 1,000 feet above the TDZE on a straight-in instrument approach in a turbojet. The approach is considered stabilized when the airplane is. fully configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of less than 1,000 FPM. fully configured with the engines spooled up and a descent rate of no more than 500 FPM. at least partially configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of no more than 1,200 FPM.

(Refer to Figures 262 and 263.) In a turbojet airplane, when assigned the RIICE THREE ARRIVAL, at what speed would ATC expect you to cross RIICE intersection when landing EAST at IAH?. 200 knots. 220 knots. 250 knots.

An ATC 'instruction'. is the same as an ATC 'clearance.'. is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action. must be 'read back' in full to controller and confirmed before becoming effective.

Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff. from a runway intersection. from a runway intersection, only at night. from a runway intersection, only during instrument conditions.

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn the maximum speed that should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn is. 180 knots IAS. 200 knots TAS. 200 knots IAS.

What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace?. Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircrafts (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories. Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR aircraft), separation between all aircrafts, and traffic advisories. Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation between all aircrafts, and traffic advisories.

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?. Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars bee visible and identifiable.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. As N711JB is approaching ASALT, Approach Control clears the aircraft to fly the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach. What is the distance from ASALT Intersection to Rwy 13L?. 11.2 NM. 12.2 NM. 8.6 NM.

When an alternate airport outside the United States has no prescribed takeoff minimums and is not listed in a Flag Air Carrier's Operations Specifications, the minimum weather conditions that will meet the requirements for takeoff is. 800-1-1/2. 600-2. 900-1-1/2.

(Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Direct only. Parallel only.

(Refer to Figures 241 and 242.) You land on Runway 12 at LGB and plan to exit the runway to the right on Taxiway J. What potential risk should you be aware of on the airport diagram?. Convergence of Taxiways D and J. Convergence of Taxiways C and J. Convergence of Runway 16R-34Land 07R-25L.

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E airspace, with a VFR-on-top clearance during daylight hours?. 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal. 5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 1500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. At the published DH. At the MDA published or a circling approach. As soon as possible after the runway envioerment is in sight.

When planning to use RNAV equipment with GPS input for an instrument approach at a destination airport, any required alternate airport must have an available instrument approach procedure that does not. require the use of GPS except when the RNAV system has a WAAS input. require the use of GPS except when the RNAV system has a IRU input. require to use of GPS except when dual, independent GPA receivers are installed.

What action should the pilot take when 'gate hold' procedures are in effect?. Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing. Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearance. Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and request clearance prior to leaving the parking area.

The weather forecast requires an alternate for LUKACHUKAI (GPS RWY 25) ARIZONA. The alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure, which is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival, other than. GPS or VOR. ILS or GPS. GPS.

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?. On tower frequency. On approach control frequency. One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

(Refer to Figure 259.) Which approach lighting is available for Rwy 33R?. MALSR with RAIL. MIRL. TDZ and CL.

While airborne and below the MEA, the pilot accepts an IFR clearance. Sole responsibility for terrain and obstruction clearance remains with the pilot unless. the flight continues in clouds or above a ceiling and ATC transmits "RADAR CONTACT". an appropriate minimum IFR altitude providing obstruction clearance is attained. the pilot advises ATC that he or she is unable to maintain terrain/obstruction clearance.

Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing a special or privately owned IAP?. Upon approval of ATC. Upon approval of the owner. Upon signing a waiver of responsability.

An air carrier flight is preparing to depart from a domestic airport which is not listed in the carrier's operation specifications. There are no takeoff minimums prescribed for the airport, and the weather is currently reporting a 900-foot overcast ceiling and 1-mile visibility in mist. The flight may. not depart until the weather improves. depart if an alternate departure airport is filed. depart without an alternate departure airport.

(Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel or teardrop. Parallel only. Direct only.

(Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC clearance: '...HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?. Two-way communication. Two-way communications and transponder. Transponder and DME.

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?. At the Da/Dh when the runway is not clearly visible. When the time has expired after reaching the Da/Dh and the runway enviornment is not clearly visible. At the DA/DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.

Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?. Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a deviation from FARs. Anytime within controller airspace by contacting ARTCC. Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.

(Refer to Figure Commercial 58.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to Runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions. 5 (Five). 6 (Six). 9 (Nine).

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?. Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first. At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage. When abeam the holding fix.

How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions. A route via airways or jet routes with VORs and fixes used. A route via airways or jet routes with only the compulsory reporting points.

At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D airspace?. 1,500 feet AGL. 2,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figure 1.) What does the 20:1 ratio represent?. Displaced treashold. Final approach fix. Obstacle clearance surface (OCS).

Why are certain areas that start 3 nautical miles from the coastline of the U.S. and extend outward, classified as Warning Areas?. To inform pilots of participating aircraft to maintain extreme vigilance while conducting flight within the area. To warn all aircraft pilots that flying within the area may be extremely hazardous to aircraft and occupants. To warn pilots of nonparticipating aircraft of a potential danger within the area.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.

(Refer to Figure 279.) Where does the final approach segment begin on the ILS RWY 32R at ORD?. Glide slope intercept, 2,700 feet MSL. INDDY OM, 2,633 feet MSL. MUNDAY ORD, 4,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Figure 127.) What is the base of the Class A airspace?. 12,000 feet AGL. 14,500 feet MSL. FL 180.

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot. may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude. must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes. may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach couse.

(Refer to Legend 72 and Figure 361.) With a speed of 140 knots, what is the minimum rate of climb after taking off from Rwy 3 at TUS to reach 9,900 feet? Interpolation required. 963 FP. 1,064 FPM. 930 FPM.

(Refer to Figure 259.) When performing the LOC RWY 33R approach and sidestep, at what point would you initiate the missed approach?. anytime after the FAF. 4.5 NM after JELTE. IAH DME 1.0.

When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for a domestic air carrier's operation, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take?. List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate. Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power setting for the airplane in use. List at least one additional alternate airport.

The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is. 200 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace?. Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B airspace. Must operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace. Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures regardless of weather conditions.

How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. The initial fix, all radios fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.

In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled airspace?. Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figure 192.) On the airway J10 between OBH and LBF, the MAA is 41,000 feet. What is the MAA on J197 between FSD and OBH?. 43,000 feet. 45,000 feet. 60,000 feet.

(Refer to Figures 99, 101, 101A.) Which frequency should be selected to check airport conditions and weather prior to departure at DFW Intl?. 123.775 MHz. 122.95 MHz. 135.95 Mhz.

When should an aircraft depart if issued an EDCT?. No earlier than 5 minutes before and no longer than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No later than 5 minutes before and no earlier than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No earlier than 15 minutes before and no later than 15 minutes after the EDCT.

(Refer to Figures 185 and 185A.) The maximum gross weight that an L1011 can be operated on RWY 01L/19R at McCarran Intl is. 496,000 pounds. 833,000 pounds. 620,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 126.) What is the normal radius from the airport of the outer area, B?. 10 miles. 20 miles. 25 miles.

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the 'critical phase of flight'?. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitude MSL. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operation conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?. The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA. The actual minimus shown on the IAP chart for the airport.

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach. As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. At the localizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.

(Refer to Figure 145.) The minimums for the nonprecision approach at KAMA are 3/4-mile visibility and 400 feet. When operating under Part 121, can the pilot legally execute the approach with the given METAR data?. Yes, they meet the minimum visibility requierments. No, they do not meet the minimum visibility requirements. No, they do not meet the minimum ceiling requirements.

An alternate airport for departure is required. if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimus at the departure airport. when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).

(Refer to Figure 210.) The route between FIS (near Key West) and MTH, which is labeled B646, is an example of a. LF/MF Airway. LF/MF Oceanic route. Military training route.

Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon. arrival at the DH on the glide slope. arrival at the visual descent point. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

An airport is not listed in a domestic Air Carrier's Operations Specifications and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the minimum weather conditions required for takeoff?. 800-2. 900-1. 1000-1/2.

When is the pilot responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, or obstacles?. ATC maintains responsibility if the pilot is operating under IFR. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of flight rules. When they have accepted an instruction to "maintain visual separation.".

Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person. shall correctly annotate the flight plan. must file an ICAO RVSM flight plan. should file for odd altitudes only.

When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?. 1 SM. 1/2 SM. 300 feet and 1/2 SM.

What is the purpose of MOAs?. To protect military aircraft operations from civil aircraft. To separate military training activities from IFR traffic. To separate military training activities from both IFR and VFR traffic.

When is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each destination airport within the 48 contiguous United States?. When the forecast weather indicates the ceiling will be less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than 2 miles at the estimated time of arrival. On all flights, and alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination. When the flight is scheduled for more than 6 hours on route.

(Refer to Figure 273.) Straight-in minimums for a Category B aircraft on the LOC RWL 25L approach are. 1,326 - 1/2. 1,520 - 1/2. 1,740 - 1.

How are random RNAV routes below FL 390 defined on the IFR flight plan?. Define route waypoints using degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids for the route and altitude. List the initial and final fix with at least one waypoint each 200 NM. begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or navigation aids for the altitude being flown, define the random route waypoints by using degree-distance fixes based on navigation aids appropriate for the altitude being flown.

You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution light as you approach V1. You should. continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the illumination as an inflight emergency. promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only having asymmetrical reverse thrust. abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse thrust for deceleration.

An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be. 2 miles or greater. at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum. 3 miles.

In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view?. 'Vectors' provided for navigational guidance or 'Pilot NAV' with courses the pilot is responsible to follow. 'Vectors' and 'Pilot NAV' for pilots to use at their discretion. Combines textual and graphic from which are mandatory routes and instructions.

What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?. Continues taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.

(Refer to Figures 255A and 255B). Which approach control frequency is indicated for the TNP.DOWNE4 Arrival with LAX as the destination?. 128.5 MHz. 124.9 MHz. 124.05 MHz.

Except when in cruise flight, below what altitude are non-safety related flight deck activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?. 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. FL 180.

What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance 'cleared as filed' include?. Clearance limit and en route altitude. Clearance limit, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate. Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate.

A landing weight increase of 10% will result in a landing distance increase of approximately. 7%. 10%. 15%.

What type information is disseminated by NOTAM (D)s?. Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar services available, and other information essential to planning. Airport or primary runway closing, runway and taxiway conditions, and airport lighting aids outages. Temporary flight restrictions, changes in status in navigational aids, and updates on equipment such as VASI.

(Refer to Figure 373.) Inbound to DEN from Dallas/Fort Worth (DFW), Center gives you a vector and a frequency for Denver Approach Control, but you miss-copy the frequency. You determine you probably were assigned. 119.3 and should expect a tower frequency of 124.3. 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of 132.35. 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of 124.3.

Which in-flight conditions are required by a supplemental air carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top flight below the specified IFR minimum en route altitude?. The flight must remain clear of clouds by at least 1,000 feet vertically and 1,000 feet horizontally and hace at least 3 miles flight visibility. The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and hace al least 5 miles flight visibility. The height of nay higher overcast or broken layer must be at least 500 feet above the IFR MEA.

(Refer to Figure 257A.) If the glide slope indication is lost upon passing LIMMA INT on the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX, what action should the pilot take?. Continues to the MAP, and execute a missed approach as indicated. Continue the approach as an LOC, and add 100 feet to the DH. Immediately start the missed approach left turn to CATLY INT.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT Intersection?. 3,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet.

When ATC assigns a speed adjustment to an aircraft operating at FL270, it will be at a speed not less than. 250 knots. 210 knots. 200 knots.

What is the primary purpose of a STAR?. Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.

(Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Parallel only. Direct only.

(Refer to Figure 256 and 257A.) How should the IFR flight plan be closed upon landing at LAX?. Contact UNICOM on 122.95. Phone ASOS on 310-568-2486. LAX tower will close it automatically.

Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the. aircraft dispatcher. first officer. pilot-in-command.

(Refer to Figure 348.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected on Rwy 11R at Tucson Intl?. Takeoff length shortened to 6,986 feet by displaced treshold. Takeoff run shortened by 0.7 percent runway slope to the SE. Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.7 percent upslope of the runway.

(Refer to Figures 241 and 242.) As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB), you slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now see Taxiway D signs on both sides of your pavement. You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is urging you to turn left on D, cross 16R/34L, then taxi to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you. exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2. exited onto Taxiway G. exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.

A landing weight increase of 10% will result in. 7% increase in kinetic energy. 21% increase in kinetic energy. 33% increase in kinetic energy.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?. 188 knots. 210 knots. 230 knots.

(Refer to Figure 114.) The changeover point on V8 southwest bound between HEC VORTAC and PDZ VORTAC is. halfway. 27 DME miles from HEC VORTAC. 31 DME miles from the HEC VORTAC.

If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?. Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed form ATC. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?. IFR Low Altitude En route Chart. IFR High Altitude En route Chart. IFR Planning Chart.

(Refer to Figure 293.) What must be operational for N711JB to execute the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach to JFK?. DME or radar. LDIN and VOR. VOR, LDIN, and DME or radar.

When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not functioning. 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. 2 hours from departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air.

When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately?. Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers. If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired. If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.

When does ATC issue a STAR?. Only when ATC deems it appropriate. Only to high priority flights. Only upon request of the pilot.

At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace?. 156 knots. 180 knots. 200 knots.

What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?. Assume lost communications and continues as planned. Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when 'gate hold' procedures are in effect?. They are given preference for departure over other aircraft. They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warmup block. They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.

Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport. for a period 1 hour before or after the ETA. during the entire flight. when the flight arrives.

What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?. The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other. The entire route must be within radar enviorenment. The waypoints may only be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class E airspace?. 14,000 feet MSL. 14,500 feet MSL. 18,000 feet MSL.

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach. A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot. Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.

What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pretaxi clearance programs?. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction with clearance. Pilot request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. Pilots will receive taxi clearance, then receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on runup. Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minuted or less prior taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.

To conduct an RNAV (GPS) approach to LPV minimums, the aircraft must be furnished with. a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV approach by the AFM. a GPS (TSO-129) receiver certifies for IFR operations. An IFR approach-certifies system with required navigation performance (RNP) of 0.5.

What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized 'VFR-on-top'?. The same afforded all IFR flights. 3 miles horizontal instead of 5. Traffic advisories only.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?. 288 knots. 250 knots. 230 knots.

Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be. RNAV equipped. is compliance with ICAO Annex 10. FMS/EFIS equipped.

(Refer to Figure 301.) During the approach (ILS RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70?. 475 feet per minute. 585 feet per minute. 690 feet per minute.

How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis?. 15 minuted before and 15 minuted after the hour. Between weather broadcasts on the hour. Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.

Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?. Position report, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an MOA?. Military controllers. ATC controllers. Each pilot.

(Refer to Figure 348.) What distance is available for takeoff on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl. 6,998 feet. 8,408 feet. 10,996 feet.

(Refer to Figure 348.) How can the pilot receive the latest NOTAMs for the TUS LAX flight?. Monitor ATIS on 123.8 MHz. Contact the RCO on 122.2 Mhz. Request ADCUS on any FSS or Tower frequency.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class A airspace?. Fl 600. Fl 450. Fl 500.

(Refer to Figure 335.) At San Francisco Intl (SFO), the runway hold position signs are. All on the left-hand side of the taxiways. all on the right-hand side of the taxiways. on either side of the taxiways.

(Refer to Figure 100, Area 8.) Where is the VOR changeover point on V571 between Navasota (TNV) and Humble (IAH)?. 24 miles from IAH. 18 miles from IAH. Halfway between TNV and IAH.

While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?. Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10-miles ring of a published approach. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

(Refer to Figure 273.) The touchdown zone elevation of the ILS RWY 25L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor International airport is. 1,126 feet. 1,135 feet. 1,458 feet.

Under what condition does a pilot receive a 'void time' specified in the clearance?. On an uncontrolled airport. When 'gate hold' procedures are in effect. If the clearance is received prior to starting engines.

In what airspace will ATC not authorize 'VFR-on-top'?. Class C airspace. Class B airspace. Class A airspace.

(Refer to Figures 201 and 201A.) What type of weather information would normally be expected to be available from the Weather Data Source at Ogden-Hinckley?. Cloud height, weather, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, surface widns, and any pertinent remarks. Cloud bases/tops, obstructions to vision, altimeter, winds, precipitation, and the intensity of the precipitation. Clouds height, obstruction to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, wind data, and density altitude.

Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is. 210 knots. 230 knots. 265 knots.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?. 200 knots. 210 knots. 250 knots.

When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed. 1 minute. 1-1/2 minutes. 1-1/2 minuted or 10 NM, whichever is less.

When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport?. Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency. When aligned on the final approach course. When cleared for the approach.

What information does a FICON NOTAM provide for a paved runway?. Contaminant messurements. Braking action. Contaminant measurements and braking action.

During takeoff roll with runway remaining, you receive a master caution light after V(R). What action should you take?. Reject the takeoff. Hold the nose down to takeoff speed. Continue the takeoff.

(Refer to Figure 257B.) The radio altimeter indication for the DH at the inner marker on the ILS RWY 24R approach at LAX is. 120. 115. 126.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is normally appropriate for the top of Class D airspace?. 1,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL. 3,000 feet AGL.

As required by Part 121, an airport may be listed as an alternate in the flight release only if the weather forecast indicates that conditions will be at or above the. alternate weather minima specified in the operation specifications at the time of arrival. lowest available IAP minima at the time of arrival. lowest available IAP minima for 1 hour before to 1 hour after the time of arrival.

A minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the United States is called. Minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA). Off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA). Minimum safe/sector altitude (MSA).

A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to. takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. entering controlled airspace. entering IFR weather conditions.

(Refer to Figure 279 and Legend 72.) What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120 KIAS with a reported headwind component of 15 knots?. 637 ft/min. 478 ft/min. 558 ft/min.

(Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

(Refer to Figure 126.) Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the outer circle?. 700 feet AGL. 1,000 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL.

What are the requirements to operate in an ADIZ?. File a VFR flight plan, depart within 10 minutes of the flight plan, and maintain two-way radio communications. You may not penetrate a domestic ADIZ. File a DVFR flight plan, depart within 5 minuted of the flight plan, and maintain two-way radio communications.

(Refer to Figure 293.) For landing on RWY 13R at JFK, how much RWY is available?. 12,468 feet. 14,511 feet. 9,095 feet.

Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?. If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar enviroment. When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.

(Refer to Figure 269.) The flight is filed Senic One Departure, Daggett transition. Before reaching MOXIE intersection, ATC clears you to turn left heading 030 and proceed direct LAHAB intersection. After the turn, you realize you cannot cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet. What should you do if you are in IMC?. Enter holding at LAHAb on the 185 degree radial until reaching 15,000 feet. Advise departure control you cannot make the clearance and request radar vectors. Turn toward the Long Beach Airport temporarily and continue the climb until you can cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet.

While holding short for an intersection takeoff runway 36 at taxiway C, tower clears you to "line up and wait runway 36." You should. line up and wait for takeoff on taxiway C. line up and wait on runway 36 at intersection C for departure. hold short and advise tower that you are at intersection C of runway 36.

What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?. Except for SIDs, acknowledge altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment is sufficient. Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.

What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan?. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 1 hour prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi.

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is. an airborne RADAR system for monitoring approached to two runways. a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways. a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircrafts ILS approaches to a single runway.

What are FDC NOTAMs?. Conditions of facilities en route that may causes delays. Time critical aeronautical information of a temporary nature from distant centers. Regulatory amendment to published IAPs and charts not yet available in normal published charts.

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not regained, perform missed approach. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM. 7/8 SM.

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?. 1/4 SM. 3/4 SM. 1/2 SM.

What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil airport at 15,000 feet MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing and ATC is notified?. 265 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

A Runway Condition Code (RwyCC) of 0 is used to delineate a braking action report of. Good. Nil. Poor.

(Refer to Figure 126.) What is the usual radius from the airport of the inner circle, C?. 5 miles. 7 miles. 10 miles.

When executing a stabilized approach, you should use. no more than 1000 FPM rate of descent for a non-precision or precision approach form 1,000 feet above the airport or TDZE. no more than 1000 FPM for a precision approach or 1200 FPM for a non-precision approach. no more than 800 FPM for a non-precision approach or 1000 FPM for a precision approach.

Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes?. Over all designated compulsory reporting points. Only where specifically requested by ARTCC. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inpoerative. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Nor more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

Pilots are responsible for knowing. if they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc at a designated airspeed. if the RNP missed approach is normal or reduced. if the RNP registration is complete.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class G airspace?. 700 or 2,500 feet AGL. 500 or 2,000 feet AGL. 700 or 1,200 feet AGL.

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-top clearance during daylight hours?. 3 statute mile, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 statute mile, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 3 statute mile, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class C airspace?. 3,000 feet AGL. 4,000 feet AGL. 3,500 feet AGL.

As you call for taxi instructions, the key words to understand are. cleared to runway. hold short of or "cross.". Taxi to and "expedite.".

What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplanes?. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

(Refer to Figure 257A.) At what point does the flight enter the final approach phase of the ILS RWY 25L at LAX?. FUELR INT. HUNDA INT. Intercept of glide slope.

You received these ATC taxi instructions: "Taxi to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of Runway 25L". Your airplane is on the ramp by the terminal and NWS on the east side of the airport. Your taxi route. requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima. involves transiting HS 4. requires crossing Runway 34R en route to the assigned runway.

(Refer to Figures 348 and 361.) Determine the DEP CON frequency for the TUS7.GBN transition after takeoff from Rwy 11R at Tucson Intl. 125.1 MHz. 118.5 MHz. 119.0 MHz.

Precision runway monitoring requires. pilot responsibility to monitor 2 simultaneous radios. pilot responsibility to monitor 2 ILS receivers. detailed performance during the "decision region": 1/3 dot localizer and 1/2 dot glideslope.

(Refer to Figure 310.) What is the required minimum reported weather to initiate the ILS Rwy 9L approach at PHL in your CAT C turbine-powered airplane with no MEL items?. Ceiling at least 200 feet and RVR 2400. Ceiling 300 feet minimum. Visibility 1800 RVR.

(Refer to Figure 419.) With the following conditions, would the airplane be in the approved weight and CG envelope for landing? CG location: 25% MAC Aircraft Weight: 74,000 lbs. No, the airplane is over the maximum approved landing weight. Yes, the airplane is within the approved weight and CG envelope. No, the airplane is below the maximum landing weight, but the CG is aft of limits.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 34.6 x 46.4 inches? Floor load limit - 88 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 41 lb Tiedown devices - 26 lb. 914.1 pounds. 940.1 pounds. 981.1 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36 x 48 inches? Floor load limit: 169 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight: 47 lbs Tiedown devices: 33 lbs. 1,948.0 pounds. 1,995.0 pounds. 1,981.0 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 44.) Where is the new CG if the listed weight is shifted from the forward to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 5?. +19.15 index arm. +13.93 index arm. -97.92 index arm.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 48.5 x 33.5 inches Pallet weight - 44 lbs. Tiedown devices - 27 lbs. Cargo weight - 786.5 lbs. 79 lbs/sq ft. 76 lbs/sq ft. 73 lbs/sq ft.

What adverse flight characteristics could result from operating an aircraft with the center of gravity (CG) beyond the published forward limitations?. The flight control forces may become very light. It could be difficult or impossible to flare for landing. It could be difficult or impossible to recover from a stall.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 39 x 37 inches. Pallet weight - 37 lbs. Tiedown devices - 21 lbs Cargo weight - 1,094.3 lbs. 115 lbs/sq ft. 112 lbs/sq ft. 109 lbs/sq ft.

(Refer to Figures 405 through 416). What is the CG in inches from datum under the following loading conditions? Basic Empty Weight 5005 lbs Pilot 185 lbs Cargo Zone 1 200 lbs Cargo Zone 2 240 lbs Cargo Zone 3 500 lbs Cargo Zone 4 400 lbs Cargo Zone 5 200 lbs Cargo Zone 6 50 lbs Cargo Pod A-D 0 lbs Fuel 275 gallons. Station 202.6. Station 198.5. Station 205.6.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the aft to the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 2?. 26.1 percent MAC. 20.5 percent MAC. 22.8 percent MAC.

What is the purpose of a zero fuel weight limitation?. To limit load forces on the wing spars with heavy fuselage loads. To limit load forces on the fuselage with a heavy wing fuel load. To prevent overstressing the landing gear during a hard landing.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the forward to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 3?. 29.2 percent MAC. 33.0 percent MAC. 28.6 percent MAC.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 42.6 x 48.7 inches? Floor load limit - 121 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 47 lb Tiedown devices - 33 lb. 1,710.2 pounds. 1,663.2 pounds. 1,696.2 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 405 through 416.) (Note: Applicants may request a printed copy of the chart(s) or graph(s) for use while computing the answer. All printed pages must be returned to test proctor.) With the load weights shown in figure 414, you fill the fuel tanks to the maximum fuel to remain under maximum gross weight and compute the center of gravity. Your computations indicate. at a CG of 200.1, your loading is satisfactory for flight operations. at a CG of 180.19, you need to redistribute your loads. at a CG of 190.27, you only need to change the cargo pod loading.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 24.6 x 68.7 inches? Floor load limit - 79 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 43 lb Tiedown devices - 27 lb. 884.1 pounds. 857.1 pounds. 841.1 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-1?. 8 ANU. 7-5/8 ANU. 7-3/4 ANU.

(Refer to Figures 405 through 416). What is the old and new CG if 300 pounds of cargo is moved from Zone 2 to Zone 3 given the following conditions? Basic Empty Weight 5005 lbs Pilot 190 lbs Front Seat Passenger 200 lbs Cargo Zone 1 180 lbs Cargo Zone 2 505 lbs Cargo Zone 3 198 lbs Cargo Zone 4 600 lbs Cargo Zone 5 0 lbs Cargo Zone 6 60 lbs Cargo Pod A 100 lbs Cargo Pod B 80 lbs Cargo Pod C 200 lbs Cargo Zone D 180 lbs Fuel 180 gallons. 200.2 and 198.6. 196.2 and 199.2. 200.4 and 202.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 33.5 x 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 66 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 34 lb Tiedown devices - 29 lb. 744.6 pounds. 681.6 pounds. 663.0 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 33.5 x 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 76 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 44 lb Tiedown devices - 27 lb. 857.4 pounds. 830.4 pounds. 786.5 pounds.

