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1) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: A Declare an emergency. B As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure. C Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290. D Fly the emergency triangle.

2) The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: A Black for food and water. B Red for miscellaneous equipment. C Blue for food and water. D Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : A on the initiative of the aircraft commander. B at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions. C as instructed by an air traffic control unit. D when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC.

4) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : A Not applicable. B 250 KT IAS. C 250 KT TAS. D 240 KT IAS.

5) The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : A 250 KT TAS. B Not applicable. C 240 KT IAS. D 250 KT IAS.

6) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : A 260 KT IAS. B 250 KT IAS. C 250 KT TAS. D Not applicable.

7) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for : A at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle. B at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle. C at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle. D at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle.

8) Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?. A ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses. B ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention. C ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections. D ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations.

9) What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?. A 500 feet. B 1500 feet. C 2000 feet. D 1000 feet.

10) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?. A Annex 3. B Annex 4. C Annex 1. D Annex 2.

Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?. A Annex 6. B Annex 11. C Annex 10. D Annex 14.

12) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?. A Annex 14. B Annex 6. C Annex 17. D Annex 11.

13) A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in : A weather noted. B flight identification and weather noted ;. C urgent messages. D a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ;.

14)"Cabotage" refers to: A domestic air services ;. B a national air carrier;. C a flight above territorial waters;. D crop spraying.

15) Which statement is correct ? During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Classe C): A ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic. B ATC will apply separation with other traffic. C the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;. D ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic.

16)During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the "towercontroller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the moment the aircraft is : A 3 NM from touch-down;. B 4 NM from touch-down;. C 2 NM from touch-down;. D 1NM from touch-down;.

17)In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ?. A medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes. B medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes. C light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes. D medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes.

18)Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts. A Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector. B OCH or OCA. C DME-frequencies. D Visibility minima.

19)The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: A A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations. B Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in noncommercial operations. C A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations. D Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in noncommercial operations.

20)When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization: A Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL. B Is only considered for PPL. C Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence. D Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.

22)Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be. A 5 minutes. B 3 minutes. C 10 minutes. D 15 minutes.

23) Which of the following statements in regard to motivation is correct?. A Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease in attention. B Motivation will reduce the task automation process. C Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention management capabilities. D Extremely high motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit attention management capabilities.

24) The determination of the centre of gravity in relation to the mean aerodynamic chord: A consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean aerodynamic chord and the leading edge. B consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean aerodynamic chord and the trailing edge. C consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the aerodynamic convergence point. D consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the aerodynamic centre of pressure.

21)Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system?. A 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit. B 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit. C 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit. D 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit.

25) In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion: A of Freon in a heat exchanger. B of Freon in the turbine. C in the turbine. D in a pressure relief valve.

26)Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance. A the primary and the side effects have to be considered. B the side effects only have to be considered. C medication has no influence on pilot´s performance. D only the primary effect has to be considered; side effects are negligable.

27) Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct ?. A Performance is not impaired by an increase in body temperature to 40°C or more. B Complete adaption to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight. C Vasodilation is the only regulant which is capable of reducing body temperature. D Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high.

28)A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is: A symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given. B cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia. C there are great differences between the two. D altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft.

29)The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is. A To avoid a short circuit. B To change DC into AC. C To change the DC voltage. D To change AC into DC.

30) A Jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for: A 30 minutes hold at 1500FT above destination aerodrome elevation, when no alternate is required. B 20 minutes hold over altenate airfield. C 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level. D 15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation.

31) Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of: A +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time. B +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time. C +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight. D +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time.

32) In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are: A range from cloud; wavelength/frequency used. B size of the water drops; diameter of radar scanner. C rotational speed of radar scanner; range from cloud. D size of the water drops; wavelength/frequency used.

33)Look at this TAF for Zurich Airport TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z = Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?. A Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3000 feet, wind 250°, temperature 18°C. B Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18°C. C Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots. D Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15°C, gusts up to 35 knots.

34) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT). A LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =. B LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =. C LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =. D LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =.

35)Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT). A LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =. B LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =. C LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =. D LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000.

36)Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?. A Coastal effect. B Quadrantal error. C Precipitation interference. D Local thunderstorm activity.

37)Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?. A It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path. B It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the "net take off flight path". C It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited takeoff mass. D It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the "net take-off flight path".

38)The correct drag formula is: A) D = CD 1/2 RHO V2 S. B) D = CD 2 RHO V2 S. C) D = CD 1/2 RHO V S. D) D = CD 1/2 RHO V2 S.

39)The aerofoil polar is: A a graph, in which the thickness of the wing aerofoil is given as a function of the chord. B a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient. C a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the angle of attack. D the relation between the horizontal and the vertical speed.

40) Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?. A altostratus. B cumulus. C cirrocumulus. D stratus.

41) Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code on the Transponder?. A IDENT (Identification). B NORMAL. C OFF. D STBY (Standby).

42)The absolute ceiling. A is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%. B is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min. C is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero. D can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed.

43) Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?. A Inertial Navigation System (INS) position. B Pressure altitude. C VOR/DME radial/distance. D Magnetic heading.

45) Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?. A At the FAF. B At the final en-route fix. C At the IAF. D At the IF.

46) Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?. A At the missed approach point. B At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained. C At the point where a new approach, holding or return to enroute flight is initiated. D At the point where the climb is established.

Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?. A Arrival, intermediate and final. B Initial and final. C Initial, intermediate and final. D Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.

Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?. A At least 300m (984 ft). B 150m (492 ft). C 300m (984 ft). D At least 150m (492 ft).

49) A circling approach is: A A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring. B A contact flight manoeuvre. C A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. D A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.

50) In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to: A Heading. B Course. C Bearing. D Track.

65) Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and : A On at least 20 days consecutively. B On at least 20 occasions. C On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days. D On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days.

66) Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by : A at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach. B at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach. C at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach. D at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach.

67) Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class : A D and E airspaces. B D airspace. C C, D and E airspaces. D E airspace.

68) To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is : A 18 and 60 years. B 21 and 59 years. C 16 and 60 years. D 17 and 59 years.

69) A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted : A 100 m (330 ft). B 300 m (1000 ft). C 200 m (660 ft). D 150 m (500 ft).

70) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by : A 730 m. B Less than 760 m. C 760 m. D Less than 730 m.

71) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than : A 20 degrees. B 15 degrees. C 30 degrees. D 25 degrees.

72) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : A the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach. B the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach. C the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach. D the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach.

73) Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ?. A During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ;. B If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft. C Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ;. D An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control ;.

74)To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E /. A two way radiocommunication is not required. B a clearance is required. C a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required. D a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required.

75) On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-inapproach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is : A 30 degrees or less. B 40 degrees or less. C 20 degrees or less. D 10 degrees or less.

76) An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if : A the pilot is following the published approach procedure. B all mentioned answers are correct. C the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight;. D the aircraft gets radar vectors ;.

77) A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed : A during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;. B during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;. C as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more. D during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground;.

78)The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of : A 15 NM. B 30 NM. C 25 NM. D 10 NM.

79) Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?. A ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicule. B An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ;. C The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area;. D Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller;.

80) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for: A 1minute 30 seconds. B 2 minutes. C 1 minute. D 1 minute 15 seconds.

81) In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called: A Racetrack pattern. B Procedure turn. C Shuttle. D Based turn.

82) What does the abbreviation OIS mean?. A Obstacle identification surface. B Obstacle in surface. C Obstacle identification slope. D Obstruction in surface.

83) An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by: A +/- 300 ft. B More than 200 ft. C More than 300 ft. D 300 ft.

84) The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed: A 2 NM from the threshold on final approach. B 3 NM from the threshold on final approach. C 5 NM from the threshold on final approach. D 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.

85) Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless: A They operate within non controlled airspace. B Requested by ATC. C They operate within controlled airspace. D They operate a transponder with Mode C.

86)When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to: A 7500. B 7700. C 7600. D 7000.

87) Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes : A) C, D, E, F, and G. B) F and G only. C) A, B, C, D, E, F and G. D) F only.

88)The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?. A 2 - 3 - 5. B 3 - 5. C 3 - 4 - 5. D 1 - 4.

89) For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft: A will arrive overhead the initial approach fix. B will land. C will stop on the parking area. D will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.

90) Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight level within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels: A 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL. B FL 30 or 100 ft AGL. C FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL. D 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.

91) If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions. A The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km. B The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic. C Continued approach will be according to VFR. D The approach must be passing the FAF.

92) When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: A 030° true. B 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track). C 030° magnetic. D 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track).

93) A strayed aircraft is : A an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established. B An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost. C only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track. D only that aircraft which reports that it is lost.

94) An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is: A adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination. B continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan. C descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations. D land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing.

95) Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ?. A 2.182 KHz. B 2430 KHz. C 121.5 MHz. D 243.0 MHz.

96) A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case: A There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. B The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly. C The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome. D The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.

97) Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?. A To the right. B To the left. C First right and then to the left. D Teardrop to the left and then to the right.

98) What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?. A Mode A code 7500. B Mode B code 7600. C Mode A code 7700. D Mode A code 7600.

99) What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?. A Follow the radio communication failure procedure. B inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. C a non-standard holding pattern is permitted. D it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.

100) You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until : 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the correct answers is : A 1, 3. B 1, 2, 3. C 1, 2. D 2, 3.

101) You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...) 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A 1,2,3,4. B 2,3,4. C 1,2,4. D 1,2,3.

102) A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight: 1- class A fires 2- class B fires 3- electrical source fires 4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicals Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?. A 2 - 4. B 3 - 4. C 1 - 2 - 3. D 1 - 2 - 3 - 4.

103) A class A fire is a fire of: A metal or gas or chemical (special fires). B solid material, generally of organic nature. C liquid or liquefiable solid. D electrical origin.

104) You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for : 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A 1,2,4. B 2,3,4. C 1,3,4. D 1,2,3,.

105) You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of : 1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...) 2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas 4 - metals (sodium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A 2. B 3. C 3 and 4. D 1.

106) A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to : A a flatter than normal approach with the risk of "ducking under". B the risk to land short of the overrun. C an early or high "round out". D steeper than normal approach dropping low.

107) A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When approaching a smaller and/or narrower runway, the pilot may feel he is at a. A greater height and the impression of landing short. B lower height and the impression of landing slow. C greater height than he actually is the tendency to land short. D lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot.

108) A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly a compensatory glide path and land long compensatory glide path and stall out. A higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot. B flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot. C compensatory glide path and land long. D compensatory glide path and stall out.