PTA CAP 1: Regulaciones

Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?. Operations Specifications. Operating Certificate. Dispatch Release.

A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?. Notification is not required, if the certificate holder has a security coordinator. A minimum of 1 hour. A minimum of 2 hours.

When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort?. They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft. They shall be boarded after all other passengers board, and deplaned before all the other passengers leave the aircraft. They shall board and depart before the other passengers.

Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel?. The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages to the person in custody or the law enforcement escort. No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts. The person in custody must be seated between the escort and the aisle.

When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage?. The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command. The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember.

What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121?. All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses. All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.

The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during. taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing. taxiing, takeoff, and landing. takeoff, cruise, and landing.

When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?. When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age. Only during the en route flight. During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.

If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot. and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.

If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?. FL 200. FL 300. FL 250.

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?. For taxi, takeoff, and landing. Only for takeoff and landing. During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be. unlocked during takeoff and landing. locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. latched open during takeoff and landing.

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must. operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger compartment. be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane?. The most forward location in the passenger cabin. In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried?. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin.

How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried?. Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center in of the passenger cabin. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.

In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flightcrew is. encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft. A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival-type emergency locator transmitter for each required liferaft.

What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations?. A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each liferaft. A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserver. A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each. aircraft occupant. seat on the aircraft. passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for. all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. all aircraft occupants. all passenger seats.

When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?. One for each passenger seat. One for each passenger, plus 10 percent. One for each occupant of the aircraft.

Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored. within easy reach of each passenger. under each occupant seat. within easy reach of each seated occupant.

An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Survival kit for each passenger. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.

An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. Survival kit for each passenger. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. Survival kit for each passenger.

How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?. A minimum of 2-hours' supply. Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.

What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for. each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude. 30 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.

Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin. may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121?. Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard. Number of passenger cabin occupants. Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?. All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers. Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?. A large airplane. A turbojet airplane. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it. has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. weighs more than 12,500 pounds.

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?. Two. Four. Three.

A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above. FL 200. FL 240. FL 250.

The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of. 10,000 feet within 4 minutes. 14,000 feet within 4 minutes. 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.

Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes. of FL 260. of FL 250. above FL 250.

A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within. 5 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds.

For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for. 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours. each passenger for 30 minutes.

For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?. 15,000 feet. 16,000 feet. 14,000 feet.

What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?. FL 240. FL 250. Above FL 250.

If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?. The second in command only. Any flight crewmember, if qualified. Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.

Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations?. If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. If required by the airplane's type certificate.

When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?. 80,000 pounds. more than 80,000 pounds. 300,000 pounds.

The 'age 65 rule' of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to. any required pilot crewmember. any flight crewmember. the pilot in command only.

An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?. Four. Three. Two.

When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?. Five. Four. Three.

Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?. Airplane Flight Manual. Certificate holder's manual. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.

The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the. pilot in command. air carrier's chief pilot. certificate holder.

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?. Five. Four. Three.

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?. Seven. Six. Five.

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above. FL 180. FL 200. FL 250.

A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?. At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.

What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?. At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. At least one full stop landing must be made. At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.

What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.

An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated,. at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for. one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in. November 1988. December 1988. January 1989.

The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is. upgrade training. transition training. initial training.

A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?. Upgrade training. Recurrent training. Initial training.

The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is. difference training. transition training. upgrade training.

How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional flight crewmember, for no more than. 8 hours during any 12 consecutive hours. 10 hours during any 12 consecutive hours. 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.

The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag air carrier may schedule a pilot in a two-pilot crew without a rest period is. 8 hours. 10 hours. 12 hours.

The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the pilot in command in a two-pilot crew for a flag air carrier is. 35 hours. 32 hours. 30 hours.

The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crewmember, in a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is. 100 hours. 120 hours. 300 hours.

A supplemental air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew, for flight deck duty during any 24-consecutive-hour period for not more than. 6 hours. 8 hours. 10 hours.

Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff?. Keep safety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.

What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?. Cargo and passenger distribution information. Copy of the flight plan. Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.

How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is. considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots. considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. not considered to be part of a rest period.

Duty and rest period rules for domestic air carrier operations require that a flight crewmember. not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.

A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?. Not more than 1 hour. Not more than 2 hours. More than 6 hours.