What is the maximum load that can be placed on a pallet without exceeding the floor weight limit of 260 pounds per square inch? Pallet dimensions: 95.2 inches X 140.1 inches Pallet weight: 350 pounds Tiedown devices: 120 pounds. 23,606 pounds. 24,076 pounds. 24,546 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 81 x 83 inches? Floor load limit: 180 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight: 82 lbs Tiedown devices: 31 lbs. 8,403.7 pounds. 8,321.8 pounds. 8,290.8 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is removed from the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 1?. 27.1 percent MAC. 26.8 percent MAC. 30.0 percent MAC.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 143 x 125.2 inches? Floor load limit - 209 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 197 lb Tiedown devices - 66 lb. 25,984.9 pounds. 25,787.9 pounds. 25,721.9 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 405-416). What is the CG in inches from datum under the following loading conditions? Basic Empty Weight 5005 lbs Pilot 190 lbs Front seat passenger 200 lbs Cargo Zone 1 180 lbs Cargo Zone 2 505 lbs Cargo Zone 3 198 lbs Cargo Zone 4 600 lbs Cargo Zone 5 0 lbs Cargo Zone 6 60 lbs Cargo Pod A 100 lbs Cargo Pod B 80 lbs Cargo Pod C 200 lbs Cargo Pod D 180 lbs Fuel 180 gallons. 196.4 inches aft of datum. 200.4 inches aft of datum. 204.1 inches aft of datum.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is removed from the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 5?. 31.9 percent MAC. 19.1 percent MAC. 35.2 percent MAC.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 98.7 x 78.9 inches? Floor load limit - 183 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 161 lb Tiedown devices - 54 lb. 9,896.5 pounds. 9,735.5 pounds. 9,681.5 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 138.5 x 97.6 inches? Floor load limit - 235 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 219 lb Tiedown devices - 71 lb. 21,840.9 pounds. 21,769.9 pounds. 22,059.9 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 76 x 74 inches? Floor load limit: 176 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight: 77 lbs Tiedown devices: 29 lbs. 6,767.8 pounds. 6,873.7 pounds. 6796.8 pounds.

Given the following, what would be the maximum payload? Basic operating weight (BOW): 100,500 lbs. Maximum zero fuel weight: 138,000 lbs. Maximum landing weight: 142,000 lbs. Maximum takeoff weight: 184,200 lbs. Fuel load: 40,000 lbs. Fuel tank capacity: 54,000 lbs. 43,700 lbs. 37,500 lbs. 29,700 lbs.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 116.8 x 87.7 inches Pallet weight - 137 lbs. Tiedown devices - 49 lbs. Cargo weight - 12,262.4 lbs. 172 lbs/sq t. 176 lbs/sq t. 179 lbs/sq t.

(Refer to Figure 419.) You are preparing for a flight, with the following planned loading at takeoff. Would the aircraft be within the approved weight limitations? Basic operating weight (including crew): 49,500 lbs. Passengers, baggage, and cargo: 20,850 lbs. Fuel weight: 9,500 lbs. Yes, the weight would be within limits. No, max zero fuel weight would be exceeded. No, the max takeoff weight would be exceeded.

What minimum floor load limit must an aircraft have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions - 78.9 wide and 98.7 long Pallet weight - 161 lb Tiedown devices - 54 lb Cargo weight - 9,681.5 lb. 182 lb/sq ft. 180 lb/sq ft. 183 lb/sq ft.

(Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-5?. 6-4/3 ANU. 8 ANU. 7-1/2 ANU.

What is the maximum pallet weight for a floor with a limit of 140 pounds per square foot and the following information? Pallet dimensions: 32.4 inches X 34.9 inches Pallet weight: 45 pounds Tiedown devices: 20 pounds. 1,099 pounds. 1,129 pounds. 1,034 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-2?. 5-3/4 ANU. 7 ANU. 6-3/4 ANU.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 37.5 x 35 inches. Pallet weight - 34 lbs. Tiedown devices - 23 lbs. Cargo weight - 1,255.4 lbs. 152 lbs/sq ft. 148 lbs/sq ft. 144 lbs/sq ft.

(Refer to Figure 44.) Where is the new CG if the weight is removed from the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 4?. +15.53 index arm. +8.50 index arm. -93.51 index arm.

What adverse flight characteristics could result from operating an aircraft with the center of gravity (CG) beyond the published aft limitations?. The flight control forces may become very heavy. It could be difficult to flare for landing. It could be impossible to recover from a stall.

(Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-4?. 4-1/4 ANU. 4-1/2 ANU. 5 ANU.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 96.1 x 133.3 inches? Floor load limit - 249 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 347 lb Tiedown devices - 134 lb. 21,669.8 pounds. 21,803.8 pounds. 22,120.8 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the aft to the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 4?. 37.0 percent MAC. 23.5 percent MAC. 24.1 percent MAC.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 78.9 x 98.7 inches Pallet weight - 161 lbs. Tiedown devices - 54 lbs. Cargo weight - 9,681.5 lbs. 180 lbs/sq ft. 186 lbs/sq ft. 183 lbs/sq ft.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36.5 x 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 112 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 45 lb Tiedown devices - 29 lb. 1,331.8 pounds. 1,302.8 pounds. 1,347.8 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is added to the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 3?. 11.4 percent MAC. 14.3 percent MAC. 14.5 percent MAC.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 42.6 x 48.7 inches? Floor load limit - 117 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 43 lb Tiedown devices - 31 lb. 1,611.6 pounds. 1,654.6 pounds. 1,601.6 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the forward to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 1?. 15.2 percent MAC. 29.8 percent MAC. 30.0 percent MAC.

(Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-3?. 3 ANU. 4-1/2 ANU. 5 ANU.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 24.6 x 68.7 inches? Floor load limit - 85 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 44 lb Tiedown devices - 29 lb. 924.5 pounds. 968.6 pounds. 953.6 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36.5 x 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 107 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 37 lb Tiedown devices - 33 lb. 1,295.3 pounds. 1,212.3 pounds. 1,245.3 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 87.7 x 116.8 inches? Floor load limit - 175 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 137 lb Tiedown devices - 49 lb. 12,262.4 pounds. 12,338.4 pounds. 12,311.4 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 44.) Where is the new CG if the weight is added to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 2?. +17.06 index arm. +14.82 index arm. +12.13 index arm.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-3?. 12,300 pounds. 11,300 pounds. 13,990 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 478.) With a reported temperature of 5 degrees C, and a weight of 57,000 pounds, an altitude of 5,355 feet, and V1/VR ratio of 1.0, the accelerate-stop distance is. 4,100 feet. 4,900 feet. 5,700 feet.

Excessive takeoff speeds may result in approximately a. 4% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed. 1% takeoff distance increase for each 2% of additional takeoff speed. 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.

(Refer to Figures 318 and 439.) With a reported temperature of 30 C with packs on and anti-ice off, the Reference B is. 28.2. 29.8. 30.7.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) How much fuel is burned during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-1?. 4,100 pounds. 3,600 pounds. 4,000 pounds.

As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will. increase due to a greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. remain the same since compression of intel air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. decrease due to higher density altitude.

Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?. Higer-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. Lower-than-standar air density. Increased headwind component.

(Refer to Figures 340, 451, and 452) With a reported temperature of 20 C, flaps set at 8, engine bleeds closed and a takeoff weight of 79,500 pounds, the takeoff safety speed is. 154 knots. 160 knots. 162 knots.

Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces?. Turbine wheel(s). Turbine vanes. Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s).

(Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-2?. 14,700 feet. 17,500 feet. 18,300 feet.

A definition of the term 'viscous hydroplaning' is where. the airplane rides on stranding water. a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melter rubber.

What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?. 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a hight of 50 feet over the treshold. 115 percent of the runway length requires for a dry runway. 115 percent of the runway length requieres for a wet runway.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-4?. 33,000 pounds. 31,500 pounds. 34,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-4?. 2,870 pounds. 2,230 pounds. 1,440 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 231.) Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff climb limit? Airport OAT: 38 degrees C Airport Pressure Altitude: 14 ft Flaps: 15 degrees Engine Bleed for packs: On Anti-ice: Off. 136,000 lb. 137,500 lb. 139,000 lb.

Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?. The computed takeoff distance to reach V(1) must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. No passenger may be carried.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-5?. 73,000 pounds. 72,900 pounds. 72,800 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 461.) What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,600 foot runway at sea level?. 61,000 pounds. 59,000 pounds. 63,000 pounds.

The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is. V(2). V(REF). V(1).

What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?. Higher than at low elevation. Lower than at low elevation. The same as at low elevation.

At what speed, with reference to L/D(MAX), does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?. A speed less than that for L/D(MAX). A speed equal to that for L/D(MAX). A speed greater than that for L/D(MAX).

(Refer to Figure 459.) For a supplemental charter, a still-air range of 2,250 NM is required. The payload for this nonstop trip is. 5,100 pounds. 5,900 pounds. 6,100 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-1?. 19,400 feet. 18,000 feet. 20,200 feet.

(Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-2?. 2.10. 1.99. 2.02.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-3?. 2,940 pounds. 2,520 pounds. 3.250 pounds.

At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 psi?. 90 knots. 99 knots. 110 knots.

Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?. Angle of attack. Altitude. Airspeed.

(Refer to Figures 342 and 450.) With a reported temperature of 40 C, flaps set at 20, and a 3 knot tailwind at a takeoff weight of 84,500, the V1MBE is. 160 knots. 143 knots. 166 knots.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-2?. 210 knots and 1.57 EPR. 210 knots and 1.51 EPR. 210 knots and 1.45 EPR.

What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?. V(MU). V(MD). V(FC).

What is controlled by the waste gate of a turbocharged-reciprocating engine?. Supercharger gear ratio. Exhaust gas discharge. Throttle opening.

What is an area identified by the term 'stopway'?. An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.

Under what conditions might a pilot expect the possibility of hydroplaning?. When landing on a wet runway that is covered in rubber from previous landing. When departing a grooved runway with less than a thousandth of an inch of water. When the adiabatic lapse rate is high, and steam is rising from the landing surface.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-4?. 4,950 pounds. 5,380 pounds. 5,230 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 273 and 474.) With a reported temperature of 45 C, and a weight of 52,000 pounds, the first segment takeoff gross climb gradient is. 0.048%. 0.044%. 0.0419%.

Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of. turbine intel temeprature. shaft horsepower and jet thrust. propeller thrust only.

If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?. Maintain a constant altitude. Maintain a contant attitude. Maintain a constant airspeed and altitude.

How are turbine engines classified?. The type of compressor or combination of compressors they use. The method in which the air-fuel mixture is ignited. The flow of air through the engine and how power is produced.

What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?. Strong vibrations and loud roar. Occasional loud 'band' and flow reversal. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.

(Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds (at 2,350 lbs/min)? Initial weight: 175,500 lb Zero fuel weight: 138,000 lb. 9 minutes. 10 minutes. 8 minutes.

How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil?. An abrupt change in relative wind. A decrease in angle of attack. Sudden decrease in load factor.

(Refer to Figures 336, 451, and 452). With a reported temperature of 5 C, flaps set at 8, engine bleeds closed, and a takeoff weight off 82,000 pounds, the VR is. 150 knots. 147 knots. 158 knots.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-5?. 1 hour 11 minutes. 56 minutes. 62 minutes.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-1?. 5,230 pounds. 5,970 pounds. 5,550 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 470). What are the V1 and VR speeds at ISA+30 degrees C and a field elevation of 4,500 feet for an aircraft weighing 64,000 lbs. and a maximum V1/VR ratio of .98?. 100 and 104 knots. 112 and 115 knots. 135 and 137 knots.

(Refer to Figure 69.) Before departure, you learn that your destination airport's arrivals are holding for 30 minutes on the arrival. In a two-engine aircraft, how many pounds of fuel would be required to hold at 10,000 feet with an EPR of 1.26 and an airplane weight of 85,000 pounds?. 1,155 pounds. 2,310 pounds. 4,620 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-4?. 223 knots and 1.33 EPR. 225 knots and 1.33 EPR. 220 knots and 1.28 EPR.

What should a pilot do to maintain 'best range' airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered?. Increase speed. Maintain speed. Decrease speed.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-1?. 58.1 minutes. 51.9 minutes. 54.7 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb. 13 minutes. 15 minutes. 16 minutes.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-2?. 5 hours 5 minutes. 6 hours 15 minutes. 5 hours 55 minutes.

Approaching the runway 1 degree below glidepath can add how many feet to the landing distance?. 250 feet. 500 feet. 1,000 feet.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-2?. 84 NM. 65 NM. 69 NM.

(Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max cruise EPR for Operating Conditions T-3?. 2.11. 2.02. 1.90.

You are taking off from a runway with a 330 degrees magnetic course. Tower reported winds are 290 degrees at 25 knots. The computed headwind component for takeoff is. 19 knots. 25 knots. 16 knots.

(Refer to Figure 465.) At a weight of 60,000 pounds with 35 flaps, the Reference Stall Speed is. 96 knots. 93 knots. 89 knots.

One typical takeoff error is. Delayed rotation, which may extend the climb distance. premature rotation, which may increase takeoff distance. extended rotation, which may degrade acceleration.

What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine?. Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP)and thrust. Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) How much fuel is burned during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-2?. 2,250 pounds. 2,600 pounds. 2,400 pounds.

Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness?. When wind lift has beed reduced. At high groundspeeds. when the wheels are locked and skidding.

What prevents turbine engines from developing compressor stalls?. Deice valves-fuel heat. TKS system. Compressor bleed valves.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-1?. 145 NM. 137 NM. 134 NM.

