RADIONAV CAD

Which of the following statements is true of the FM transmitter when compared with the AM transmitter? 1. It is simpler 2. It requires greater modulating power. (a) Both. (b) Neither. (c) 2 Only. (d) 1 Only.

A vertical radio antenna will radiate a radio wave in which: (a) All horizontal components are screened. (b) The magnetic component alone is in the vertical plane. (c) The electrical and magnetic components are in the vertical plane. (d) The electrical component alone is in the vertical plane.

What is true of duct propagation?. (a) It is most likely in high latitudes. (b) It is most likely in mid latitudes. (c) It is equally likely in all latitudes. (d) It is most likely in low latitudes.

In the ICAO emission classification, a facility employing single sideband has a designator beginning with: (a) H or J. (b) S. (c) A. (d) H or N.

Apart from the transmission power, the maximum sky wave range depends on: (a) The wave’s angle of incidence with the earth’s surface only. (b) The critical angle only. (c) Critical angle, depth of penetration of the ionosphere and the wave’s angle of incidence with the earth’s surface. (d) The depth of penetration of the ionosphere only.

If a GDF station gives an aircraft a magnetic bearing from the station graded as class A it is a: (a) QDM accurate to within 5 degrees. (b) QDR accurate to within 5 degrees. (c) QDM accurate to within 2 degrees. (d) QDR accurate to within 2 degrees.

An NDB operating in the MF band has a 100 watt output and an operational range of 40nm. In order to increase the range to 60nm, the theoretical power output (watts) required would be?. (a) 250. (b) 300. (c) 38. (d) 225.

An NDB described as a “locator” will be positioned: (a) At the site of a DME to give bearing information. (b) At the site of an outer or middle marker. (c) On an airway. (d) At an isolated location where a point source navigational aid is required (e.g. on an island).

In the GDF (VDF) stations, Doppler technique: (a) Is sometimes used and utilises a large rotating antenna to create the Doppler effect. (b) Is never used. (c) Is sometimes used and utilises a circular array of fixed aerials which are sampled in turn to create Doppler effect. (d) Is sometimes used and utilises the relative velocity between the aircraft and the station to create Doppler effect.

In HF radio communications, which one of the following is an advantage of using single sideband emission as compared with double sideband?. (a) It simplifies the transmit/receive equipment, producing a significant weight saving. (b) It reduces bandwidth required and reduces the power required for a given signal strength. (c) It produces a vastly improved quality of audio signal. (d) It utilises twice the bandwidth and effectively prevents frequency distortion caused by the Doppler effect of moving aircraft.

The outer marker of an ILS with a 3 degree glide-path is located 4.6nm from the threshold of the runway. Given a glide-path height of 50ft above the threshold, the height (ft) of an aircraft passing over the outer marker on the glide path is: (a) 1398 ft. (b) 1448 ft. (c) 1516 ft. (d) 1463 ft.

ILS localisers normally provide coverage up to 10 degrees either side of the front course line to a distance of (i) …….. And to a distance of 17nm in the sector from 10 degrees to (ii) …………. From the front course line. (a) (i) 25 nm (ii) 25 degrees. (b) (i) 25 nm (ii) 35 degrees. (c) (i) 20 nm (ii) 35 degrees. (d) (i) 20 nm (ii) 25 degrees.

The ILS localiser radiates two transmissions carrying: (a) The same phases. (b) Different modulations. (c) The same modulations. (d) Different phases.

An aircraft tracking to intercept the ILS localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle: (a) Will receive signals without identification coding. (b) Can expect signals to give correct indications. (c) Will not normally receive signals. (d) May receive false course or reverse course sense indications.

Which is true of Doppler VOR?. (a) It is more prone to siting error than is non-Doppler VOR. (b) It requires different airborne equipment to that used with non-Doppler VOR. (c) It can suffer interference error. (d) The reference signal is frequency modulate.

The limacon radiation pattern of VOR is distinguished from the cardiod pattern used in ADF by its: (a) Formation from two signals combined. (b) Figure of eight configuration. (c) Two nulls. (d) Having no null.

VOR operating frequencies are contained within the band: (a) 103 to 130.5 MHz. (b) 103 to 121.5 MHz. (c) 112 to 129.5 MHz. (d) 108 to 117.95 MHz.

DME operates in the: (a) UHF band using a single frequency with the two modulations. (b) UHF band using two frequencies 63 MHz apart. (c) VHF band using the principle of phase comparison. (d) SHF band using the frequency modulation techniques.

