A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and
has two-way radio communications failure.
What altitude should be used? Last assigned altitude,
altitude ATC has advised
to expect, or the MEA,
whichever is highest. An altitude that is at least
1,000 feet above the
highest obstacle along the
route A VFR altitude that is
above the MEA for each
leg.
A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after
having experienced two-way radio
communications failure. When should that pilot
begin descent for the instrument approach? At the EFC time, if this is
within plus or minus 3
minutes of the flight plan
ETA as amended by ATC. At flight plan ETA as
amended by ATC. At the EFC time as
amended by ATC.
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation
when body sensations are used
to interpret flight attitudes. ignoring or overcoming the
sensations of muscles and
inner ear. eyes are moved often in
the process of crosschecking
the flight
instruments.
After experiencing two-way radio
communications failure en route, when should a
pilot begin the descent for the instrument
approach? Upon arrival at any initial
approach fix for the
instrument approach
procedure but not before
the flight plan ETA as
amended by ATC. Upon arrival at the holding
fix depicted on the
instrument approach
procedure at the corrected
ETA, plus or minus 3
minutes. At the primary initial
approach fix for the
instrument approach
procedure at the ETA
shown on the flight plan or
the EFC time, whichever
is later.
Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be
encountered behind large aircraft is created
only when that aircraft is developing lift. operating at high
airspeeds. using high power settings.
Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is farther from the runway
than it actually is. closer to the runway than
it actually is. the same distance from
the runway as when there
is no restriction to visibility.
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate
around each wingtip? Outward, upward, and
around the wingtip. Inward, upward, and
around the wingtip. Counterclockwise when
viewed from behind the
aircraft.
Hypoxia is the result of which of these
conditions? Insufficient oxygen
reaching the brain. Excessive carbon dioxide
in the bloodstream Limited oxygen reaching
the heart muscles.
If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR
conditions and losses radio communications
with ATC, what action should be taken? Fly directly to the next
point shown on the IFR
flight plan and continue
the flight. Squawk 7700 and climb to
VFR on Top Fly directly to a fix, route,
or airway specified in the
vector clearance.
If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just
landed, you should plan to lift off prior to the point where the
jet touched down. beyond the point where
the jet touched down. at the point where the jet
touched down and on the
upwind edge of the
runway.
In the dark, a stationary light will appear to
move when stared at for a period of time. This
illusion is known as somatogravic illusion. ground lighting illusion. autokinesis.
It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to
report a near midair collision as a result of
proximity of at least 50 feet or less to another
aircraft. 500 feet or less to another
aircraft. 1,000 feet or less to
another aircraft.
Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia
because as cabin altitude increases oxygen partial pressure is
decreased. the percentage of nitrogen
in the air is increased the percentage of nitrogen
in the air is decreased.
Scanning procedures for effective collision
avoidance should constitute looking outside for 15
seconds, then inside for 5
seconds, then repeat. 1 minute inside scanning,
then 1 minute outside
scanning, then repeat looking outside every 30
seconds except in radar
contact when outside
scanning is unnecessary.
Sudden penetration of fog can create the
illusion of pitching up. pitching down. leveling off.
The illusion of being in a nose-up attitude which
may occur during rapid acceleration takeoff is
known as somatogravic illusion. inversion illusion. autokinesis.
To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make
flight path adjustments to avoid make
turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft
should fly on the established
glidepath and on the
approach course
centerline or runway
centerline extended. below the established
glidepath and slightly to
either side of the oncourse
centerline above the established
glidepath and slightly
downwind of the oncourse
centerline.
To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet
airplane during takeoff, the pilot should climb above and stay
upwind of the jet airplane's
flightpath. lift off at a point well past
the jet airplane's flightpath remain below the
flightpath of the jet
airplane.
Under what condition does ATC issue safety
alerts? When collision with
another aircraft is
imminent. If the aircraft altitude is
noted to be in close
proximity to the surface or
an obstacle. When weather conditions
are extreme and wind
shear or large hail is in the
vicinity.
Under what conditions should a pilot on IFR
advise ATC of minimum fuel status? When the fuel supply
becomes less than that
required for IFR. If the remaining fuel
suggests a need for traffic
or landing priority. If the remaining fuel
precludes any undue
delay.