(Refer to Figure 465.) What is the reference stall speed if you will be landing the aircraft at 55,000 pounds with 35 degrees of flaps?. 92 knots. 97 knots. 102 knots.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-2?. 10,270 pounds. 9,660 pounds. 10,165 pounds.

What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine fails?. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. Reduction of climb by 80 to 90%. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

(Refer to Figure 422.) At a weight of 68,500 pounds with gear and flaps up, you find the reference stall speed to be. 148 knots. 145 knots. 142 knots.

(Refer to Figures 363 and 429.) At a reported temperature of 10 C with cowl anti-ice on and packs on, the takeoff thrust setting is. 90.0%. 89.1%. 87.4%.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-2?. 1 hour 35 minutes. 1 hour 52 minutes. 1 hour 46 minutes.

(Refer to Figures 340 and 450.) With a reported temperature of 35 C, flaps set at 8, and 5 knots of headwind at a takeoff weight of 82,300 pounds, the V1MBE is. 174 knots. 169 knots. 154 knots.

Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?. Increasing speed or altitude. Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.

(Refer to Figures 331 and 461.) What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 7,500-foot dry runway?. 32,200 pounds. 71,000 pounds. 72,500 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 473.) What is the maximum permissible takeoff weight with an airfield altitude of 7,300 feet and an outside air temperature of 24 degrees C?. 65,000 pounds. 62,400 pounds. 63,800 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 470). What are the V1 and VR speeds at 25 degrees C at sea level for an aircraft weighing 54,500 lbs. and a maximum V1/VR ratio of .93?. 110 and 114 knots. 112 and 121 knots. 97 and 102 knots.

A hot start in a turbine engine is caused by. failed ignition. the engine's failure to accelerate. too much fuel in the combustion chamber.

Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?. Increase speed for a headwind. Increase speed for a tailwind. Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-3?. 2 hours 9 minutes. 1 hour 59 minutes. 1 hour 52 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 438.) With an actual runway length of 6,400 feet with 8 flaps, a 1% downslope, a 200 foot clearway, and 4 knots of tailwind, the Reference A is. 2.12. 2.02. 1.94.

(Refer to Figures 342, 451, and 452.) With a reported temperature of -10 C, flaps set at 8, and cowl anti-ice on, and at a takeoff weight off 77,000 lbs, the VR and V2 speeds are. 143 and 153 knots. 153 and 143 knots. 123 and 133 knots.

What characterizes a transient compressor stall?. Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. Intermittent 'bang,' as backfires and flow reversal take place.

Under what condition is V(MC) the highest?. Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. CG is at the most rearward allowable position. CG is at the most forward allowable position.

(Refer to Figures 329 and 429.) At a reported temperature of -10 C with cowl anti-ice on and packs on, the takeoff thrust setting is. 87.0%. 87.2%. 87.7%.

Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines?. High RPM and low MAP. Low RPM and high MAP. High RPM and high MAP.

For which of these aircraft is the 'clearway' for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?. Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957 and August 30,1959. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958. U.S. certifies air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?. V(S0). V(S). V(S1).

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-5?. 2 hours 55 minutes. 3 hours 10 minutes. 2 hours 59 minutes.

Low pressure air decreases aircraft performance because. the air is denser than higher pressure air. the air is less dense than high pressure air. air expands in the engine during the combustion process.

(Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-3?. 22,200 feet. 19,800 feet. 21,600 feet.

What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)?. Extend flaps to decrease wind loading. Extend gear to provide more drag an increase stability. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.

Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range?. 10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. 25,000 feet to the tropopause. The tropopause to 45,000 feet.

A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight?. The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated groos weight. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. The computed takeoff distance to reach V(1) must no exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.

You are assigned to ferry a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. You know you are restricted to. VFR weather for takeoff, en route, and landing. flight crewmembers only aboard. a computed takeoff distance to reach V1 that cannot exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.

(Refer to Figures 273 and 475.) With a reported temperature of 32 C, and a weight of 58,000 pounds, the second segment takeoff gross climb gradient is. 0.057%. 0.062%. 0.034%.

The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is. limiting compressor speed. limiting exhaust gas temperature. limiting torque.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-1?. 219 knots and 1.83 EPR. 223 knots and 2.01 EPR. 217 knots and 1.81 EPR.

What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHO. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained?. V(MC). V(YSE). V(XSE).

(Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-1?. 1.82. 1.96. 2.04.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-4?. 102,900 pounds. 102,600 pounds. 103,100 pounds.

When is braking performance optimized during landing?. Before the nose wheel touches down. Wheel spin-up at touchdown. Maximum weight on main wheels.

What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?. Clearway. Stopway. Obstruction clearance plane.

Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?. Intermittent 'backfire' stall. Transient 'backfire' stall. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-1?. 25,000 pounds. 26,000 pounds. 24,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-4?. 63 NM. 53 NM. 65 NM.

(Refer to Figures 273 and 457). What is the landing field length on a wet runway with a headwind of 7 knots and an aircraft weight of 83,000 pounds?. 6,600 feet. 7,200 feet. 5,900 feet.

(Refer to Figures 332 and 428.) At a reported temperature of 5 C with engine bleeds off, the takeoff thrust setting is. 87.0%. 87.2%. 88.2%.

What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?. Redice the throttle and then rapidly advance the throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the compressor blades, creating more airflow. Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft's angle of attack. Advance the throttle slowly to increase airflow and decrease the angle of attack on one or more compressor blades.

Which is the correct symbol for design cruising speed?. V(C). V(S). V(A).

(Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-4?. 2.20. 2.07. 2.06.

When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?. Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.

(Refer to Figure 417.) You find one air data computer listed on the MEL as inoperative, leaving one ADC operative during your preflight logbook inspection. This means the flight. must fly non-RVSM flight above FL330. can only fly between FL290. must remain below FL290 unless dispatch obtain a deviation from ATC.

(Refer to Figure 474.) What is the gross climb gradient with the following conditions? Outside air temperature: 0 degrees C Airfield altitude: 4,000 feet Weight: 55,000 pounds. 0.052%. 0.020%. 0.074%.

You touchdown long with a speed of 145 knots on a 9,001 foot runway and the braking is not working, so you decide to takeoff and climb out. The engines require 5 seconds to spool up and then the airplane requires 10 seconds of acceleration time to lift off again. The 5,000 foot marker flashes by. Do you have enough runway to lift off? (Use 132 knots for the average ground speed.). Yes, there will be a margin of 850 feet and almost 3 seconds of decision time. Yes, there will be a margin of 2,001 feet and almost 5 seconds of decision time. No, the runway is 1,340 feet too short and may decision is about 6 seconds too late.

At what speed, with reference to L/D(MAX), does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?. A speed greater than that for L/D(MAX). A speed equal to that for L/D(MAX). A speed less than that for L/D(MAX).

(Refer to Figures 331 and 457.) What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 75,000 pounds on a dry runway with calm winds?. 131 knots and 5,600 feet. 141 knots and 4,600 feet. 141 knots and 5,600 feet.

(Refer to Figure 440, All Engines.) With a reference A of 3.00 and reference B of 28.5, the takeoff weight is limited to. 78,500 pounds. 76,500 pounds. 75,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-4?. 27,900 feet. 22,200 feet. 24,400 feet.

(Refer to Figures 331 and 461.) At a weight of 73,500 pounds, the expected landing field length is. 6,700 feet. 5,650 feet. 6,450 feet.

Arriving over the runway 10 knots over VREF would add approximately how many feet to the dry landing distance?. 800 feet. 1,700 feet. 2,800 feet.

(Refer to Figure 460.) At a weight of 77,500 pounds, and a landing elevation below 5,000 feet, the VREF is. 139 knots. 141 knots. 143 knots.

You touchdown long with a speed of 145 knots on a 8,501 foot runway and the braking is not working, so you decide to takeoff and climbout. The engines require 5 seconds to spool up and then the airplane requires 10 seconds of acceleration to lift off again. The 4,000 foot marker flashed by 2 seconds ago. Do you have enough runway to lift off? (Use 143 knots for average ground speed due to the tailwind.). Yes, there will be a margin of about 850 feet which is almost 3 seconds of decision time. Yes, there will be a margin of almost 101 feet which is about 1.5 seconds of decision time. No, the runway is 99 feet too short and may decision was about 0.4 seconds too late.

(Refer to Figures 297 and 481.) With a reported temperature of 0 C, at 500 feet AGL after takeoff, and airspeed of 145 knots IAS, the radius of turn is. 7,850 feet. 8,150 feet. 8,450 feet.

(Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-5?. 2.00. 2.04. 1.96.

You are rolling out after touchdown and decide you really need to abort your landing, and takeoff. Your airplane is at 116 knots and your engines have spooled down to 71% idle. You need a V2 of 142 to safely lift off and climb. The airplane will require 6 seconds to accelerate after the engines spool up to takeoff thrust, which requires 4 seconds. How much runway will you require for a safe landing abort from your decision point? (Use an average of 129 knots ground speed.). 1,738 feet. 2,178 feet. 3,601 feet.

Upon landing, thrust reversers. are required to obtain the calculated stopping distance. should be deployed as soon as the nose wheel is in firm contact with the runway. should be deployed immediately upon landing when airspeeds are highest.

Which is a definition of V(2) speed?. Takeoff decision speed. Takeoff safety speed. Minimum takeoff speed.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-3?. 4 hours 15 minutes. 3 hours 40 minutes. 4 hours.

Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?. Compressor discharge. Fuel spray nozzles. Turbine inlet.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-5?. 15,000 pounds. 20,000 pounds. 19.000 pounds.

What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?. Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. Thrust will be higher becuase more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-5?. 219 knots and 1.28 ERP. 214knots and 1.26 ERP. 218 knots and 1.27 ERP.

While on an ILS approach, what is the proper way to recover from an impending stall?. Engaging the autopilot. Changing flap settings. Reducing the angle of attack.

(Refer to Figure 469.) With an OAT of -20 C at 20,000 feet and an IAS of 150, the Maximum Continuous Power Torque Setting is. 64%. 66%. 68%.

What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?. No effect on hydroplaning, but increase landing roll. Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied. Increases hydroplaning potential regardell of braking.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-2?. 33,000 pounds. 28,000 pounds. 35,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-5?. 70 NM. 52 NM. 61 NM.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-3?. 217 knots and 1.50 EPR. 215 knots and 1.44 EPR. 216 knots and 1.40 EPR.

What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?. Increase takeoff distance. Decrease takeoff speed. Decrease takeoff distance.

How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?. Immediately after grounds contact. Immediately prior to touchdown. After applying maximum wheel breaking.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-4?. 6 hours 50 minuted. 5 hours 45 minutes. 5 hours 30 minutes.

What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?. As air density decreases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

A jet airplane is flying at .72 Mach with an OAT of -40 degrees C. What is the true airspeed?. 430 knots. 452 knots. 464 knots.

(Refer to figure 393.) Note: Applicants may request a printed copy of the chart(s) or graph(s) for use while computing the answer. All printed pages must be returned to test proctor. With an OAT of 10 degrees C, inertial separator in bypass and cabin heater, you calculate maximum torque for climb to be. 1795 ft-lbs. 1695 ft-lbs. 1615 ft-lbs.

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative?. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing. The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and sunrise.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-4?. 48.3 minutes. 50.7 minutes. 51.3 minutes.

At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 psi?. 85 knots. 80 knots. 75 knots.

Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?. Reverted rubber hydroplaning. Dynamic hydroplaning. Viscous hydroplaning.

(Refer to Figure 459.) With a payload of 20,000 pounds, the still-air range is. 1,350 NM. 1,410 NM. 1,590 NM.

Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing configuration?. V(S). V(S1). V(S0).

Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?. The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its three turbine engines is inoperative?. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and official sunrise. Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-1?. 1,625 pounds. 1,950 pounds. 2,440 pounds.

Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an airplane?. V(LE). V(MO)/V(MO). V(LO)/M(LO).

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-2?. 2,250 pounds. 2,500 pounds. 3,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-5?. 6,250 pounds. 5,380 pounds. 7,120 pounds.

Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?. Critical engine failure speed. Rotation speed. Accelerate-stop distance.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-3?. 82,100 pounds. 82,500 pounds. 82,200 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 271.) For a takeoff from Runway 25L at LAX, what is the minimum climb gradient that ATC expects the aircraft to maintain?. 500 feet per minute climb. 200 feet per minute climb. 400 feet per minute climb.

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?. Apply full main wheel braking only. Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abrptly. Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.

The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at V(EF), at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol. V(2min). V(1). V(LOF).

(Refer to Figures 330 and 428.) At a reported temperature of 30 C with engine bleeds closed, the takeoff thrust setting is. 91.9%. 87.4%. 90.9%.

(Refer to Figures 329 and 428.) At a reported temperature of 20 C with engine bleeds closed, the takeoff thrust setting is. 92.1%. 92.3%. 88.4%.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-5?. 2,950 pounds. 2,870 pounds. 2,400 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 25,000 pounds? Initial weight: 179,500 lb Zero fuel weight: 136,500 lb. 10 minutes. 9 minutes. 8 minutes.

Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway?. At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.

What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?. Maximum range and distance glide. Best angle of climb. Maximum endurance.

How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?. Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decrease. Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.

The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is. V(2). V(1). V(EF).

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-3?. 36,000 pounds. 34,500 pounds. 33,000 pounds.

Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskind. Low gross weight. High density altitude.

(Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb. 15 minutes. 14 minutes. 13 minutes.

(Refer to Figures 327 and 457.) With a weight of 69,000 pounds, flaps 45, calm winds, the VREF is. 136 knots. 133 knots. 129 knots.

(Refer to Figures 321 and 458.) With a reported temperature of 15 C, a 0.8% upslope, and calm winds, the maximum permissible quick turn-around landing weight is. 81,000 pounds. 81,600 pounds. 82,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-1?. 4 hours 5 minutes. 4 hours 15 minutes. 4 hours.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-3?. 95 NM. 79 NM. 57 NM.

(Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-5?. 8,800 feet. 9,600 feet. 13,000 feet.

(Refer to Figures 287 and 421.) The winds are reported as 220/15. You compute tailwind component, hoping for a Runway 33 takeoff. You compute the tailwind to be. 14 knots. 10 knots. 5 knots.

What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to. best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on ground, then lift off and climb at that speed. V(MC), then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed. an airspeed slightly above V(MC), then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.

The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the. L/D(MAX). lift at low speed. drag and reduce airspeed.

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Positive dynamic stability. Positive static stability. Neutral dynamic stability.

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?. An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. An increase in dynamic stability.

What is the purpose of a servo tab?. move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?. Maximum single-engine rate of climb. Maximum single-engine angle of climb. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.

Which engine is the 'critical' engine of a twin-engine airplane?. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage. The on designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight, the load factor would be. 2 Gs. 3 Gs. 9 Gs.

What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?. The same true airspeed and angle of attack. A higher true airspeed for any give angle of attack. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.

What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow?. Supersonic Mach number. Transonic Mach number. Critical Mach number.

What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?. Initial buffet speed. Critical Mach number. Transonic index.

What is a difference between the fowler flap system and split flap system?. Fowler flaps produce the greatest change in pitching moment. Fowler flaps produce more drag. Split flaps cause the greatest change in twisting loads.

Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?. Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flights. Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures.

Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?. Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift. Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component. Compensate for increase in drag.

What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude?. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no change in the load factor.

What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.

What could cause a turbine engine hot start?. Lack of airflow due to insufficient turbine RPM. Inlet and compressor airflow imbalance. Insufficient fuel in the combustion chamber.

As an airplane climbs to higher altitudes, what happens to the calibrated airspeed in relation to true airspeed?. It remains equal. It decreases. It increases.

While operating a turbojet transport airplane at high altitude, which of the following is most likely to cause a low speed Mach buffet?. Reducing the angle of attack after a high speed Mach buffet. The airplane is flown too fast for its weight and altitude. The airplane is flown too slow for its weight and altitude.

When compared to plain flaps, split flaps. produce more lift with less drag. produce only slightly more lift, but much more drag. enhance takeoff performance in high density conditions.

If the boundary layer separates. drag is decreased. the wing is about to stall and stop producing lift. ice will sublimate and not freeze.

What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range?. Sluggish in aileron control. Sluggish in rudder control. Unstable about the lateral axis.

How does an increase in an aircraft's weight affect its climb performance?. The aircraft will climb at a lower angle of attack, which allows for a higher TAS and higher rate of climb. Both parasite and induced drag are increased, which will lower the reverse thrust available to climb. A higher aircraft weight required that the aircraft is configured for climb earlier in the departure which allows a greater climb gradient.

What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?. It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. It prevents the portion of the balde near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.

At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?. Below .75 Mach. From .75 to 1.20 Mach. From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

Swept wings causes a significant. increase in effectiveness of flaps. reduction in effectiveness of flaps. flap actuation reliability issue.

What is the absolute ceiling of an airplane?. The point where the minimum rate of climb becomes lower than the optimum L/D(MAX) speed. The altitude at which the aircraft is unable to climb at more than 100 feet per minute. When the maximum rate of climb and the maximum angle of climb speeds converge.

How does the stall speed (KCAS) vary as you climb from sea level to 33,000 feet?. It varies directly with a change in altitude. It remains relatively unchanged throughout the climb. It varies indirectly with a change in altitude.

How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?. The same angle of attack. A lower angle of attack. A higher angle of attack.

What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?. Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. Highest tall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.

During a turn with constant power. the aircraft nose will pitch down. the aircraft will decelerate. the rate of descent will increase.

At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?. Low speed. High speed. Any speed.

When are inboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High-speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

Which of the following is considered a primary flight control?. Slats. Elevator. Dorsal fin.

Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straightwing design?. The critical Mach number will increase significantly. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.

When does a typical aircraft exhibit reduced longitudinal stability?. With the center of gravity (CG) near the aft limit. With the center of gravity (CG) near the forward limit. With the center of gravity (CG) at a mid-range location.

Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?. Ruddervator. Upper rudder. Leading-edge flaps.

What is the purpose of a control tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

On which type of wing are flaps most effective?. Thin wing. Thick wing. Sweptback wing.

What is load factor?. Lift multiplied by the total weight. Lift subtracted from the total weight. Lift divided by the total weight.

What adverse flight characteristics could result from operating an aircraft with the center of gravity (CG) beyond the published forward limitations???. The flight control forces may become very light. It could be difficult or impossible to flare for landing. It could be difficult or impossible to recover from a stall.

For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.

Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?. Delays the onset of drag divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron effectiveness at high speeds. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at low speeds. Breaks the airflow over the wings so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.

Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane?. With one engine inoperative. With climb power on. With full flaps and gear extended.

What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?. Decreases profile drag. Changed the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.

A bank angle of 15 degrees will increase induced drag by about. 3%. 7%. 15%.

During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift and centrifugal force?. Centrifugal force is less than the horizontal lift component and the load factor is increased. Centrifugal force is greater than the horizontal lift component. Centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component are equal, and the load factor is decreased.

Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.

What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be. the same. two times greater. four time greater.

For significant benefit, wing sweep must be at least. 30° to 35°. 45° to 50°. 55° or more to substantially delay compressibility effects.

What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?. A high-speed stall and sudden pithcup. A severe moment or 'Mach tuck.'. Sever porpoising.

Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur?. .50 to .75 Mach. .75 to 1.20 Mach. 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?. The wing root stall prior to the wingtip section. The wingtip sections stalls prior to the wing root. Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts foward.

For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn. Increases with an increase in airspeed. remains constant regardless of airspeed changes. decreases with an increase in airspeed.

Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

When are outboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High-speed slight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative static stability. Positive static stability. Negative dynamic stability.

A turbojet airplane has an increase in specific range with altitude, which can be attributed to three factors. One of those factors is. an increase in altitude in the troposphere results in higher enery air flow. an increase in proportion in velocity versus thrust required. decreased engine turbine speeds.

Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?. Rate of turn. Angle of bank. True airspeed.

Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps?. Increase the camber of the wing. Redice lift without increasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

The stall speed of an airplane. is constant regardless of weight or airfoil configuration. is affected by weight, and bank angle. is not affected by dynamic pressures and lift co-efficient.

An airplane loaded with the Center of Gravity aft of the rear CG limit could. make it easier to recover from stalls and spins. make it more difficult to flare for landing. increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress.

Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?. Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wigtips at high speeds. Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.

If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?. Lift increases and the sink rate increases. Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases. Lift decreases ad the sink rate increases.

Generally, the turning performance of an airplane is defined by. structural and power limits at high altitude. aerodynamic and structural limits at low altitude. control and structural limits at high altitude.

What affects indicated stall speed?. Weight, load factor, and power. Load factor, angle of attack, and power. Angle of attack, weight, and air density.

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative longitudinal static stability. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. Neutral longitudinal static stability.

Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.

What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?. Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.

What effect does extending leading edge slats have on an airplane's wing?. Increases the pitch up moment of an airfoil. Increases the camber and CL(MAX). Allows for earlier airflow separation.

What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock-stalled first?. Inward and atf. Inward and forward. Outward and forward.

What effect, if any, does altitude have on V(MC) for an airplane with unsupercharged engines?. None. Increases with altitude. Decreases with altitude.

Aerodynamic braking is only effective up to approximately. 30% of touchdown speed. 30 to 50% of touchdown speed. 60 to 70% of touchdown speed.

What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?. Drag increases because of increased induced drag. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.

What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at V(MC)?. Heading. Heading and altitude. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.

What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?. Rate will decrease and radius will increase. Rate will increase and radius will decrease. Rate and radius will increase.

What is a purpose of flight spoilers?. Increase the camber of the wing. Reduce lift without decreasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

How does Vs (KTAS) speed vary with altitude?. Remains the same at all altitudes. Varies directly with altitude. Varies inversely with altitude.

What is an advantage of a sweptback wing?. It allows shock wave induced flow separation. The design delays the onset of compressibility. The wings tend to stall at the wing root first.

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.

When piloting a turbojet transport airplane, what is a possible result when operating at speeds 5 to 10 percent above the critical Mach number?. Increased aerodynamic efficiency. Decreased control surface effectiveness. Occasional low speed Mach buffet warnings.

What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing?. The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approaching and landing. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

Precise roll control using a rudder on a transport category airplane. can be effective when turbulence is encountered. is difficult and therefore nor recommended. should be considered to assist the yaw damper.

Upon landing, spoilers. decrease directional stability on the landing rollout. function by increasing tire to ground friction. should be extended after the thrust reversers have been deployed.

Swept wings. improve specific fuel consumpition. increase the critical Mach number. increase the speed of sound quotient.

Describe dynamic longitudinal stability. Motion about the longitudinal axis. Motion about the lateral axis. Motion about the vertical axis.

Ground spoilers used after landing are. more effective at low speed. equally effective at any speed. more effective at high speed.

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's. lift, gross weight, and drag. lift, airspeed, and drag. lift and airspeed, but not drag.

In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?. While maneuvering at minimum controllable airspeed or less to avoid overbanking. When operating at any airspeed of Vmc or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip. When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude of over 60°.

What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?. Prevent flow separation. Decrease rate of sink. Increase profile drag.

'MAY NOT BE AVBL', as indicated in the following GPS NOTAMs: SFO 12/051 SFO WAAS LNAV/VNAV AND LPV MNM MAY NOT BE AVBL WEF0512182025-0512182049 means. within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support LPV approaches. satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches. within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support RNAV and MLS approaches.

(Refer to Figure 226.) What does the outbound destination sign identify?. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by. high performance aircraft. helicopters. high flight deck aircraft.

How long is flight deck voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?. 60 days. 90 days. 30 days.

(Refer to Figure 224.) The ILS critical area markings denote. where you are clear of the runway. where you must be to start your ILS procedure. where you are clear of the ILS critical area.

What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?. Notify ATC immediately. Squawk 7600. Monitor the VOR receiver.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation 'B' correspond?. 11. 5 and 13. 7 and 11.

Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?. Coded identification T-E-S-T. Identifier is precede by 'M' and intermittent 'OFF' flag might appear. An automatic voice recording starting the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.

What are the indications of precision approach path indicator (PAPI)?. High - white; on glidepath - red and white; low - red. High - white; on glidepath - green; low - red. High - white and green; on glidepath - green; low - red.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation 'E' correspond?. 8 only. 8 and 3. 3 only.

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?. Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights. Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone. Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution zone.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation 'G' correspond?. 4 only. 11 only. 12 only.

Risk is increased when flightcrew members. fail to monitor automated navigation systems. allocate time to verify expected performance of automated systems. question the performance of each other's duties.

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'B' correspond?. 9. 13. 19.

The sign shown is an example of. a mandatory instruction sign. runway heading notification signage. an airport directional sign,.

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, a required alternate airport must have. an approved instrument approach procedure, beside GPS, that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA. A GPS approach that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA. authorization to fly approached under IFR using GPS avionics.

How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?. LDA - 6° or 12° wide, ILS -3° to 6°. LDA - offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway. LDA - 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.

In advanced avionics aircraft, proper automation management requires. relying on flight management systems to navigate in order for the pilot to perform other tasks. a thorough understanding of how the autopilot interacts with other systems. the pilot to refrain from monitoring the automation after initial programming.

Lights which indicate the runway is occupied are. VASI. RWSL. PAPI.

An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment. to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. to be inoperative anytime with no other documentation required or procedures to be followed. to be inoperative for one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without further documentation from the operator or FAA with passengers on board.

If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only. When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFT/OT en route. In VFT conditions. in day VFR conditions.

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request ATC clearance for the deviation. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

(Refer to Figure 249.) You arrive at PILOC. The preflight briefer issued you an "unreliable" advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates good signal. You. know you can only fly the approach down to LNAV DA minimum of 459 ft. because of the FSS advisory. can use the LPV minimum of 368'DA and 2400 RVR in your CAT B airplane. can only fly the approach down to the LNAV MDA of 560'.

With no traffic identified by TCAS when in 10 miles of visibility, you. can rest assured that no other aircraft is near. must continually scan for other traffic. must scan only for hot air balloons and gliders.

(Refer to Figure 250.) You arrive at DUMBB for the RNAV (GPS) at CHA. Before takeoff, the preflight briefer states WAAS may be unreliable. Your avionics are good and you have full GPS service. You. can descent to the LNAV MDA of 1,200 feet and 2,400 RVR due to the FSS advisory. descent to the LPV minima of 882 feet and 2,400 RVR in your cant B aircraft. can descent to the LNAV MDA 518 feet fue to the FSS advisory.

Automated flight decks or cockpits. improve basic flight skills. decrease the workload in terminal areas. sometimes hide errors.