If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within. 7 days. 5 days. 48 hours.

When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.

Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a. key to the flight deck door. certificate holder's manual. flashlight in good working order.

If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the. appropriate ground radio station. nearest FAA district office. operations manager (or director of operations).

If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within. 10 days after the deviation. 10 days after returning home. 10 days after returning to home base.

What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the. pilot in command and chief pilot. pilot in command and director of operations. pilot in command and the flight follower.

The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. in the interest of safety. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.

If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should. take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. comply with the company's lost aircraft plan. phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.

Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?. Pilot in command. Dispatcher. Person who declares the emergency.

A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is. 2005Z. 1905Z. 0005Z.

A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is. 1945Z. 1915Z. 1845Z.

When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?. 1922Z. 1952Z. 0022Z.

If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?. 1945Z. 2015Z. 0045Z.

The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.

The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.

What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the alternate. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. back to the departure airport.

An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United States, if enough fuel. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.

The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.

Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane?. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. 45 minutes at holding altitude. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.

The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is. 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.

The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the 48 contiguous United States is. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. the fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?. The aircraft dispatcher. Air route traffic control center. Director of operations.

Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations or flight follower. Pilot in command.

During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?. Aircraft dispatcher. Pilot in command. Director of operations or flight follower.

Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMs?. Any company dispatch facility. Notices To Airmen publication. Airport/Facility Directory.

Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?. Company meteorologist. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations.

Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has. logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?. Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. Dispatch release and weight and balance release. Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.

How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?. 1 month. 3 months. 12 months.

A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least. 3 months. 6 months. 30 days.

When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?. Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.

Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?. Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.

The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are. supplemental and commercial. supplemental and domestic. flag and commercial.

What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?. Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. Minimum fuel supply and trip number. Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.

A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it. minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. trip number and weight and balance data. weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.

The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the. weather reports and forecasts. names of all crewmembers. minimum fuel supply.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?. Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'?. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.

Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?. Immediately. 7 calendar days. 10 days.

Which of the following constitutes 'substantial damage' according to NTSB Part 830?. Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires. Damage to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case of a helicopter). Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement.

Which of the following meets the requirements of a 'serious injury' as defined by the NTSB?. A simple fracture of the nose or other extremity. An injury which caused severe tendon damage. First-degree burns over 5 percent of the body.

Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB?. Aircraft colliding on the ground. Flight control system malfunction. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $10,000.

Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?. 3 days. 7 days. 10 days.

When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?. Within 7 days. Within 10 days. Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: destination airport. provisional airport. alternate airport.

A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of. obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued. an Air Carrier Certificate. a Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate. an Operating Certificate.

The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the. certificate holder's operations specifications. application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.

Which is a definition of the term 'crewmember'?. Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

"Operational control" of a flight refer to. the specific duties of any required crewmember. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.

A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?. Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.

A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?. ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?. 6 hours. 8 hours. 10 hours.

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to. 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is. required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a first-class medical certificate.

What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is. required to have a first-class medical certificate. required to have a second-class medical certificate. not required to have a medical certificate.

A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in 14 CFR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?. 12 months. 90 days. 6 months.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs. a first-class medical certificate. at least a current third-class medical certificate. a second-class medical certificate.

What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?. All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is. required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. is not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a first-class medical certificate.

To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least. six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.

To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?. When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. 120 days after issue or renewal.

A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to. Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.

What is the lowest decision height for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization?. 100 feet AGL. 150 feet AGL. 200 feet AGL.

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is. required to have a least a current third-class medical certificate. required to have a current first-class medical certificate. not required to hold a medical certificate.

Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot-in-command required to hold a type rating?. When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.

When a facsimile is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?. To the manager of the General Aviation District Office within 10 days. To the manager of the facility in control within 10 days. Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?. When priority has been given. Anytime an emergency occurs. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

(Refer to Figures 115, 116, 117, 118, 118A, 118B, and 118C.) At ARLIN Intersection, PTL 130 is notified that the Phoenix Sky Harbor Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Tucson. PTL 130 is operating under 14 CFR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727 (approach category C). What are the PICs minimums for the VOR RWY 11L approach at Tucson Intl Airport?. 2,860-1/2. 2,900-1. 2,960-1.

