PTL FLIGHT OPERATIONS

A minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas. Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA). Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA). Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA).

A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to. takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. entering controlled airspace. entering IFR weather conditions.

An alternate airport for departure is required. if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).

An ATC "instruction". is the same as an ATC "clearance.". is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized. must be "read back" in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.

Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be inititiated upon. arrival at the DH on the glide slope. arrival at the visual descent point. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the. aircraft dispatcher. flight navigator. pilot in command.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727 operate within Class B airspace without special ATC authorization?. 230 knots. 250 knots. 275 knots.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocatingengine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.

At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocatingengine-powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace?. 156 knots. 180 knots. 200 knots.

At what minimum altitude is a turbine- engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D airspace?. 1,500 feet AGL. 2,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL.

Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are nonsafety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?. 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. FL 180.

Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airports should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?. 250 knots. 260 knots. 230 knots.

Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing prority?. When cleared for an IFR approach. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis?. 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour. Between weather broadcasts on the hour. Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.

How should a pilot describe braking action?. 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent. Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal. Nil, poor, fair, or good.

How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?. Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies "NO PT", the pilot should. advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed. not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not gained, perform missed approach. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.

In what airspace will ATC not authorize "VFR on Top"?. Class C airspace. Class B airspace. Class A airspaceC.

Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport civil/navy between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is. 265 knots. 230 knots. 200 knots.

Maximum holding speed for a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is. 265 knots. 230 knots. 156 knots.

Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is. 210 knots. 230 knots. 265 knots.

NOTAM (L)s are used to disseminate what type of information?. Conditions of facilities en route that may cause delays. Taxi closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approaches criteria, and airport rotating beacon outages. Time critical information of a permanent nature that is not yet available in normally published charts.

Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by. stating "Have numbers". stating "Have Weather". repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport. for a period 1 hours before or after the ETA. during the entire flight. when the flight arrives.

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are. those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to arrive. those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives. those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hour before or after the ETA for that flight.

The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?. 3/8 SM. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM.

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM. 7/8 SM.

Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain "VFR on Top"?. Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual flight rules while in VFR conditions. Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules. Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.

Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?. If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?. Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?. Continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?. Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000.

What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?. Assume lost communications and continue as planned. Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?. Read the clearance back in its entirety. Request a clarification from ATC. Do not accept the clearance.

What action should be taken when a pilot is "cleared for approach" while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?. Descend to minimum vector altitude. Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment. Descend to initial approach fix altitude.

What action should the pilot take when "gate hold" procedures are in effect?. Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing. Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearance. Start engines, perform pre-take-off check, and request.

What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot. may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude. must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes. may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.

What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain "VFR on Top"?. May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers. Must maintain VFR clearance above or below. May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between layers.

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?. A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot. Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.

What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplanes?. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil at 15,000 feet MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing and ATC is notified?. 265 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocatingengine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?. 288 knots. 250 knots. 230 knots.

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E airspace, with a VFR -on Top clearance during daylight hours?. 3 statute miles, 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 statute miles, 1000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal. 5 statute miles, 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pre-taxi clearance programs?. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction with clearance. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. Pilots will receive taxi clearance, then receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on run-up. Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.

What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?. Except for SID's, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment is sufficient. Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.

What is the primary purpose of a STAR?. Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.

What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearance?. A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions. When an IFR clearance is received by telephone, the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released. Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released.

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR clearance during daylight hours?. 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 3 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan?. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 1 hour prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi.

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?. Two-way communications. Two-way communications and transponder. Transponder and DME.

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?. 1/4 SM. 3/4 SM. 3/8 SM.

What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance "cleared as filed" include?. Clearance limit and en route altitude. Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.

What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in Class C airspace?. No specific certification but a two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, and TSO-C74b transponder.

What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.

What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace?. Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B airspace. Must operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace. Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures regardless of weather conditions.

What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized "VFR on Top?. The same afforded all IFR flights. 3 miles horizontally instead of 5. Traffic advisories only.

What service is provided for aircraft operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?. The same as within Class C airspace when communications and radar contact is established. Radar vectors to and from secondary airports within the outer area. Basic radar service only when communications and radar contact is established.

What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace?. Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories. Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories. Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.

What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when "gate hold" procedures are in effect?. They are given preference for departure over other aircraft. They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warm-up block. They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.

What type information is disseminated by NOTAM (D)s?. Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service available, and other information essential to planning. Airport or primary runway closings, runway and taxiway conditions, and airport lighting aids outages. Temporary flight restrictions, changes in status in navigational aids, and updates on equipment such as VASI.

When a composite flight plan indicates IFR for the first portion of the flight, what is the procedure for the transition?. The IFR portion is automatically canceled and the VFR portion is automatically activated when the pilot reports VFR conditions. The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and contact the nearest FSS to activate the VFR portion. The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and activate the VFR portion.

When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not functioning. 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?. 188 knots. 210 knots. 230 knots.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?. 200 knots. 210 knots. 250 knots.

When does ATC issue a STAR?. Only when ATC deems it appropriate. Only to high priority flights. Only upon request of the pilot.

When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed. 1 minute. 1-1/2 minutes. 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?. Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first. At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage. When abeam the holding fix.

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?. At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible. When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible. At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?. The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA. The actual minimums shown on the chart for the airport.

When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised immediately?. Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers. If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired. If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.

When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?. 1 SM. 1/2 SM. 300 feet and 1/2 SM.

When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for operations, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take?. List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate. Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane in use. List at least one additional alternate airport.

When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?. 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less. 3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less. 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.

Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes?. Over all designated compulsory reporting points. Only where specifically requested by CORPAC Flight Planning. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.

Which IFR fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan?. All compulsory reporting points en route. The VORs that define the IFR portion of the flight. The fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated.

Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbounds and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?. Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10mile ring of a published approach. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phase of flight"?. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.