What airport condition is reported by the tower
when more than one wind condition at different
positions on the airport is reported? Wind shear. Light and variable. Frontal passage.
What altitude and route should be used if the
pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has
two-way radio communications failure? Fly the most direct route to
the destination,
maintaining the last
assigned altitude or MEA,
whichever is higher. Continue on the route
specified in the clearance
and fly the highest of the
following: the last
assigned altitude, altitude
ATC has informed the pilot
to expect, or to the MEA. Descend to MEA and, if
clear of clouds, procceed
to the nearest appropriate
airport. If not clear of
clouds, maintain the
highest of the MEAs along
the clearance route.
What causes hypoxia? A decrease of oxygen
partial pressure. Excessive carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere. An increase in nitrogen
content of the air at high
altitudes.
What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to
ATC? Advisory that indicates an
emergency situaion is
possible should an undue
delay occur. Traffic priority is needed to
the destination airport. Emergency handling is
required to the nearest
suitable airport.
What effect would a light crosswind have on the
wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane
that has just taken off? The upwind vortex will
tend to remain on the
runway longer than the
downwind vortex. A crosswind will rapidly
dissipate the strength of
both vortices. The downwind vortex will
tend to remain on the
runway longer than the
upwind vortex.
What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen
create? Higher than actual. Lower than actual. Does not cause illusions.
What is a sympton of carbon monoxide
poisoning? Dizziness. Rapid, shallow breathing Pain and cramping of the
hands and feet.
What is the effect of alcohol consumption on
functions of the body? Alcohol has anadverse
effect, especially as
altitude increases. Small amounts of alcohol
in the human system
increase judgment and
decision-making abbilities Alcohol has little effect if
followed by equal
quantities of black coffee.
What is the hijack code? 7200. 7500. 7777.
What is the most effective way to use the eyes
during night flight? Look only at far away, dim
lights. Scan slowly to permit
offcenter viewing. Concentrate directly on
each object for a few
seconds.
What minimum condition is suggested for
declaring an emergency? Anytime the pilot is
doubtful of a condition that
could adversely affect
flight safety. When fuel endurance or
weather will require an en
route or landing priority. When distress conditions
such as fire, mechanical
failure, or structural
damage occurs.
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of
wake turbulence on a landing runway for the
longest period of time? Light quartering tailwind. Direct tailwind. Light quartering headwind.
When making a landing over darkened or
featureless terrain such as water or snow, a
pilot should be aware of the possibility of
illusion. The approach may appear to be too high. low. shallow.
When making an approach to a narrower-thanusual
runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot
should be aware that the approach altitude may be lower than
it appears. altitude may be higher
than it appears. may result in leveling off
too high and landing hard.
When using the Earth's horizon as a reference
point to determine the relative position of other
aircraft, most concern would be for aircraft on the horizon and
increasing in size. on the horizon with little
relative movement above the horizon and
increasing in size.
Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane
create the most severe flight hazard by
generating wingtip vortices of the greatest
strength? Heavy, slow, gear and
flaps up. Heavy, slow, gear and
flaps down. Heavy, fast, gear and
flaps down.
Which is the purpose may flight spoilers be
used? Reduce the wings' lift upon
landing. Aid in longitudinal balance
when rolling an airplane
into a turn Increase the rate of
descent without increasing
aerodynamic drag.
Which is a common sympton of
hyperventilation? Tingling of the hands,
legs, and feet. Increased vision
keenness. Decreased breathing rate.
Which observed target aircraft would be of most
concern with respect to collision avoidance? One which appears to be
ahead with no lateral or
vertical movement and is
increasing in size. One which appears to be
ahead and moving from
left to right at high speed. One which appears to be
ahead and moving from
right to left at slow speed.
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or
overcome spatial disorientation? Rely entirely on the
indications of the flight
instruments. Rely on the kinesthetic
sense. Reduce head and eye
movement to the greatest
possible extent.
Which range of codes should a pilot avoid
switching through when changing transponder
codes? 7500, 7600, and 7700
series. 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series.
Which statement is true concerning the wake
turbulence produced by a large transport
aircraft? Vortices can be avoided
by flying 300 feet below
and behind the flight path
of the generating aircraft. The vortex characteristics
of any given aircraft may
be altered by extending
the flaps or changing the
speed. Wake turbulence behind a
propeller-driven aircraft is
negligible because jet
engine thrust is a
necessary factor in the
formation of vortices.