(Refer to Figure 118A.) Determine the 14 CFR Part 121 landing minimums for the LOC BC RWY 26L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl. PIC time 94 hours Airplane V(S0) maximum certificated weight 105 knots V(REF) approach speed 140 knots DME NOTAMed OTS. 1,800/1-3/4. 1,900/2-1/4. 1,900/2-1/2.

(Refer to Legend 15 and Figure 177.) Lewiston - Nez Perce Co. is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 gallons of water.

(Refer to Legend 15.) Newport News/Williamsburg Intl is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. The Airport/Facility Directory contains the following entry: ARFF Index A. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 gallons of water.

(Refer to Figures 190, 195, 195A, 196 and 196A.) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 while operating under Part 121. What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 35R approach at DEN for the PIC?. 5567/18. 5667/42. 5631/20.

(Refer to Figure 206.) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-767 while operating under Part 121. What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 19L approach at SFO, for the PIC?. 308/64. 208/40. 308-1.

(Refer to Legend 15 and Figure 185A.) McCarran Intl (LAS) is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000 gallons of water. Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 gallons of water. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000 gallons of water.

(Refer to Legend 15 and Figure 205.) San Francisco Intl (SFO) is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000 gallons of water. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 5,000 gallons of water. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 6,000 gallons of water.

(Refer to Figures 214 and 182A.) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-727 while operating under Part 121. What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 9R approach at PHL, for this PIC?. 221/18. 321/42. 321/24.

(Refer to Figures 214 and 182A.) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under 14 CFR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 9R to land 09R at PHL?. 321/30. 321/36. 321/42.

(Refer to Figures 214, 183, and 183A.) The weather at PHL goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 121) diverts to the alternate ACY. Upon arrival at ACY, TNA 90 is cleared for an ILS RWY 13 approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?. 376/18. 376/50. 376/42.

(Refer to Figures 214, 183, and 183A.) The PIC, of TNA 90, has 75 hours as PIC of this type airplane. The MD 90 is a Category C aircraft. What is the lowest ceiling/visibility that may be forecast to use ACY as an alternate on the flight plan, and what is the lowest visibility that may exist at ACY prior to the final approach segment to continue the ILS RWY 13 approach?. 600-2 and 2 miles. 600-2 and 50 RVR. 700-2 and 18 RVR.

(Refer to Legend 15 and Figure 215.) Windsor Locks/Bradley Intl, is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire-fighting vehicles, and what type and amount of fire-fighting agents that the airport should have?. Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 gallons of water. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000 gallons of water. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000 gallons of water.

Which is the maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier airman may be aloft in any 30 consecutive days, as a member of a flight crew that consists of two pilots and at least one additional flight crewmember?. 100 hours. 120 hours. 300 hours.

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved operator's manual available. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19(b).

Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS. preflight check must be conducted by a certified A&P and signed off in the logbook. pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory Person. pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight.

Pilots should check for ice accumulation prior to flight by. using a flashlight to reflect off a white wing. using ice detection lights. feeling the control surfaces, especially the leading edges.

When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraaft without deicing equipment, the pilot should. fly to an area with liquid precipitation. fly to a lower altitude. leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.

When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraaft without deicing equipment, the pilot should?. fly to an area with liquid precipitation. fly to a lower altitude. leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.

Tailplane icing can be detected by. a slow and steady decrease in altitude. flaps failing to operate. a sudden change in elevator force or uncommanded nose-down pitch.

If tailplane icing or a tailplane stall is detected, the pilot should. lower the flaps to decrease airspeed. decrease power to Vfe. retract flaps and increase power.

If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with deicing equipment, the pilot should. first confirm ice with the ice light prior to deploying the pneumatic boots. operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice. operate the pneumatic deicing system once to allow time for the ice removal.

The first place ice is likely to form on an aircraft is the. wings. tailplane. windsheild.

What is considered "north polar"?. north of 60 degrees N latitude. north of 68 degrees N latitude. north of 78 degrees N latitude.

What is considered "south polar"?. south of 60 degrees S latitude. south of 68 degrees S latitude. south of 78 degrees S latitude.

What is meant by "sterile cockpit"?. All preflight checks are complete and the aircraft is ready for engine starting. Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities during critical phases of flight. Crewmembers are seated and buckled at their required stations.

ETOPS entry point means. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 200 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having more than two engines. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 90 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines.

For flight planning, a designated ETOPS alternate airport. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 3, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.