A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall. not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

(Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'C' for a takeoff on Runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 1,800 feet.

During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356° with the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may. be used if 4° is entered on a correction card and subtracted form all VOR courses. be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits. not be used during IFR flights, since the TO/FROM should read TO.

If you notice ATC is unusually quiet and one of your VHF transmit lights is illuminated, then you should suspect. your VHF receiver is inoperative. your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably have a stuck microphone. the radio is performing a self-test function.

Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?. 108.10 to 118.10 MHZ. 108.10 to 111.95 MHZ. 108.10 to 117.95 MHZ.

What functions are provided by ILS?. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. Guidance, range, and visual information.

Automated flight decks or cockpits. enhance basic pilot flight skills. decrease the workload in terminal areas. often create much larger pilot errors than traditional flight decks.

Identify REIL. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'C' correspond?. 6. 7. 12.

During a constant-rate climb in IMC above the freezing level, you notice that both the airspeed and altitude are increasing. This indicates the. aircraft is in an unusual attitude. gyroscopic instruments have failed. pitot static system has malfunctioned.

(Refer to Figure 157.) This is an example of. An ILS critical area holding position sign. a runway boundary sign. an ILS critical area boundary sign.

What does the precision approach path indicator (PAPI) consist of?. Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white and green. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. One light projector with two colors; red and white.

(Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'C' for a daytime takeoff on Runway 9?. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet. 1,500 feet.

Detailed investigations of runway incursions have identified. 2 major areas of contributing factors. 3 major areas of contributing factors. 4 major areas of contributing factors.

What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?. The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of hours flown since last check, and signature in the aircraft log. The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record. The date, approval or disapproval, tach reading, and signature in the aircraft log or other permanent records.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which HSI presentation does aircraft 8 correspond, if on a back course to the Runway 9 approach?. Figure H. Figure I. Figure E.

A land and hold short operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: must result in a landing. does not preclude a rejected landing. precludes a rejected landing.

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?. 4° on the ground and in flight. 6° on the ground and in flight. 6° in flight and 4° on the ground.

(Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. 166. 346. 354.

(Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?. 174. 166. 335.

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach, the pilot should. continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured. proceed as cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory. select another type of approach using another type of navigation aid.

If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?. They are both the same, 31,000 feet. True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet. Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.

Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?. Inner marker. Middle compass locator. Outer compass locator.

The airport markings, signage and lighting associated with land and hold short (LAHSO) consists of: yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage, and i-pavement lights. red and white signage, yellow hold-short markings, and at some airports, in-pavement lights. red and black signage, in-pavement lights, and yellow hold-short markings.

Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?. Radar, VOR, ADF, taxiway lead-off lights and RVR. RCLS and REIL. All of the required ground components.

Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?. All turbine powered airplanes. Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes only. Large turbine-powered airplanes only.

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'D' correspond?. 4. 15. 17.

Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?. Air Carrier's Operations Specifications. International Flight Information Manual. Airplane Flight Manual.

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'A' correspond?. 1. 8. 11.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'F' correspond?. 4. 11. 5.

Outside the Western U.S. Mountainous Area the VOR MON will provide nearly continuous navigation signal coverage across the national airspace system an altitude of. 5,000 feet AGL. 5,000 feet MSL. 10,000 feet MSL.

A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver. over the MAWP. after the MAWP. just prior the the MAWP.

The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation. are useful in decreasing flightcrew fatigue. have proven to increase safety in operations. may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.

(Refer to Figure 139.) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?. R-175. R-165. R-345.

A Runway Status Light (RWSL) System at an airport. relies on ASDE-X/Airports Surface Surveillance Capability (ASSC). allows ATC to override any RWSL false indications. does not require pilots to tell ATC when executing a go-around.

When does the National Weather Service release an Aviation Notification Watch Message (SAW)?. At 0000 (UTC). At 0000 and 1200 (UTC). Unscheduled and issued as required.

When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits,. greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved. risk is increased. risk is decreased.

Takeoff hold lights (THL) are a part of the. automatic runway status light system. tower operated runway stop light system. ground controller operated ramp status holding light system.

If a visual descent point (VDP) is published on a GPS approach, it. will be coded in the waypoint sequence and identifies using ATD. will not be included in the sequence of waypoints. must be included in the normal waypoints.

Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will. cancel the approach mode annunciation. require flying point-to-point on the approach to comply with the published approach procedure. have no affect if the approach is flown manually.

Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?. Inner marker. Middle compass locator. Outer compass locator.

Automation in aircraft has proven. to present new hazards in its limitations. that automation is basically flawless. effective in preventing accidents.

It is important for a pilot to ask for site-specific WAAS MAY NOT BE AVBL NOTAMs for the destination airport before a flight because. Air Traffic Control will not advise pilots of site-specific WAAS MAY NOT BE AVBL NOTAMs. Air Traffic Control will confirm that you have site-specific information from preflight briefing. this provides for a second level of safety in the National Airspace System.

When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should. operate the transponder only when the airport is under IFR or at night during your taxi. operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing. be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC request while taxing.

If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to. proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation. proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, complete an instrument approach and land.

Over the contiguous U.S., the VOR MON assures that a MON airport will be available within how many miles of the aircrafts position. 80 NM. 100 NM. 120 NM.

Which 'rule-of-thumb' may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath?. 5 times groundspeed in knots. 8 times groundspeed in knots. 10 times groundspeed in knots.

What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?. A test signal, 'TESTING,' is sent every 30 seconds. Identifier is preceded by 'M' and an intermittent 'OFF' flag would appear. The identifier would be removed.

Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a. the pilot must review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular receiver. procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur.

GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement. a sovereign country or governmental unit. the FAA Administrator only.

(Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'F' for a daytime takeoff on Runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 1,000 feet.

When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDs, which rule applies?. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwind. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and land anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.

What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?. Pilots have a choice of glide angles. A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low flight deck aircraft. The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height.

Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check?. Frequency, radial and facility used, and bearing error. Flight hours and number of days since last check, and bearing error. Date, place, bearing error, and signature.

Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are. white in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. yellow in color and the dashed lines are neared the runway. yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'E' correspond?. 5. 6. 15.

Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?. VOR/DME FIX. Surveillance radar. Compass locator.

How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?. Indication will drop to zero. Indication will rise to the top of the scale. Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.

TCAS II provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. maneuver in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?. The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.

When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suitable RNAV system equipped?. In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required. For flights at or above FL 180.

For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system,. a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test. a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased. a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second identifies as a high-pitched tone. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second identifies as a low-pitched tone. Alternate dots and dashes identifies as an intermediate tone.

THL is the acronym for. Takeoff hold lights. Taxi holding lights. Terminal holding lights.

When approaching a holding position sign for a runway approach area you must. obtain ATC clearance prior to crossing. hold only when specifically instructed by ATC. hold only when the weather is below 800 feet and 2-niles visibility.

A flight deck voice recorder must be operated. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine shutdown. when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.

Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request a new ATC clearance. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

(Refer to Figure 156.) This sign, visible to the pilot on the runway, indicates. a point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by the tower. a point at which the aircraft will be cleared of the runway. the point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.

Missed approach routing in which the first track is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint requires. that the GPS receiver be sequenced to the missed approach portion of the procedure. manual intervention by the pilot, but will not be required, if RAIM is available. additional action by the operator to set the course.

(Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'D' for a daytime takeoff on Runway 9?. 3,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 1,500 feet.

(Refer to Figure 227.) The "taxiway ending" marker. identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. indicates taxiway does not continue. provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?. After passing the visual descent point (VDP). When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. When the red terminal bar of the approach light system are in sight.

In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?. RCLS and REIL. Radar, VOR, ADF, runway exits lights, and RVR. Each required ground component.

En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?. 585 feet. 1,300 feet. Sea level.

If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker?. A series of two dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light. Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second, and a white marker beacon light. A series of two dash combinations, and a white marker beacon light.

When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight?. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. In terminar radar services areas. Above 12,500 feet MSL.

TCAS I provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.

Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. yellow inscription on a black background. white inscription on a black background. black inscription on a yellow background.

What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the. Airplane Flight Manual. International Aeronautical Information Manual. Air Carrier's holder's Operations Specifications.

In conducting land and hold short operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: the published available landing distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. the published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. the landing performance of the aircraft, published available landing distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds.

Given: Pressure altitude 1,000 ft True air temperature 10°C From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is. 1,000 feet MSL. 650 feet MSL. 450 feet MSL.

If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document required under 14 CFR Part 121 dictates whether the flight may continue en route?. A Master Minimum Equipment List for the airplane. Original dispatch release. Certificate holder's manual.

The ILS critical area sign indicates. where aircraft are prohibited. the edge of the ILS critical area. the exit boundary.

For what purpose may flight deck voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used?. Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigation by the NTSB. Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence. Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting in investigation under NTSB part 830.

When instructed by ATC to 'hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),' the pilot should stop. with the nose gear on the hold line. so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?. Green, yellow, and white beacon lights. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

(Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?. 1°. 2°. 4.°.

Each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate it in the transmit mode. at all times unless otherwise authorized by the FAA or directed by ATC. when operating in Class B and C airspace, excluding operations conducted under day VFR. all classes of airspace when the flight is operated for compensation or hire but not otherwise.

A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when. operations are conducted IFR or VFR on Top. operation are conducted over water more than 50 miles from shore. the airplane's position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour.

If flying a published GPS departure,. the data base will contain all of the transition or departures form all runways. and if RAIM is available, manual intervention by the pilot should nos be required. the GPS receiver must be set to terminar course deviation indicator sensitivity.

What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?. 0 DME miles. 2 DME miles. 2.3 DME miles.

Land and hold short operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: of an intersecting taxiway only. of some designated point on the runway. only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

(Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'B' for a daytime takeoff on Runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 3,000 feet.

How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?. Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the centerline of the taxiway. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the edge of the taxiway. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to a point on the exit.

When you see this pavement marking from the flight deck, you. can taxi past this point at your own risk. must hold short until "cleared" to taxi onto or past the runway. may not cross the line until ATC allows you to "enter" or "cross" by instruction.

(Refer to Figure 251). You are cleared to HNL and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach. Assuming you have received the training, you. should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS with the radio frequency to fly this approach. can use the GPS and radio frequency communications to fly this approach to minimums. must know ahead of time whether or not you FMS/GPS has GPS and radius-to-fix capability.

Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular GPS receiver. air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications. the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a.

Reliance on automation can translate to. decreased flight deck workload. increased error awareness. lack of manual handling skills.

With no traffic identified by TCAS, you. can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area. must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions. must scan only for hot air balloons.

A pilot employed by an air carrier and/or commercial operator may conduct GPS/WAAS instrument approaches. if they are not prohibited by the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual and the flight manual supplement. only if approved in their air carrier/commercial operator operations specifications. only if the pilot was evaluated on GPS/WAAS approach procedures during their most recent proficiency check.

If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?. Lower than pressure altitude. Higher than pressure altitude. Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layer at lower altitudes.

When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard. effect of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. corrections for static pressure system. corrections for instrument error.

Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL). Two rows of transverse light bars disposed simmetrically about the runway centerline. Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone. Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone.

(Refer to Figure 223.) The 'runway hold position' sign denotes. an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway. an entrance to a taxiway from a runway. intersecting runways.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation 'A' correspond?. 9 and 6. 9 only. 6 only.

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?. High altitudes close to the VORTAC. Low altitudes close to the VORTAC. Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'C' correspond?. 9. 4. 12.

What does the pulsating VASI consist of?. Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. One-light projector, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.

Holding position signs have. white inscriptions on a red background. red inscriptions on a white background. yellow inscriptions on a red background.

(Refer to Figure 252.) In reviewing the RNAV/GPS procedure RWY 4 LEW, the lack of shaded fan from the 1.6 NM point to the runway indicates. the visual segment below the MDA/DA is not clear of obstacles on a 34 to 1 slope. it does not have VASI. you can descend on a 20 to 1 slope to remain clear of all obstacles.

Humans are characteristically. disposed to appreciate the workload imposed by automation. disposed to expect automation to fail ofter. poor monitors of automated system.

Runway centerline lights as seen from the flight deck begin to alternate white and red in the last. 1,000 feet of runway distance remaining. 2,000 feet of runway distance remaining. 3,000 feet of runway distance remaining.

While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?. One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. Airborne radar. DME.

Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived. altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. position is not affected. velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed.

The lowest ILS Category II minimums are. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet. DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.

What would authorize an air carrier to conduct a Special Instrument Approach Procedure?. Operations specifications. Compliance statement. Training specifications.

What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?. High - pulsing white; on glidepath - green; low - pulsing red. High - pulsing white; on glidepath - steady white; slightly below glide slope - steady red; low - pulsing red. High - pulsing white; on course and on glidepath - steady white; off course but on glidepath - pulsing white and red; low - pulsing red.

What does the absence of the shaded arrowhead after the VDP on a GPS approach indicate?. Obstacle obstructions between the VDP and the runway. A 20:1 glideslope. A 60:1 glideslope.

What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?. Pressure altitude corrected by instrument error. Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.

Automation has been found to. create much larger errors at times. improve crew situational awareness skills. substitute for a lack of aviation experience.

(Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'E' for a daytime takeoff on Runway 9?. 1,500 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet.

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?. VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and transponder within 24 calendar months. ELT test within 30 days, altimeter system within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months. Airspeed indicator within 24 calendar months, altimeter system within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 12 calendar months.

