PTA CAP 8: Meteorología PARTE 2

Where do squall lines most often develop?. In an occluded front. Ahead of a cold front. Behind a stationary front.

What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?. Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation which falls outside of the updraft. Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts. Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating.

Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?. Air mass thunderstorms. Cold front or squall line thunderstorms. Storms associated with icing and supercooled water.

Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds?. Cumulonimbus mamma. Standing lenticular. Stratocumulus.

Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?. Squall line. Advective fog. Frontogenesis.

A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface wind is. 58 MPH or greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch or more in diameter. 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1/2 inch or more in diameter. 45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch or more in diameter.

A squall is a sudden increase of at least 16 knots in average wind speed to a sustained speed of. 24 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.

Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest value. during the downdraft and heavy rain showers. when the thunderstorm is approaching. immediately after the rain showers have stopped.

Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?. Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thunderstorms.

What is indicated by the term 'embedded thunderstorms'?. Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass. Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds.

A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates. the absence of clouds in the area. an area of no convective turbulence. an area where precipitation drops are not detected.

When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least. 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed. 2,500 feet. 500 feet above any moderate to severe turbulence layer.

Which is a definition of 'severe wind shear'?. Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min. Any change of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in excess of 100 ft/min.

In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?. Less power is required. Higher pitch attitude is required. Lower descent rate is required.

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.

Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity. Sudden increase in a headwind component.

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?. Decreasing headwind or tailwind. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.

Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?. Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?. Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance. Decreased takeoff distance. Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.

Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown. Which characteristics should be observed when a tailwind shears to a constant headwind?. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Increases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Increases, then decreases. PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?. In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.

Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?. The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10�C. A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. A wind direction difference of at least 30� between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.

The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is. 18 knots or less. greater than 18 knots. not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor.

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes. One microburst may continue for as long as an hour. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. 1,500 ft/min. 4,500 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

Doppler wind measurements indicate that the windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately. 15 knots. 25 knots. 45 knots.

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. 8,000 ft/min. 7,000 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

(Refer to Figure 144.) If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?. 4 and 5. 2 and 3. 3 and 4.

(Refer to Figure 144.) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?. 3. 2. 1.

(Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 3?. Decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind. Strong downdraft.

(Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?. Strong tailwind. Strong updraft. Significant performance increase.

(Refer to Figure 144.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?. Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft. Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft. Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission?. A downburst is located at the center of the airport. Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway. There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, 'pitch to airspeed,' and apply maximum power. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.

Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?. Decreased stall speed. Decreased pitchup tendencies. Decreased angle of attack for stalls.

Clear ice generally forms in outside temperature ranges of. -15 to -25 deg C. 0 to -10 deg C. colder than -25 deg C.

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can. reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent. increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent. reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and. increased thrust. a decreased stall speed. an increased stall speed.

Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?. It is more complicated. The holding time is increased. More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.

The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is to. raise the eutectic point. decrease the freeze point. increase the minimum freezing point (onset of crystallization).

Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?. Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid. Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid. Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.

Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process?. Apply heated Type 2 fluid. Decrease the water content. Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.

What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two-phase process?. Hot. Warm. Cold.

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1 deicing/anti-icing fluid?. 30 percent. 50 percent. 80 percent.

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2 deicing/anti-icing fluid?. 30 percent. 50 percent. 80 percent.