Which would most likely result in
hyperventilation? A stressful situation
causing anxiety. The excessive
consumption of alcohol. An extremely slow rate of
breathing and insufficient
oxygen.
While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences twoway
radio communications failure. Which route
should be flown in the absence of an ATC
assigned route or a route ATC has advised to
expect in a further clearance? The route filed in the flight
plan. The most direct route to
the filed alternate airport. An off-airway route to the
point of departure.
While making prolonged constant rate turns
under IFR conditions, an abrupt head
movement can create the illusion of rotation on
an entirely different axis. This is known as Coriolis illusion. autokinesis. the leans.
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to sink below the aircraft
generating the turbulence. rise from the surface to
traffic pattern altitude. accumulate and remain for
a period of time at the
point where the takeoff roll
began.
You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status
when your fuel supply has reached a state
where, upon reaching your destination, you
cannot accept any undue delay. This will ensure your
priority handling by ATC ATC will consider this
action as if you had
declared an emergency. If your remaining usable
fuel supply suggests the
need for traffic priority to
ensure a safe landing,
declare an emergency due
to low fuel and report fuel
remaining in minutes.
What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen
create? Higher than actual. Does not cause illusions Lower than actual.
A calm wind that is forecast, in the International
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), is
encoded as 00000KT. VRB00KT. 00003KT.
A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on
a radar scope indicates an area where
precipitation drops are not
detected. the absence of clouds in
the area. an area of no convective
turbulence.
Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point
proctetion to menos 20° F ambient
F315 A freezing point no greater
than 20° F below the
ambient or airplane
surface temperature 32° F out side
temperature or below.
A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an
International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
(TAF) indicates the probability of thunderstorms or other
precipitation. precipitation or low
visibility. thunderstorms or high
wind.
A severe thunderstorm is one in which the
surface wind is 50 knots greater and/or
surface hail is 3/4 inch or
more in diameter. 55 knots or greater and/or
surface hail is 1/2 inch or
more in diameter 45 knots or greater and/or
surface hail is 1 inch or
more in diameter.
A squall line is a sudden increase of at least 15
knots in average wind speed to a sustained
speed of 22 knots or more for at
least 2 minutes. 24 knots or more for at
least 1 minute. 20 knots or more for at
least 1 minute.
A strong wind shear can be expected on the low pressure side
of a 100 knots jetstream
core. where the horizontal wind
shear is 15 knots, in a
distance equal to 2.5°
longitude. if the 5° C isotherms are
spaced 100 NM or closer
together.
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40
knots, within a microburst, may expect a total
shear across the microburst of 80 knots. 40 knots. 90 knots.
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45
knots, within a microburst, may expect a total
shear across the microburst of 90 knots. 80 knots. 40 knots.
At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction
causes the wind to flow across isobars into a
low because the friction decreases windspeed and
Coriolis force. decreases pressure
gradient force. creates air turbulence and
raises atmospheric
pressure.
At which location does Coriolis force have the
least effect on wind direction? At the Equator. Middle latitudes (30° to
60°). At the poles.
Atmospheric pressure changes due to a
thunderstorm will be at the lowest value when the thunderstorm is
approaching. during the downdraft and
heavy rain showers. immediately after the rain
showers have stopped.
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a
mountain wave may extend as far as 5,000 feet above the
tropopause. 1,000 miles or more
downstream of the
mountain 100 miles or more upwind
of the mountain.
Constant pressure analysis charts contain
contours, isotherms and some contain isotachs.
The contours depict highs,lows,troughs,and
ridges corrected to MSL. ridges,lows,troughs and
hights aloft. highs,lows,troughs, and
ridges on the surface.
Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus
layer can produce which threat to instrument
flight? Embedded thunderstorms Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence.
Doppler wind measurements indicate tha the
windspeed change a piloto may expect when
flying through the peak intensity of a microburst
is approximately 45 Knots 25 Knots 15 Knots.
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which
stage is characterized predominately by
downdrafts? Dissipating. Cumulus. Mature.
Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue
on engine fan or compressor blades can reduce engine
performance and cause
surging and/or compressor
stalls. can increase performance
and cause stalls or surges could cause FDP vapors
to enter the aircraft but
would have no affect on
engine thrust or power.
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