PROCEDURES AND AIRPORT OPERATION C

After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot. requests an amended clearance. is operating VFR on top. receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.

Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from. 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?. Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated. The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?. The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating. The pilot in command must hold at least a student pilot certificate.

What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?. Class D, which then becomes Class C. Class D, which then becomes Class E. Class B.

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?. Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to. 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. Prior to landing, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with an ATC facility.

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?. Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.

The radius of the uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally. 20 NM. 30 NM. 40 NM.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules. Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. May conduct operations under visual flight rules.

The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around Class B Airspace is. the outer segment of Class B Airspace. an area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B Airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL. a Mode C “veil” boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder, provided it remains below 10,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Figure 54, point 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?. 2,503 feet MSL. 2,901 feet MSL. 3,297 feet MSL.

(Refer to Figure 54.) What is the ceiling of the Class D Airspace of the Byron (C83) airport (area 2)?. 2,900 feet. 7,600 feet. Class D Airspace does not exist at Byron (C83).

(Refer to Figure 52, point 6.) Van Vleck Airport is. an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace. a nonpublic use airport.

(Refer to Figure 54, point 2.) After departing from Byron Airport (C83) with a northeast wind, you discover you are approaching Livermore Class D airspace and flight visibility is approximately 2-1/2 miles. You must. stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G and land. stay below 1,200 feet to remain in Class G. contact Livermore ATCT on 119.65 and advise of your intentions.

(Refer to Figure 54, point 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. 10,000 feet MSL. 2,100 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figure 53, point 1.) This thin black shaded line is most likely. an arrival route. a military training route. a state boundary line.

An alert area is an area in which. the flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction. the flight of aircraft is prohibited. there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 1.) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at. the surface. 700 feet AGL. 3,823 feet MSL.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 7.) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is. 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 5.) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is. the surface. 700 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 8.) The floor of the Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is. 1,200 feet MSL. 700 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figure 53, point 2.) The 16 indicates. an antenna top at 1,600 feet AGL. the maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle. the minimum safe sector altitude for that quadrangle.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 4.) The obstruction within 10 NM closest to Lincoln Regional Airport (LHM) is how high above the ground?. 1,254 feet. 662 feet. 296 feet.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 4.) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is approximately how much higher than the airport elevation?. 376 feet. 827 feet. 1,135 feet.

When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of. Special VFR airspace. Class B airspace. Class D airspace.

When operating an airplane for the purpose of landing or takeoff within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?. Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. 500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM.

At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are. not authorized. authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM. authorized only if the ground visibility is observed to be at least 3 SM.

To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums. The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area. The pilot must hold an instrument rating and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of. 14,500 feet MSL. 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL. 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground.

When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs. 31.00. 32.00. 30.50.

(Refer to Figure 53.) GIVEN: Location.................................... Madera Airport (MAE) Altitude..................................................... 1,000 ft AGL Position..........................7 NM north of Madera (MAE) Time...........................................................3 p.m. local Flight visibility ......................................................1 SM You are VFR approaching Madera Airport for a landing from the north. You. are in violation of the CFRs; you need 3 miles of visibility under VFR. are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to remain clear of Class E airspace and may continue for landing. may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude) after entering Class E airspace and continue to the airport.

What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?. 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds. 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below. 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.

If necessary to take off from a slushy runway, the freezing of landing gear mechanisms can be minimized by. recycling the gear. delaying gear retraction. increasing the airspeed to VLE before retraction.

Who has the final authority to accept or decline any “land and hold short” (LAHSO) clearance?. ATC tower controller. ATC approach controller. Pilot-in-Command.

When should pilots decline a “land and hold short” (LAHSO) clearance?. When it will compromise safety. If runway surface is contaminated. Only when the tower controller concurs.

A “land and hold short” (LAHSO) clearance. precludes a “Go Around” by ATC. does not preclude a rejected landing. requires a runway exit at the first taxiway.

What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a “land and hold short” clearance?. 3 statute miles and 1,000 feet. 3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet. 3 statute miles and 1,500 feet.

Once a pilot-in-command accepts a “land and hold short” (LAHSO) clearance, the clearance must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless. an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs. the wind changes or Available Landing Distance decreases. Available Landing Distance decreases or density altitude increases.

When should pilots decline a “land and hold short” (LAHSO) clearance?. Only when the tower controller concurs. If runway surface is contaminated. When it will compromise safety.

What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a “land and hold short” clearance?. 3 statute miles and 1,500 feet. 3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet. 3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.

What should you consider when planning to land at another airport?. Land and hold short procedures. Check for airport and touchdown markings. Airport lighting using continuous wiring.

The “taxiway ending” marker. indicates taxiway does not continue. identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

(Refer to Figure 58.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: “N123, Taxi to runway 16.” Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller’s instructions?. 5 (Five). 6 (Six). 9 (Nine).

(Refer to Figure 51.) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?. Top red. Middle yellow. Bottom yellow.

(Refer to Figure 60.) Sign “1” is an indication. of an area where aircraft are prohibited. that the taxiway does not continue. of the general taxiing direction to a taxiway.

(Refer to Figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft. passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure. is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol. is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.

(Refer to Figure 51.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found. upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control. at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway. near the approach end of ILS runways.

(Refer to Figure 51.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which sign?. Bottom yellow. Top red. Middle yellow.

(Refer to Figure 51.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?. Top red. Middle yellow. Bottom yellow.

Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light system operating. anytime an engine is in operation. anytime the pilot is in the cockpit. during all types of operations, both day and night.

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?. Indicates direction to take-off runway. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

The “yellow demarcation bar” marking indicates. runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway. the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

The runway holding position sign is located on. runways that intersect other runways. taxiways protected from an aircraft approaching a runway. runways that intersect other taxiways.