An aircraft at FL420, ground range 4nm from a DME should have an indicated DME range of approximately: (a) 4 nm. (b) 8 nm. (c) 6 nm. (d) 10 nm.

The reason why a secondary radar display screen is free from storm clutter is because: (a) The air-to-ground frequency is different from the ground-to-air frequency. (b) The frequencies employed are too low to produce returns from water droplets. (c) The frequencies employed are too high to produce returns from water droplets. (d) A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or nearstatic returns.

The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL400 can use a DME situated at 1600ft AMSL is: (a) 300 nm. (b) 240 nm. (c) 200 nm. (d) 270 nm.

A radar facility transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses per second will have a maximum unambiguous range (nautical miles) of approximately (ignore pulse width and fly back): (a) 27. (b) 68. (c) 270. (d) 135.

What is true of GPWS?. (a) The radio altimeter has an upper limit of 5000ft AGL. (b) Modes 3 and 4 are selected automatically. (c) It does not include a barometric element. (d) It is uninhibited down to ground level.

Airborne weather radar operates in the: (a) VHF band using differential range. (b) SHF band using primary radar principles. (c) UHF band using primary radar principles. (d) SHF band using secondary radar principles.

Complete the following statement in relation to the CONTOUR function of an airborne weather radar (not colour radar). “In this mode, radar echoes (i) ………… a certain level of intensity are (ii)…………… in order to indicate areas of (iii) ……………”. (a) (i) above (ii) cancelled (iii) concentration of large water drops. (b) (i) below (ii) cancelled (iii) clear air. (c) (i) below (ii) enhanced (iii) clear air. (d) (i) above (ii) enhanced (iii) severe turbulence.

GPWS incorporates a …………….. radar. (a) Frequency modulated continuous wave. (b) hyperbolic. (c) secondary. (d) doppler.

Using airborne weather radar to determine the height of cloud tops, a cloud return 50nm ahead disappears from the screen as the 5 degree pencil beam is tilted up through 4 degrees. The height of the cloud top above the aircraft level is approximately? (use the 1:60 rule). (a) 9080 ft. (b) 20000 ft. (c) 5070 ft. (d) 7600 ft.

In a satellite navigation system, the minimum number of satellites needed for a three dimensional fix is?. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 6. (d) 5.

Which of the following is true of GPS? 1. Satellite positions are held in the GPS receiver memory 2. Fixing is based on the time interval between satellite transmission and receiver reception. (a) Both (1) and (2). (b) (1) Only. (c) Neither. (d) (2) Only.

Navigation Satellites each orbit the earth in: (a) 24 hours. (b) 12 hours. (c) 18 hours. (d) 6 hours.

Which of the following is likely to cause error in a GPS position of more than 100 metres? 1. Propagation Error 2. Satellite Clock Error. (a) Both. (b) (2) Only. (c) Neither. (d) (1) Only.

In a satellite assisted navigation system (GNSS / GPS), a position line is obtained by: (a) The aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known position. (b) Measuring the time that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft to reach and return from a satellite in a known position. (c) The aircraft’s receiver measuring the time differences between signals received from a number of satellites in known positions. (d) Timing the period between a satellite’s transmission of a signal and the reception of that signal at the aircraft’s receiver.

Generally, the strength of radio static varies: (a) Seasonally but not diurnally. (b) Diurnally but not seasonally. (c) Both diurnally and seasonally. (d) Neither diurnally nor seasonally.

For the same Ionospheric reflective layer, an increase in the transmitted frequency will (i) ………….. The critical angle and (ii) ………. the skip distance. (a) (i) decrease (ii) decrease. (b) (i) increase (ii) decrease. (c) (i) decrease (ii) increase. (d) (i) increase (ii) increase.

The F layer will usually reflect signals at frequency of: (a) 10 MHz to 50 MHz. (b) 2 MHz to 30 MHz. (c) 30 MHz to 70 MHz. (d) 10 MHz to 40 MHz.

The UHF waveband consists of frequencies from: (a) 300 to 3000 MHz. (b) 30,000 to 300,000 MHz. (c) 300 to 3000 Hz. (d) 3000 to 30,000 MHz.

In a basic radio transmitter, the purpose of the master oscillator is to: (a) Produce the radio carrier wave. (b) Convert the audio frequency into the required radio frequency. (c) Impose a modulation on the carrier wave. (d) Provide AC Power to the audio circuit.

