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What is anxiety?. A state of tension and alertness in response to real or imagined threats. It’s a normal adaptive reaction, but when persistent or excessive, it becomes pathological and interferes with daily life. A mood disorder characterized mainly by episodes of persistent sadness and loss of interest in daily activities. A neurological condition caused by structural brain damage that leads to constant fear and confusion. A temporary emotional response that only appears after traumatic events and disappears without treatment.

Which of the following statements about the epidemiology of anxiety is correct?. Anxiety affects less than 1% of the population annually, is more common in men, and typically starts after age 50. Anxiety affects 7–15% of people per year globally, is more common in women (2:1), usually begins in childhood, adolescence, or early adulthood, and risk factors include chronic stress, genetics, trauma, and family history. Anxiety has no genetic or environmental risk factors and occurs equally across all age groups and sexes. Anxiety only occurs in response to immediate life-threatening situations and does not have long-term prevalence.

Which of the following is a genetic factor that increases the risk of anxiety?. Overprotective parenting during childhood. Family history of anxiety or depression. Hyperthyroidism. Low tolerance for uncertainty.

Which neurotransmitters are most commonly involved in anxiety?. Insulin and glucagon. Cortisol and aldosterone. Serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine, and GABA. Melatonin and oxytocin.

Which personality trait is associated with higher anxiety risk?. Easygoing and flexible behavior. Perfectionism and intolerance of uncertainty. High physical fitness. Introversion only.

Which of the following medical conditions can contribute to anxiety?. Myopia and color blindness. Osteoporosis only. Seasonal allergies. Hyperthyroidism, arrhythmias, COPD, stimulant use, or substance withdrawal.

Which of the following can trigger an anxiety episode in a vulnerable person?. Regular exercise and hobbies. Only genetic factors. Acute stress, social situations, and major life changes. Healthy eating habits.

Which of the following are common physical signs of anxiety?. Chronic fatigue, hair loss, and joint stiffness. Tachycardia, muscle tension, shortness of breath. Fever, rash, and swollen lymph nodes. Sudden weight gain and skin discoloration.

Which of the following are typical emotional symptoms of anxiety?. Euphoria, excessive talkativeness, and high ene. Complete apathy and lack of emotional response. Confusion, hallucinations, and memory loss. Intense fear, irritability, and hypervigilance.

According to the DSM-5, which of the following is required for the diagnosis of an anxiety disorder?. Anxiety can occur only during specific stressful events and does not need to interfere with daily life. Anxiety is diagnosed whenever a person feels worried or tense, regardless of duration or impact on daily functioning. Anxiety must be persistent most days for at least six months, difficult to control, and accompanied by symptoms such as restlessness, fatigue, or difficulty concentrating. Anxiety must be directly caused by another medical or psychological condition to be considered a disorder.

Which of the following is a recommended treatment for anxiety?. Herbal remedies and self-help strategies without professional guidance. Using over-the-counter painkillers to manage anxiety symptoms. Herbal remedies and self-help strategies without professional guidance. Cognitive-behavioral therapy or prescription medications such as sertraline or escitalopram.

Which of the following is a correct treatment for anxiety?. Cognitive-behavioral therapy or medications such as sertraline (10–50 mg/day) or escitalopram (5–10 mg/day). Cognitive-behavioral therapy or prescription medications such as sertraline (50–200 mg/day) or escitalopram (10–20 mg/day). Only medications like sertraline (200–400 mg/day) or escitalopram (20–40 mg/day) without therapy. Herbal supplements or over-the-counter medications like sertraline (25–75 mg/day) or escitalopram (5–15 mg/day).

Which brain structure plays a central role in fear and anxiety responses?. Amygdala. Thalamus. Posterior hypothalamus. Hippocampus.

Which of the following is a cognitive sign of anxiety and anguish?. Tachycardia. Hypervigilance. Muscle tension. Sweating.

Which neurotransmitter decreases and contributes to loss of calm in anxiety?. Dopamine. GABA. Glutamate. Acetylcholine.

Which of the following is an emotional symptom of anxiety and anguish?. Constant worry. Palpitations. Dry mouth. Tremors.

Which of the following is an example of a cognitive distortion?. “I’m hungry because I didn’t eat.”. “I’ll take a deep breath to calm down.”. “Something bad will happen even if there’s no reason.”. “I slept poorly because of the noise.”.

What is the main adaptive function of anxiety under normal conditions?. To promote depression. To trigger escape or defense in the face of danger. To reduce alertness. To slow the cardiovascular response.