When should transponders be operated on the ground while taxiing?. Only when ATC specifically requests that the transponder to be activated. Any time the airport is operating under IFR. All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.

Operations at and above FL180 require the use of what onboard avionics equipment?. Flight Information Services, Broadcast and Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast. Traffic Information Services - Broadcast and Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast. Traffic Information Services - Broadcast and Flight Information Services - Broadcast.

When the temperature is -20C at 15,000 feet indicated, you know that. altimeters automatically compensate for temperature variations. the altimeter is indicating higher than true altitude. the altimeter is indicating lower than true altitude.

If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is. plus or minus 6°. plus 6° or minus 4°. plus or minus 4°.

(See Figure 9751.) The moving map below reflects a loss of. position information. the AHRS. The ADC.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'I' correspond?. 12 only. 9 only. 4 only.

Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems. Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway.

(Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'D' for a daytime takeoff on Runway 9?. 500 feet. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet.

(Refer to Figure 228.) What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. Denotes intersecting runways.

If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach is inoperative,. The RVR required to begin the approach is increased by 20%. the DA/DH is increased by 50 feet. the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.

Information recorded during normal operation of a flight deck voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for at least 30 minutes. may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.

All runway hold markings consist of. 2 dashed and 1 solid yellow line. 2 dashed and 2 solid yellow line. 1 dashed and 1 solid yellow line.

The most important markings on an airport are. ILS critical area. hold markings. taxiway identification markings.

When flying an aircraft with electronic flight displays (EFDs), risk increases. if the pilot expects the electronics to enhance flight safety and remove pilot error. when the pilot expect the equipment to malfunction on occasion. if the pilot believes the EFD will compensate for lack of skill and knowledge.

Runway Status Lights (REL) are. an independent light system. automatically activated. ATC tower controlled.

Why does the FAA maintain a VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON)?. To provide VOR navigation service in the western mountainous United States below GPS signal coverage. To maintain the enroute Victor airway structure on overwater routes in the Gulf of Mexico. To support navigation of non-DME/DME equipped RNAV aircraft in the event of GPS outage.

A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in. a hard landing. increased landing rollout. landing short of the runway threshold.

An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be. conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route. carrying passengers, but not if it is 'all cargo.'. conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather.

Flight operations conducted in Class A airspace require the aircraft be equipped with a. Extended Squitter ADS-B operating on radio frequency 1090 MHz. Universal Access Transceiver ADS-B operating on the frequency of 978 MHz. Extended Squitter ADS-B operating on radio frequency 978 MHz.

What does "MAY NOT BE AVBL" indicate in the following GPS and WAAS NOTAM: BOS WAAS LPV AND LNAV/VNAV MNM MAY NOT BE AVBL WEF 0305231700 -0305231815?. Satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAC/VNAV approaches to the Boston airport. The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, may no support LPV approaches. The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, will not support LNAV/VNAV and MLS approaches.

What is the purpose of REIL?. Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.

To use a substitute means of guidance on departure procedures, pilots of aircraft with RNAV systems using DME/DME/IRU without GPS input must. ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet at the start point of takeoff roll. ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 2,000 feet of the initialization point.. ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet of pushback.

If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display. an extension of the outbound final approach course, and the ATD will increase from the MAWP. an extension of the outbound final approach course. an extension of the inbound final approach course.

What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?. Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specifies in the operations manual for such an event. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?. ARINC. Any FSS. Appropriate dispatch office.

You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when. the aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign. the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.

(Refer to Figure 241). Hot spots are depicted on airport diagrams as. circle, ellipse, or cylinder. circle, ellipse, or square. ellipse, square, or cylinder.

In the United States, there is an average of. 2 runway incursion every week. 3 runway incursion every day. 4 runway incursion every month.

An aircraft not equipped with DME/DME experiences a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) disruption while enroute. The flight crew will need to navigate using. RNAV. VOR MON. GPS.

An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions where pilotage is not used. What radio navigation equipment is required?. single VOR and DME installed. dual approved independent navigation system. dual VOR, ILSs, and DME.

Airport "hot spots" are. Reserved for contaminated aircraft. Parking spots for military aircraft. Known hazardous runway intersections.

The rate of descent for a 3.5__degree__ angle of descent glideslope is. 740 ft/min at 105 knots groundspeed. 740 ft/min at 120 knots airspeed. 740 ft/min at 120 knots groundspeed.

REL is the acronym for. Runway exit lights. Runway entrance lights. Ramp entry lights.

(Refer to Figure 225.) What is the purpose of no entry sign?. Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering. Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection. Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

(Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV?. 5.0 NM. 7.5 NM. 10.0 NM.

(Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'A' for a nighttime takeoff on Runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 3,000 feet. 3,500 feet.

(Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'A' for a nighttime takeoff on Runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet.

During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?. Increase in indicated airspeed. Decrease in indicated airspeed. Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.

Taxiway centerline lead-off lights are color coded to warn pilots that. they are within the runway environment or run-up danger critical area. they are within the runway environment or ILS critical area. they are within the taxiway and environment or ILS critical area.

When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?. When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale right, or vice versa. When the CDI deflect from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.

(Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. 175. 165. 345.

While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. Advise ATC immediately. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made. Decrease of indicated airspeed during climb. Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.

Identify the runway distance remaining markers. Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining. Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3,000 feet from the end. Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with side denoting distance to end.

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

Information obtained from flight data and flight deck voice recorders shall be used only for determining. who was responsible for any accident or incident. evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. possible causes of accidents or incidents.

While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required?. Descend below Class A airspace. Advise dispatch via company frequency. Notify ATC immediately.

ATC asks you to follow the B737 3 NM ahead of you on the approach path. ATC is responsible to ensure. wake turbulence avoidance. traffic separation only. wind shear avoidance.

Which pressure is defined as station pressure?. Altimeter setting. Actual pressure at field elevation. Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.

(Refer to Figure 251.) In the RNAV (RNP) RWL 26L at HNL profile, what does the shaded triangle below the DA indicate?. The visual segment below the DA is not clear of obstacles. The approach does not have a visual glide slope landing aid. The visual segment is clear.

When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on 'victor airways,' which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?. VOR. ADF. VOR and DME.

High density altitude can reduce turbojet aircraft performance in which of the following ways?. It reduces the likelihood of maintaining laminar flow over the airfoils as airspeed and altitude increases. It reduces thrust because there is a reduced mass of gases to force out of the exhaust. It redices thrust because there is an increased mass of gases that inhibits the outflow of exhaust.

(Refer to Figure 129.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'A' for a daytime takeoff on Runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 2,000 feet.

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on a VFR runway as compared to an IFR Runway?. Yellow lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet or half of the runway length. Lights are spaced closer together. Runway edge lights are white.

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'F' correspond?. 10. 14. 16.

How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?. SDF - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°. SDF - offset from runway plus 4° minimum, ILS- aligned with runway. SDF - 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.

Requests for deviations for inoperable ADS-B equipment may be made to. the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace at any time. the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace at least 1-hour prior. the Federal Aviation Administration 24 hours before the scheduled operation.

Which rule applies to the use of the flight deck voice recorder erasure feature?. All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notifies of an occurrence.

(See Figure 8206.) You see the indication in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120-knot cruise in level flight. You decide the. pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug. standby indicator is defective because there is no red "X" on the speed tape display. airspeed mean attitude is incorrect.

An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?. VOR. VOR and ILS. VOR and DME.

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'D' correspond?. 1. 10. 2.

(Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'B' for a nighttime takeoff on Runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet.

If available, what action could a pilot of an air carrier take if they violate a federal regulation because of an air traffic control direction?. File a report through the Voluntary Disclosure Reporting Program (VDRP). File a report through the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP). File a report through the Flight Operational Quality Assurance Program (FOQA).

What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?. For taxi, takeoff, and landing. Only for takeoff and landing. During taxi, takeoff, landing and after ditching.

Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be. given before the next to last flight segment. given before the beginning of the flight duty period. provided no later than after the first flight segment offered after the first flight segment is completed.

What is meant by "sterile flight deck"?. All preflight checks are complete and the aircraft is ready for engine starting. Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities during critical phase of flight. Crewmembers are seated and buckled at their required stations.

A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar month. 12 calendar month. 24 calendar month.

The holder of an ATP certificate with restricted privileges or an ATP certificate who also holds an aircraft type rating for the aircraft to be flown may act as. a PIC a Part 121 supplemental air carrier. a PIC for a Part 121 air carrier with 500 hours as a Part 121 SIC. an SIC for a Part 121 air carrier.

"Unforeseen operational circumstance" means an. unplanned event insufficient duration to allow for adjustments to schedules. unforecast weather and expected ATC delays. even of sufficient duration to create increased flight time for the certificate holder's operation.

If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should. take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. comply with the company's lost aircraft plan. phone the ATCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.

"Physiological night's rest" means. 9 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember's home base. 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember's home base. 12 hours of rest that encompasses any continuous 8 hour period for unuterrupted or disturbed rest.

When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?. When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing hace been completed in the past 6 months. 120 day after issue or renewal.

The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of. 10,000 feet within 4 minuted. 14,000 feet within 4 minuted. 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.

By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?. The aircraft dispatcher. Air route traffic control center. Director of operations.

Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?. At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimum authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. At least three landing must be made to a complete stop.

The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is. upgrade training. transition training. initial training.

Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a one calendar month period?. 120. 100. 80.

What are the line check requirements for the pilot-in-command for a domestic air carrier?. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplane to be flown. The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.

Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?. Immediately. 7 calendar days. 10 days.

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: destination airport. provisional airport. alternate airport.

The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the. weather reports and forecasts. name of all crewmembers. minimum fuel supply.

An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a Commercial Pilot Certificate, in an approved simulator, is. required to have a First Class Medical Certificate. required to have a Second Class Medical Certificate. not required to have a medical certificate.

What is the minimum rest period required before a flight or reserve duty period?. 8 consecutive hours rest. 10 consecutive hours rest. 12 consecutive hours rest.

No flightcrew member may accept an assignment without scheduled rest opportunities for. more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low. more than 4 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low in a 168 hour period. consecutive nighttime flights beginning after 0001 hours local home base time.

If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?. 1945Z. 2015Z. 0045Z.

According to 14 CFR Part 121, what requirements must the second-in-command possess?. ATP certificate with appropriate type rating. ATP certificate with appropriate second-in-command type rating. ATP certificate and Third Class Medical Certificate.

When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?. One for each passenger seat. one for each passenger, plus 10 percent. One for each occupant of the aircraft.

If the crew van breaks down en route to the rest facility and delays arrival for nearly 2 hours, does the flightcrew member need to notify the certificate holder?. No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 9 hours of uninterrupted rest. No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 8 hours rest. Yes, if the flightcrew member does not have the opportunity for 10 hours of uninterrupted hours free from duty.

If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within. 7 days. 5 days. 48 hours.

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?. 6 hours. 8 hours. 10 hours.

When a replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for. each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude. 30 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must. operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger compartment. be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.

Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to. 180 hours in any 28 consecutive days. 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report. accident and incident data annually. noise complaint statistics for each departure procedure or runway. declared distances for each runway.

A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in 14 CFR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?. 12 months. 90 days. 6 months.

When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?. Within 7 days. Within 10 days. Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

What information is de-identified when a report is submitted through the Aviation Safety Reporting System (ASRS)?. Crew identify information when criminal offenses have occurred. Crew identity information involving time-sensitive data. Crew identity information when prompt NTSB reporting is required.

"Theater" means. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 90 degrees longitude. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more then 75 degree longitude. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs bu no more than 60 degrees longitude.

Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS. preflight check must be conducted by a certifies A&P and signed off in the logbook. pre-departure service check must be certifies bu a PDSC Signatory Person. pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight.

Which of the following meets the requirements of a 'serious injury' as defined by the NTSB?. A simple fracture of the nose or other extemity. An injury which causes severe tendon damage. First-degree burns over 5 percent of the body.

"Rest period" means. an 9-hour continuous period etermined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. a 12-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.

When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraft without deicing equipment, the pilot should. fly to an area with liquid precipitation. fly to a lower altitude. leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?. Seven. Six. Five.

You are the pilot-in-command of a 14 CFR Part 121 domestic operation flight. In addition to yourself, who is jointly responsible for preflight planning, delay, and dispatch release of the flight?. The director of operations. The chief pilot or designed. The aircraft dispatcher.

When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort?. They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft. They shall be boarded after all other passengers board, and deplaned before all the other passengers leave the aircraft. They shall board and depart before the other passengers.

When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?. 1922Z. 1952Z. 0022Z.

Under 14 CFR Part 121, when may nonessential communications take place below 10,000 feet?. In VMC conditions. Before the final approach fix. During cruise flight.

The lowest authorized ILS minimums associated with CAT II approaches are. Decision Height (DH) 200 feet and Runway Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet (with touchdown zone and centerline lighting, RVR 1800 feet). DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. No DH or DH below 50 feet and RVR less than 700 feet but not less than 150 feet.

Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations?. If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aborad. If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. If required by the airplane's type certification.

The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is. 30 minuted at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.

If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?. The second in command only. Any flight crewmember, if quialified. Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?. Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. Load manifest, flight plan, and flight realease. Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.

Flightcrew member's flight duty periods are limited to. 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. 70 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. 60 hours in any 7 days.