(i) …….. The cardiod of an ADF loop aerial, the VOR limacon (ii) ………… a null position. (a) (i) like (ii) does not have. (b) (i) unlike (ii) does. (c) (i) unlike (ii) does not have. (d) (i) like (ii) does.

What accuracy protection from unwanted signals is provided if NDBs are used only within their promulgated ranges?. (a) By day: None By night: None. (b) By day: +/- 3° By night: None. (c) By day: +/- 5° By night: None. (d) By day: +/- 5° By night: +/- 5°.

Which is an advantage of using a suppressed carrier single sideband, as compared with double sideband, in HF R/T transmissions?. (a) It takes up less space in the radio frequency spectrum although it requires more power output to achieve a given range. (b) The power required for a given range is reduced to the root mean square of that required with double sideband. (c) It requires only half the bandwidth and is more economical in power requirements. (d) It uses twice the bandwidth, effectively preventing the frequency distortion otherwise caused by Doppler effect at high aircraft speeds.

Which is true with regards to NDBs?. (a) The lower the frequency, the less the surface wave range. (b) Range is doubled by a three-fold increase in power output. (c) Bearing obtained from a 10 kW beacon at a range of 1000nm must be from a sky wave. (d) The range obtained over sea for a given power output may be as little two thirds of that obtained over the land.

An NDB operating in the MF band has a 100 watt output and an operational range of 40nm. In order to increase the range to 60 nm, the theoretical power output required (watts) would be: (a) 250. (b) 300. (c) 38. (d) 225.

An airway 10nm wide is to be defined by 2 VORs having a worst case error of +/- 7.5 degrees. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway boundaries, the maximum distance apart for the VORs is approximately?. (a) 40nm. (b) 60nm. (c) 80nm. (d) 20nm.

An aircraft on a heading of 090°M bears 280°M from a VOR. The bearing to be selected on the OBS to make the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle central with TO on the TO/FROM indicator is: (a) 100°. (b) 270°. (c) 090°. (d) 280°.

The inbound route to a VOR facility is via the 197 radial. To obtain correct sense indications, the VOR/ILS deviation indicator should be set to: (a) 017° with the TO flag. (b) 197° with the TO flag. (c) 197° with the FROM flag. (d) 017° with the FROM flag.

The transmission frequency of the ILS middle marker is (i) …….. and the identification signal is a series of (ii) ……… in association with (iii) ………… light visual indications. (a) (i) 75 MHz (ii) Dots (ii) Amber. (b) (i) 75 MHz (ii) Dot/Dashes (ii) Blue. (c) (i) 75 MHz (ii) Dashes (iii) Amber. (d) (i) 75 MHz (ii) Dot/Dashes (iii) Amber.

Which is true of a VOR/DME RNAV system?. (a) Only VORs which are specially adapted for RNAV can be used. (b) All VORs and DMEs to be used must be specially adapted for RNAV. (c) All VOR and DME ground installations can be used. (d) Only DMEs which are specially adapted for RNAV can be used.

In an ILS localiser, the overlapping lobes are transmitted on (i) …………. Frequencies and carry different (ii) ……………. (a) (i) the same (ii) modulations. (b) (i) the same (ii) phase. (c) (i) different (ii) phase. (d) (i) different (ii) modulations.

Complete the following statement relating to a Category I ILS Facility. “Localiser signals provide coverage to a range of (i) ………….. Nm within plus or minus (ii) ………. of the front line course”. (a) (i) 10 (ii) 17°. (b) (i) 12 (ii) 8°. (c) (i) 25 (ii) 10°. (d) (i) 15 (ii) 17°.

When Mode C of an SSR transponder is operating, the information transmitted is: (a) Height based on QFE. (b) Height based on the altimeter sub-scale setting. (c) Aircraft level based on 1013.2 mb. (d) Altitude based on the regional QNH.

An aircraft DME equipment is able to distinguish between replies to its own transmissions and replies to other aircraft interrogations because: (a) Aircraft interrogation signals and ground responses are 63 MHz removed from each other. (b) Transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different from each other. (c) Pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with discrete aircraft code. (d) Pulse pairs are transmitted to random intervals and are thus discrete to each other.

An aircraft at FL420, ground range 4nm from a DME beacon, should have an indicated DME range approximately: (a) 4 nm. (b) 8 nm. (c) 6 nm. (d) 10 nm.