Which of the following is a behavioral symptom of anxiety?. Tachycardia. Intrusive thoughts. Avoidance or motor restlessnes. Hypervigilance.

Which body system is activated to prepare the organism for threat?. Endocrine. Circulatory. Digestive. Sympathetic nervous system.

What happens to sleep when anxiety becomes chronic?. REM phase increases. Sleep quality and quantity decrease. It normalizes quickly. It becomes more restorative.

When is anxiety considered normal?. When it causes insomnia and palpitations for no reason. When it has no apparent cause. When it appears in real danger and disappears afterward. When it is constant and interferes with daily life.

What is bacterial conjunctivitis?. Inflammation of the eyelids caused by allergies, producing itching and watery eyes. Infection of the conjunctiva causing redness, irritation, and thick yellow or green discharge. Viral infection of the eye surface, leading to mild redness and tearing. Fungal infection affecting the eye that slowly reduces vision over time.

Which bacteria are commonly responsible for bacterial conjunctivitis in adults?. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae. Escherichia coli and Salmonella. Candida albicans and Aspergillus. Herpes simplex virus and Varicella zoster.

Which bacteria are most commonly responsible for bacterial conjunctivitis in children and newborns?. Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Moraxella catarrhalis; in newborns, Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli in all age groups. Candida albicans and Aspergillus in children. Herpes simplex virus and Varicella zoster in newborns.

Which of the following best describes the clinical presentation of bacterial conjunctivitis?. Sudden onset, usually starting in one eye, redness, thick yellow or green discharge, eyelids stuck together in the morning, sandy sensation, mild swelling. Gradual onset, watery eyes, mild redness, and itching without discharge. Severe eye pain, blurred vision, and tearing without redness. Redness and irritation that improve spontaneously without treatment.

What is characteristic of the discharge in bacterial conjunctivitis?. Purulent or mucopurulent discharge, usually yellow, green, or whitish, abundant and persistent. Clear watery discharge that improves on its own. Thick white discharge only at night that disappears in the morning. Blood-tinged discharge that resolves spontaneously.

What are the key clinical criteria for diagnosing bacterial conjunctivitis?. Redness of the eye, abundant purulent discharge, eyelids stuck together in the morning, sudden onset, usually starting in one eye. Watery eyes, mild redness, and itching without discharge. Gradual redness with tearing, affecting both eyes slowly. Severe eye pain with blurred vision and no discharge.

In which situations should a culture and sensitivity test of conjunctival discharge be ordered?. Only in newborns, suspected gonorrhea or chlamydia, severe or recurrent cases, or lack of response to treatment. In all cases of bacterial conjunctivitis regardless of severity. Only when the discharge is clear and watery. Only for viral or allergic conjunctivitis.

Which culture media are commonly used to grow bacteria from conjunctival discharge?. Blood agar, chocolate agar, and MacConkey agar. Sabouraud agar, EMB agar, and mannitol salt agar. Nutrient agar only. Thioglycollate broth and LJ medium.

What is the typical duration for topical antibiotic treatment in bacterial conjunctivitis?. Every 4–6 hours for 5–7 days. Once a day for 2 weeks. Every 8 hours for 3 days. Twice daily for 10–14 days.

Which topical antibiotics are commonly used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis?. Trimethoprim–polymyxin B drops, erythromycin ointment, or fluoroquinolone drops. Amoxicillin tablets, acyclovir ointment, or ketoconazole drops. Artificial tears, antihistamine drops, or steroid ointment. Oral ciprofloxacin, fluconazole tablets, or nystatin drops.

Which of the following are recommended general measures for bacterial conjunctivitis?. Frequent handwashing, avoid touching the eyes, no sharing personal items, warm compresses, and gentle cleaning of eyelids. Avoid antibiotics, use cold compresses only, and share contact lenses. Apply steroid drops daily without hygiene measures. Wash hands occasionally, continue using eye makeup, and avoid compresses.

Which of the following is considered a first-line antibiotic treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?. Beta-blocker eye drops. Antifungal ointment. Oral acyclovir. Trimethoprim–polymyxin B.

When should a patient with bacterial conjunctivitis be referred to an ophthalmologist?. When the patient uses warm compresses. When artificial tears are needed. When symptoms resolve within 24 hours. When there is severe pain, decreased vision, or photophobia.

Which of the following is the most common bacterial cause of conjunctivitis?. Adenovirus. Herpes simplex virus. Staphylococcus aureus. Candida albicans.

What part of the eye is infected in bacterial conjunctivitis?. The optic nerve. The conjunctiva. The cornea. The retina.