“Runway Holding Position Markings” on taxiways. identify where aircraft are prohibited to taxi when not cleared to proceed by ground control. identify where aircraft are supposed to stop when not cleared to proceed onto the runway. allow an aircraft permission onto the runway.

(Refer to Figure 57.) You are directed to taxi to runway 10. You see this sign at a taxiway intersection while taxiing. Which way should you proceed?. Left. Right. Straight ahead.

This taxiway sign would be expected. at the intersection of runway 04/22 departure end and the taxiway. near the intersection of runways 04 and 22. at a taxiway intersecting runway 04/22.

(Refer to Figure 64.) You see this sign when holding short of the runway. You receive clearance to back taxi on the runway for a full-length runway 8 departure. Which way should you turn when first taxiing on to the runway for takeoff?. Left. Right. Need more information.

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying. at 3,000 feet or more AGL, based on true course. more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course. at 3,000 feet or more above MSL, based on magnetic heading.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for. availability and status of en route and destination airport lighting systems. red en route course lights. location of rotating light beacons.

Light beacons producing red flashes indicate. end of runway warning at departure end. a pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling. obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation.

What is the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions when operating VFR at night?. Ground lights begin to take on an appearance of being surrounded by a halo or glow. A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground. Cockpit lights begin to take on an appearance of a halo or glow around them.

For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the. pupils of the eyes have become dilated in approximately 10 minutes. rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes. cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 5 minutes.

When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability and status of. all VORs to be used en route. airport rotating light beacons. destination airport lighting systems.

When operating VFR at night, what is the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions?. A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground. Ground lights begin to take on an appearance of being surrounded by a halo or glow. Cockpit lights begin to take on an appearance of a halo or glow around them.

After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include. turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing. maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road. planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area.

When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations should include. landing without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touchdown. turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing. selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible.

When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to. make 90° left and right turns to scan for other traffic. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions. pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite direction on the same radial.

To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should. slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to the other at intervals. concentrate on any peripheral movement detected. use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.

As hyperventilation progresses, a pilot can experience. decreased breathing rate and depth. heightened awareness and feeling of well being. symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness.

Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?. Drowsiness. Decreased breathing rate. A sense of well-being.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?. Insufficient oxygen. Excessive carbon monoxide. Insufficient carbon dioxide.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?. Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should. swallow or yawn. slow the breathing rate. increase the breathing rate.

Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol. Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.

To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one beer, the human body requires about. 1 hour. 3 hours. 4 hours.

To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one mixed drink, the human body requires about. 1 hour. 2 hours. 3 hours.

With a blood alcohol level below .04 percent, a pilot cannot fly sooner than. 4 hours after drinking alcohol. 12 hours after drinking alcohol. 8 hours after drinking alcohol.

Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as. humidity decreases. altitude increases. oxygen demand increases.

To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should. rely on body sensations. increase the breathing rate. rely on aircraft instrument indications.

To cope with spatial disorientation, pilots should rely on. body sensations and outside visual references. adequate food, rest, and night adaptation. proficient use of the aircraft instruments.

A pilot flying in a fatigued state is a hazard because. flying fatigued is flying impaired. the pilot will hurry through checks and neglect items. the pilot will exceed aircraft limitations to complete the flight.

Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. Application of stress management and risk element procedures. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.

Risk management by the pilot. applies only on passenger/cargo IFR flights. requires continuing education and certified academic training to understand the principles. is improved with practice and consistent use of risk management tools.

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a. systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight. mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot. making a rational evaluation of the required actions. developing the “right stuff” attitude. identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.

Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to. assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority. promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior. complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the “right stuff.”.

The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the “right stuff” can have an adverse effect on safety, by. a total disregard for any alternative course of action. generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap. imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions.

Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include: Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations. Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems. Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves.

An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves. taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. understanding the drive to have the “right stuff.”. obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.

Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by. early recognition of hazardous thoughts. taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes. redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.

What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?. Antiauthority (don’t tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it). Risk management, stress management, and risk elements. Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment.

When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for MACHO?. Follow the rules. They are usually right. Not so fast. Think first. Taking chances is foolish.

What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?. Recognition of invulnerability in the situation. Dealing with improper judgment. Recognition of hazardous thoughts.

What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous?. Avoid developing this hazardous thought. Develop this hazardous thought and follow through with modified action. Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote.

To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must. be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying. condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears. avoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle cockpit responsibilities.

What does good cockpit stress management begin with?. Knowing what causes stress. Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues. Good life stress management.

The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction?. Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight. If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time. The pilot can’t help it that the passengers are late.

While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction?. What is the worst that could happen. He can handle a little problem like this. It’s too late to fix it now.

The pilot and passengers are anxious to get to their destination for a business presentation. Level IV thunderstorms are reported to be in a line across their intended route of flight. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the IMPULSIVITY reaction?. They want to hurry and get going, before things get worse. A thunderstorm won’t stop them. They can’t change the weather, so they might as well go.

While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the MACHO reaction?. He is not too concerned; everything will be alright. He flies a little closer, just to show him. He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision.

When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for ANTIAUTHORITY hazardous attitude?. Not so fast. Think first. It won’t happen to me. It could happen to me. Don’t tell me. Follow the rules. They are usually right.

A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-oftown football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction?. Well, nobody told him about the extra weight. Weight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by the FAA. He can’t wait around to de-fuel, they have to get there on time.

Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?. Estimate. Evaluate. Eliminate.

Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?. Detect. Identify. Evaluate.

The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are: Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate. Determine, evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate. Determine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate.