Preguntas infecciosas (parte 4)
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Título del Test:![]() Preguntas infecciosas (parte 4) Descripción: Test de preguntas para el examen de infectious disease en la ULBS |




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153. The clinical picture is suggestive of rabies. a. Risus sardonicus. b. Opistotonus. c. Hydrophobic spasm. d. Emprostotonus. e. Aerophobia. 154. The notion of tetanigenic wound refers to: a. Penetrative wounds. b. Wounds associated with the retention of foreign bodies. c. Interventions on necrotic intestinal loops. d. Risk associated with intravenous drug administration. e. Any aseptic surgical wound. 155. Macrolides can be used in: a. Toxoplasmosis in pregnant women. b. Pertussis. c. Sepsis with Gram-negative bacteria. d. Diphtheria. e. Pyocyanic infections. 156. Antiviral treatment in flu is carried out with: a. Zanamivir. b. Aciclovir. c. Valaciclovir. d. Fosamprenavir. e. Ribavirin. 157. Among the side effects of glycopeptides, the following are not found: a. Photosensitization. b. Nephrotoxicity. c. Fever. d. Stevens Johnson Syndrome. e. Ototoxicity. 158. Antibiotics with a high risk of producing colitis with Clostridioides difficile are represented by: a. Aminoglycosides. b. Clindamycin. c. Macrolides. d. Fluoroquinolones. e. Cephalosporins of the 2nd, 3rd generation. 159. During the catarrhal period of whooping cough: a. Chills. b. Fever. c. Rhinitis. d. Spasmodic cough. e. Nocturnal exacerbation of cough. 160. Which of the following elements can be found in the clinical picture of rubella?. a. Purpuric enanthema at the level of the palate. b. Macular/maculopapular rash. c. Suboccipital adenopathies. d. Splenomegaly. e. Jaundice. 161. Regarding Listeria monocytogenes meningitis, the following statements are true: a. It is treated with third-generation cephalosporins and rifampicin. b. It´s found especially during pregnancy and in cirrhotics. c. The clinical picture is established subacute. d. Cellularity 50% PMN, similar to Ly. e. It associates the damage of cranial nerves. 162. Regarding the clinical picture of Urlian infection, the following are true: a. The most common location is parotid. b. It can be complicated with sialectasia. c. Swelling of the salivary glands can be associated with periglandular edema. d. Affection of the salivary glands occurs only in afebrility. e. Difficulties in mastication and speech appear. 163.Which of the following elements are suggestive of severity in tetanus?. a. Short incubation period. b. Slow generalization. c. Onset of fever. d. Onset of the disease in the elderly. e. Partial inmunization. 164. In trichinosis: a. Transmission is associated with the consumption of infested meat. b. Myalgias appear. c. Facial edema, chemosis appear. d. There is no specific treatment. e. Albendazole is recommended. 165. Mechanical complications of whooping cough include: a. Pneumothorax. b. Mediastinal emphysema. c. Acute otitis. d. Encephalitis by immune mechanism. e. Rectal prolapse. 166. The following are true about the treatment of herpetic meningoencephalitis: a. It must be administered early, even in the absence of a definite diagnosis. b. It´s only a pathogenetic treatment. c. It is recommended to take parenteral Aciclovir. d. The duration of treatment is less than 7 days. e. The dose of aciclovir is 30mg/kgc/day. 167. Among the clinical pictures produced by the herpes virus 1, the following pictures are part: a. Bell´s facial palsy. b. Herpetic angina. c. Herpetic stomatitis. d. Herpetic encephalitis. e. Anoretic. 168. CSF changes in bacterial meningitis include: a. Purulent appearance. b. Hypoproteinorrhagia. c. Hyperglycorrhagia. d. Cellularity of the order of thousands or tens of thousands of elements. e. Increases in lactic acid. 169. In the pre-eruptive period of scarlet fever, the following elements are found, except: a. Sabural tongue. b. Filatov mask. c. Submandibular adenopathies. d. Micropapular exanthema. e. Angina. 170. The following statements are not true about carbapenems: a. They have a narrow spectrum of action. b. They are active on atypical. c. They can be administered orally or by injection. d. They inhibit the synthesis of the bacterial wall. e. They are active on aerobic and anaerobic bacteria. 171. The greatest malformative risk related to maternal rubella is found at a gestational age of: a. 0-4 weeks. b. 13-16 weeks. c. 0-8 weeks. d. 9-12 weeks. e. over 20 weeks. 172. In the clinical picture of botulism, the following neurological manifestations are present: a. Ophthalmoplegia. b. Mydriasis. c. Diplopia. d. Strabismus. e. Preservation of the photomotor reflex. 173. The following are true about the clinical picture of bacterial dysentery: a. At the beginning the stools are not characteristic. b. b. The appearance of the stools is watery. c. Rectal tenesmus appears. d. Symptomatology is present in afebrility. e. Abdominal pain is not associated. 174. qSOFA includes: a. Glasgow score below 10. b. Glasgow score below or equal to 13. c. BP below or equal to 100 mmHg. d. FR over 20/min. e. FR over 22/min. 175.Which of the following types of manifestations are found as manifestations of acute HIV infection?. a. Oral and genital ulcerations. b. Hairy leukoplasia of the tongue. c. Changes in cognitive function. d. Lymphadenopathy. e. Shingles. 176. In Salmonella diarrhea, the following aspects may be present, except: a. The incubation period is 4-6 hours. b. The stools are characteristically watery greenish. c. Severe forms evolve with algid collapse. d. The pain is predominantly in the right iliac fossa. e. Vomiting may occur. 177. The non-specific pictures of enterovirus infections include the following: a. Febrile rash. b. Brochiolitis. c. Summer flu. d. Acute lymphocytic meningitis. e. Acute meningitis with xanthochrome CSF. 178. Which of the following antibiotics belong to the class of macrolides?. a. Josamycin. b. Azithromycin. c. Amikacin. d. Clindamycin. e. Netilmicin. 179. Which of the following side effects are not characteristic of fluoroquinolones?. a. Tendinopathy. b. Severe renal insufficiency, common in the treatment with these antibiotics. c. Thrombophebitis during iv administration. d. Photosensitisation. d. Photosensitisation. 180.Which of the following side effects is only found in ceftriaxone treatment?. a. Clostridium difficile colitis. b. Digestive candidiasis. c. Gallbladder pseudolithiasis. d. Serum sickness. e. Hematological reactions. 181. The following are true about the clinical picture of bacterial dysentery: a. It is associated with significant hydro-electrolytic losses. b. The appearance of the stools is mucosaanginolent. c. The colic cord appears in FIS. d. It´s usually not associated with antibiotic therapy. e. It does not require bacteriological sterilization. 182. According to the CDC classification, HIV infection in the AIDS stage involves: a. Values of CD4 lymphocytes above 500/mm3. b. Values of CD4 lymphocytes below 500/mm3. c. CD4 lymphocytes with values between 200-499, without additional criteria. d. CD4 lymphocytes between 500-1200/mm3, without other criteria. e. CD4 lymphocytes below 200/mm3. 183. Pneumococcal pneumonia is characterized by the following: a. Frequently triangular radiological image. b. Sudden onset, with solemn shivering. c. Leukocytosis. d. Usual fever. e. Bacteremias in 25-30% of cases. 184. Which of the following antiviral medications is recommended in the treatment of covid infection. a. Umifenovir. b. Remdesivir. c. Zanamivir. d. Baloxavir. e. Favipiravir. 185. Regarding the treatment of critical forms of SARS-CoV-2 infections, the following therapeutic measures are true: a. Monitoring in intensive care. b. Prophylactic doses of enoxaparin. c. Administration of remdesivir. d. Administration of methyl-prednisolone 1-2 mg/kg/day. e. Non-invasive or invasive oxygen therapy. 186. Factors suggestive of a pneumococcal etiology of a community-acquired pneumonia are: a. Leukopenia. b. Chronic alcoholism. c. Sudden onset. d. Lobar condensation. e. Splenectomy. 187. In the first stage of Lyme disease can be found: a. Chronic migratory erythema. b. Fever. c. Arthralgias. d. Headache. e. Dyspeptic disorders. 188. Among the unfavorable prognostic factors of COVID-19 are: a. Female gender. b. Diabetes. c. Cardiovascular diseases. d. Recent history of vascular accidents. e. Chronic kidney disease. 189.Which of the following elements represent the classic triad in infectious mononucleosis?. a. Rash. b. Adenopathies. c. Splenomegaly. d. Fever. e. Angina. 190. In typhoid fever, the following changes occur in the oral cavity, except: a. Duguet's angina. b. Salivary hypersecretion. c. Parrot tongue. d. Tongue tremors. e. Salivary hyposecretion. 191.Which of the following statements are true for the clinical indications of macrolides?. a. They are an alternative to penicillins in allergic patients. b. It is recommended in the treatment of atypical germs. c. Clarithromycin is indicated in the treatment of H pylori infection. d. They are not effective in streptococcal angina. e. They cannot be used in atypical infections. |