Which of the following is a typical symptom of bacterial conjunctivitis?. Itching of the eyes. Strong eye pain. Clear watery tears. Red eye with purulent secretion.

Which general measure helps prevent the spread of bacterial conjunctivitis?. Eye rubbing. Applying cold compresses only. Wearing contact lenses during treatment. Frequent hand washing.

Which test is most appropriate when conjunctivitis does not improve with initial treatment?. Chest X-ray. Electrocardiogram. Abdominal ultrasound. Conjunctival bacterial culture and sensitivity test.

Which symptom best differentiates bacterial from viral conjunctivitis?. Itching. Pain with photophobia. Tearing without discharge. Purulent discharge causing eyelid sticking in the morning.

Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated bacterial conjunctivitis?. Retinal detachment. Cataract formation. Optic neuritis. Corneal ulcer.

Which age group is most commonly affected by Haemophilus influenzae conjunctivitis?. Adults over 60. Newborns. Adolescents. School-aged children.

What is von Willebrand disease?. An inherited bleeding disorder caused by a lack of von Willebrand factor. An autoimmune disease that destroys platelets and causes clotting. A vitamin K deficiency causing impaired blood clotting. A bacterial infection that affects blood coagulation.

Which of the following statements about the epidemiology of von Willebrand disease is correct?. It is the most common inherited clotting disorder; prevalence about 0.6–1.3%, type 1 most common, type 3 very rare. It is extremely rare, affecting fewer than 1 in 10,000 people. Type 3 is the most common type, while type 1 is rare. It only occurs in males and is absent in females.

Which of the following correctly describes the types of von Willebrand disease?. Type 1: most common, low functional vWF; Type 2: vWF present but defective; Type 3: severe, very low or absent vWF and factor VIII. Type 1: severe, absent vWF; Type 2: mild decrease in vWF; Type 3: most common. Type 1: only in males; Type 2: only in females; Type 3: rare in both. Type 1: vWF absent; Type 2: vWF normal; Type 3: moderate vWF decrease.

Which of the following are common general symptoms of von Willebrand disease?. Fatigue, weakness, pallor, shortness of breath, dizziness. Fever, chills, and night sweats. Joint pain, swelling, and redness. Abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting.

Which of the following are common bleeding manifestations of von Willebrand disease?. Heavy periods, nosebleeds, gum bleeding. Deep joint bleeding. Fever and chills. Mild bruising only.

How is von Willebrand disease diagnosed?. Clinical evaluation, bleeding history, and VWF/factor VIII tests. Only complete blood count and prothrombin time. Imaging tests like X-rays or MRI. Urine analysis and liver function tests.

What is the treatment for von Willebrand disease?. Desmopressin, factor VIII or VWF concentrates, antifibrinolytics, hormonal therapy, and patient education. Aspirin, NSAIDs, lifestyle measures, dietary advice, and patient counseling. Surgery, transfusions, medications, monitoring, and follow-up care. Observation, activity restriction, supportive care, preventive measures, and counseling.

Which of the following best defines von Willebrand disease?. A platelet production disorder. A hereditary deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor. An acquired autoimmune clotting disorder. A vitamin K–dependent bleeding disorder.

The primary physiological role of von Willebrand factor is to. Activate factor X. . Stabilize fibrin clots. Mediate platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium. Inhibit platelet aggregation.

Which coagulation factor is secondarily affected in von Willebrand disease?. . Factor V. Factor VII. Factor VIII. Factor IX.

Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of von Willebrand disease?. Prolonged prothrombin time (PT). Decreased platelet count. Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Increased fibrinogen levels.

Which clinical manifestation is most commonly associated with von Willebrand disease?. Deep muscle hematomas. Hemarthrosis. Mucocutaneous bleeding. Thromboembolic events.

Which test is most useful for confirming the diagnosis of von Willebrand disease?. Bleeding time only. Von Willebrand factor antigen and activity assays. Platelet aggregation test with ADP. D-dimer assay.

Which type of von Willebrand disease is the most common?. Type 1. Type 2. Type 3. Acquired VWD.

The pathophysiology of Type 1 von Willebrand disease is best described as: Complete absence of von Willebrand factor. Qualitative defect of von Willebrand factor. Partial quantitative deficiency of von Willebrand factor. Autoantibody-mediated destruction of platelets.

Which treatment is considered first-line for mild von Willebrand disease?. Fresh frozen plasma. Platelet transfusion. Desmopressin (DDAVP). Warfarin.

In patients with severe von Willebrand disease, the most appropriate treatment is: Aspirin therapy. Vitamin K supplementation. Von Willebrand factor–containing concentrates. Low molecular weight heparin.