For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?. 15,000 feet. 16,000 feet. 14,000 feet.

For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for. 30 minuted for 10 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of passengers for 1.5 hours. each passengers for 30 minutes.

For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in airport/standby reserve time is. not part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period. part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period. part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period after being alerted for flight assignment.

When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for. one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin. may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.

What is considered "south polar"?. south of 60 degrees S latitude. south of 68 degrees S latitude. south of 78 degrees S latitude.

Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive day period?. 48. 52. 32.

If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with deicing equipment, the pilot should. first confirm ice with the ice light prior to deploying the pneumatic boots. operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice. operate the pneumatic deicing system once to allow time for the ice removal.

For unaugmented flightcrew operations, your maximum flight duty period limit is. 13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight segments. 13 hours if assigned to report at 2030 for 3 flights segments. 10.5 hours if assigned to report at 1730 for 6 flights segments.

If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2010 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter check is considered to have been taken in. November 2010. December 2011. January 2011.

When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage?. The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage remains locked and the key is given to the pilot in command. The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember.

For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consuption. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consuption. back to the departure airport.

To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least. six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation system in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.

A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is. 2005Z. 1905Z. 0005Z.

(Refer to Legend 12.) Newport News/Williamsburg Intl is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. The Chart Supplements U.S. contains the following entry: ARFF Index A. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 gallons of water.

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft. for which an AFM or RFM is required by Part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved operator's manual available. for which an AFM or RFM is required by Part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available. for which an AFM or RFM is required by Part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available or the manual specifies in Part 135 section 135.19(b).

Which announcement must be made if the seat belt sign will be turned off during flight?. Clearly explain the location of the fire extinguishers and emergency exits. Passenger should keep their seat belts fastened while seated. Passenger are free to leave their seats once the seat belt sign is turned off.

Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to. 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 180 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

ETOPS entry point means. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 200 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having more than two engines. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 90 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines.

A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above. FL 200. FL 240. FL 250.

An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flight crew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated,. at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it. minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. trip number and weight and balance data. weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.

You did not get a good night's rest and have been on duty for several hours. A sign you may be fatigued is. improved dexterity. decreased short term memory. mental acuteness.

A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?. Upgrade training. Recurrent training. Initial training.

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?. Two. Four. Three.

What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121?. All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses. All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

For a short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed. 12 hours. 14 hours. 16 hours.

A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to. Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.

Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMs?. Any company dispatch facility. Notice to Air Missions publications. Chart Supplements U.S. (previously Airport/Facility Directory).

An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?. Four. Three. Two.

What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?. FL410. FL250. Above FL410.

Limiting flight time for all flightcrew members will include. instruction flight hours, commercial flying, and flying for any certificate holder. any flight by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager. flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager and any other commercial flight time.

How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried?. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin.

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?. When priority has been given. Anytime an emergency occurs. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?. A minimum of 2-hourly supply. Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.

The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly and land at the most distant alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.

You are on the last day of a four day trip and haven't slept well. What is a warning sign that you are fatigued?. Improved dexterity. Head bobbing. Mental acuteness.

(Refer to Legend 12 and Figure 185A.) McCarran Intl (LAS) is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or HALON 1211 or 450 pounds of DC and 100 gallons of water plus 6000 gallons of water. Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 gallons of water. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000 gallons of water.

When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?. Five. Four. Three.

Which of the following is an effect of acute fatigue on performance?. Loss of accuracy and smoothness in control movements. Heightened acuity in peripheral vision. Mild euphoria, impaired judgement, and increased reaction time.

Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel?. The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverage to the person in custody or the law enforcement escort. No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enofrcement escorts. The person in custody must be seated between the escort and the aisle.

When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within. 10 days after the deviation. 10 days after returning home. 10 days after returning to home base.

When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.

A flightcrew member must be given a rest period before beginning any reserve or flight duty period of. 24 consecutive hours free form any duty in the past 7 consecutive calendar days. 36 consecutive hours in the pat 168 consecutive hours. 30 consecutive hours in the pat 168 consecutive hours.

What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?. At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. At least one full stop landing must be made. At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.

Which 14 CFR Part 121 required document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?. Airplane Flight Manual. Certificate holder's manual. Pilot's Emergency Procedure Handbook.

What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.

Which is a definition of the term 'crewmember'?. Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to a duty in an aircraft during flight time. A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?. All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. One-half the time the airplane is in actial IFR conditions.

The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is. difference training. transition training. upgrade training.

A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consuption. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.

The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. in the interest of safety. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be. Unlocked during takeoff and landing. locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. latched open during takeoff and landing.

The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is. 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?. ATP - B-727 and DC-4; Commercial - DC-9. ATP - B727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. ATP - B-727, DC-3 and DC-9.

Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations or flight follower. Pilot-in-command.

During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?. To the manager of the General Aviation District Office within 10 days. To the manager of the facility in control within 10 days. Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?. Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. Dispatch release and weight and balance release. Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.

For passenger operations under Part 121, a flightcrew member may exceed maximum flight time limitations if. immediately followed by 11 hour of rest. unforeseen operational circumstance arise after takeoff. known ATC delays do not exceed 30 minutes.

What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?. Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. Minimum fuel supply and trip number. Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.

A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within. 5 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds.

A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least. 3 months. 6 months. 30 days.

An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flare and a signal mirror. Survival kit for each passenger.

During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?. Aircraft dispatcher. Pilot-in-command. Director of operation or flight follower.

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to. 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-day period. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?. 1 month. 3 months. 12 months.

Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored. within easy reach of each passenger. under each occupant seat. within easy reach of each seated occupant.

When a type rating is to be added to an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is. required to have a least a current Third Class Medical Certificate. required to have a current First Class Medical Certificate. not required to hold a medical certificate.

If the augmented flightcrew member is not acclimated, the. maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes. flight duty period assignment must be reduced 15 minutes by each 15 degree of longitude difference from the previous rest location. minimum rest period must be extended by 3 hours.

When a type rating is to be added to an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is. required to have at least a Third Class Medical Certificate. is not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a First Class Medical Certificate.

How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is. considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots. considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. not considered to be part of a rest period.

The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during. Taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing. taxiing, takeoff, and landing. takeoff, cruise, and landing.

Fatigue can be evident in others if they. talk more than usual. yawn excessively. are overly helpful.

What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?. Cargo and passenger distribution information. Copy of the flight plan. Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.

In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew member must report. on time, in uniform, and properly prepared to accomplish all assigned duties. to the airport on time, after the designated rest period and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duties. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties.

What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane?. The most forward location in the passenger cabin. In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot. and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. must have a quick-donning type oxygen mas available.

Your airline recently initiated a new safety partnership with the FAA utilizing the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP) for all pilots, flight attendants, dispatchers, and mechanics. What does ASAP encourage?. Encourages an employee to utilize an ASAP report after receiving a criminal substance abuse conviction so they do not face additional FAA enforcement. Encourages operational situation in which risk is increased in order to enable early corrective action before that risk results in an incident or accident. Encourages airline management to utilize ASAP report and voluntarily report safety information to derive synergies and cost savings for the airline.

Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each. aircraft occupant. seat on the aircraft. passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a. key to the flight deck door. certificate holder's manual. flashlight in goof working order.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is. required to have at least a current Third Class Medical Certificate. not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a First Class Medical Certificate.

How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?. Five. Four. Three.

When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?. Has no effet on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 miles. Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above. FL 180. FL 200. FL 250.

In an airplane with an augmented crew of three flightcrew members assigned, the maximum flight duty period is. 17 hours if assigned to report at 1200 with a Class 3 rest facility available. 16 hours if assigned to report at 0630 with a Class 1 rest facility available. 15 hours if assigned to report at 1730 with a Class 2 rest facility available.

A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

For flight planning, a designated ETOPS alternate airport. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specifies by ICAO category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specifies by ICAO category 3, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specifies by ICAO category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.

The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the. pilot in command. air carrier's chief pilot. certificate holder.

A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is. 1945Z. 1915Z. 1845Z.

"Operational control" of a flight refers to. the specific duties of any required crewmember. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.

An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Survival kit for each passenger. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flare and a signal mirror.

The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the. certificate holder's oepration specifications. application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.

Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has. logged 90 hours flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.1. logged 100 hours flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.

Each flightcrew member must report. in uniform and properly prepared to accomplish all assignments. to the airport on time and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duty. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his duty.

In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a flight deck check procedure by the flightcrew is. encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.

When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?. When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age. Only during the en route flight. During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.

Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash axe) installed in an air carrier airplane?. All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers. Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?. Not more than 1 hour. Not more than 2 hours. More than 6 hours.

An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United States, if enough fuel. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.

A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?. Notification is not required, if the certificate holder has a security coordinator. A minimum of 1 hour. A minimum of 2 hours.

The time spent resting during unaugmented operations will not be counted towards the flight duty period limitation if the rest period is at least. 3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. 4 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. 4 hours long which can include transportation to suitable accommodations.

Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?. Company meteorologist. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, in an aircraft, needs. A First Class Medical Certificate. at least a current Third Class Medical Certificate. a Second Class Medical Certificate.

Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane?. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. 45 minutes at holding altitude. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.

A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?. Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. ATP - B-747, B-727 and B-737.

When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?. 80,000 pounds. more than 80,000 pounds. 300,000 pounds.

Bird strikes in flight will be reported to the. nearest state of federal wildlife office on company letterhead. FAA on an FAA form 5200-7. nearest FSS via telephone.

Which of the following constitutes 'substantial damage' according to NTSB Part 830?. Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires. Damages to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case of a helicopter). Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement.

The flight duty period may be extended due to unforeseen circumstances before takeoff by as much as. 2 hours. 1 hour. 30 minutes.

Flightcrew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training. with all required air carrier dispatcher and every flightcrew member training activity. annually for flightcrew members and every 24 months for dispatchers, flightcrew member schedulers, and operational control individuals. annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals and flightcrew member and dispatchers.

What is the lowest decision height for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization?. 100 feet AGL. 150 feet AGL. 200 feet AGL.

If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?. Pilot in command. Dispatcher. Person who declares the emergency.

"Window of circadian low" means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between. 0100-0500. 1200-0459. 0200-0559.

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for. all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. all aircraft occupants. all passenger seats.

Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB?. Aircraft colliding on the ground. Flight control system malfunction. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $10,000.

The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the 48 contiguous United States is. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. the fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the. pilot in command and chief pilot. pilot in command and director of operations. pilot in command and the flight follower.

If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the. appropriate ground radio station. nearest FAA District Office. operation manager (or director of operations).

If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?. FL 200. FL 300. FL 250.

To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?. Operation Specifications. Operating Certificate. Dispatch Release.

An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it. has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. weighs more than 12,500 pounds.

For passenger-carrying operations under 14 CFR Part 121, which situation would be considered part of the required rest period?. Deadheading to home base after the last scheduled flight. Electing to fly as a passenger from home base after the flight duty period ends. Training conducted in a flight simulator.

How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried?. Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center in of the passenger cabin. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.

The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are. supplemental and commercial. supplemental and domestic. flag and commercial.

No flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flight crew member is given. 10 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or reserve period. 12 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or reserve period. 8 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or reserve period.

What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise. In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by as much as. 2 hours. necessary to reach the closet suitable alternate crew base airport. necessary to land at the next destination airport or alternate airport.

The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.

An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. Survival kit for each passenger. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required lifeaft. A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival-type emergency locator transmitter for each required liferaft.

An example of air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as PIC in Part 121 is flight time as an SIC. in Part 121 operations. in Part 91, supart K operations. in Part 135 operations.

You are a pilot operating under 14 CFR Part 121 and are in a required rest period. When can you be contacted about your next day duty assignment?. At any time during your required rest period. At the end of your required rest period. No earlier than 1 hour before the end of your required rest period.

Pilots and/or flight crew members involved in near midair collision (NMAC) occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately. by cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards District Office, as this is an emergency. to local law enforcement. by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.

"Airport standby reserve" means. a specified 15-hour period of reserve in close proximity of assignment being available for flight duty assignments in less than 2 hours. being within 90 minutes of the airport and available for immediate flight duty assignments of 8 hour duration. a defined duty period during which a flight crewmember is required by the certificate holder to be available for possible assignment.

What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the alternate. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes. of FL 260. of FL 250. above Fl 250.

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121?. Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard. Number of passenger cabin occupants. Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

What is considered "north polar"?. north of 60 degrees N latitude. north of 68 degrees N latitude. north of 78 degrees N latitude.

In an airplane assigned with a minimum flight crew of two, your flight time may not exceed. 9 hours if assigned to report at 0330. 9 hours if assigned to report at 0500. 9 hours if assigned to report at 2030.

The 'age 65 rule' of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to. any required pilot crewmember. any flight crewmember. the pilot in command only.

The lowest CAT II minimums are. DH 100 and RVR 1200. DH 150 and RVR 1600. DH 50 and RVR 1200.

What is the purpose of a Flight Operational Quality Assurance (FOQA) program?. To identify pilots who are having problems operationally. To identify aggregate information for error trends. To provide accountability within the air carrier system.

A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?. A larger airplane. A turbojet airplane. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of. obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?. 3 days. 7 days. 10 days.

A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued. an Air Carrier Certificate. a Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate. an Operating Certificate.

Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot-in-command required to hold a type rating?. When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross eight of more than 6,000 pounds.

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'?. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.

Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?. Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.