The maximum PRF that can be used by a primary radar in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 nm is: (a) 713 pps. (b) 1620 pps. (c) 4300 pps. (d) 610 pps.

TCAS II provides. (a) TAs and RAs in the vertical plane only. (b) TAs and RAs in the horizontal plane only. (c) TAs only. (d) TAs and RAs in the vertical and horizontal planes.

The airborne weather radar iso-echo contour function produces a cloud paint with a hollow centre. A narrow width of painting on one side of the hollow centre indicates an area: (a) Containing the smallest water drops. (b) Of least turbulence. (c) Of greatest turbulence. (d) Of shallow rainfall gradient.

Airborne weather radars utilise a (i) ………….. Beam width, transmitted from a dish aerial which is (ii) ……………. (a) (i) narrow (3-7 degrees) (ii) is fixed. (b) (i) narrow (3-7 degrees) (ii) sweeps from side to side. (c) (i) wide (180 degrees) (ii) is fixed. (d) (i) wide (180 degrees) (ii) sweeps from side to side.

Which is true of CW radio altimeters?. (a) Transmissions are amplitude modulated. (b) They can be used in automatic landing system. (c) Overall accuracy is about 2% of indicated height. (d) Older models use SHF and later models use UHF.

Which is true of GPWS?. (a) The radio altimeter has an upper limit of 5000ft AGL. (b) Modes 3 and 4 are selected automatically. (c) It does not include a barometric element. (d) It is uninhibited down to ground level.

Which is true of GPS?. (a) Signals are needed from only two satellites to provide a low grade fix. (b) The chief error source is an assumption that the earth is not a perfect sphere. (c) A minimum of four satellites is radio-visible from any point on earth. (d) There is no diurnal variation in accuracy.

Which of the following is true of the GPS? 1. Satellite positions are held in the GPS receiver memory 2. Fixing is based on the time interval between satellite transmission and receiver reception. (a) Both (1) and (2). (b) (1) Only. (c) Neither (1) nor (2). (d) (2) Only.

In GPS, any error in the position found that is due to an error in satellite orbital path is normally not more than: (a) 500m. (b) 0.5 m. (c) 5m. (d) 50m.

The Nominal extent of the LF band is?. (a) 3 to 30 KHz. (b) 3 to 30 MHz. (c) 300 to 3000 KHz. (d) 30 to 300 KHz.

Fading of ADF signals accompanied by a wandering bearing pointer may be indications of (i) …… which (ii) …………… be minimized by selecting (iii) ………………. (a) (i) sky wave contamination (ii) can always (iii) narrower bandwidth. (b) (i) sky wave contamination (ii) may (iii) NDB from lower end of frequency band. (c) (i) coastal refraction (ii) can (iii) REC or ANT. (d) (i) Sky wave contamination (ii) can (iii) REC or ANT.

The largest error in VDF are caused by: (a) Weather interference. (b) Terrain effect. (c) Aircraft Movement. (d) Night effect.

The lowest theoretical altitude at which a VDF sited at sea level can be received at a range of 125nm is: (a) 12,4000 ft. (b) 15,600 ft. (c) 7,500 ft. (d) 10,000 ft.

What is true of RNAV systems. (a) They give more choice of routes to operators and less flexibility to ATC. (b) They cannot make use of self-contained nav aids. (c) Some use point source nav aids. (d) They reduce ATC flow capacity.

When a DME transponder becomes saturated it deals automatically with the situation by: (a) Reducing Receiver Gain. (b) Increasing Receiver Gain. (c) Increase Transmitter Power. (d) Decrease Transmitter Power.

Which is true of the airborne weather radar?. (a) The weather beam should never be used for mapping purposes. (b) The maximum useable mapping range of the weather beam is greater than that of the mapping beam. (c) The maximum usable mapping range of the mapping beam is greater than that of the weather beam. (d) The maximum useable mapping range of the weather beam is similar to that of the mapping beam.

The main reason for using frequency of approximately 10 GHz with weather radars is that: (a) Good echoes can be obtained from the larger water droplets in cloud after penetrating intervening cloud containing smaller droplets. (b) Lower frequencies do not produce good ground echoes in the mapping mode. (c) All types of cloud produce strong echoes enabling pilots to select a track which avoids all cloud. (d) Static interference is less than it is at lower frequencies.

GPWS in Mode 5 generates (i) ……………… related to (ii) ……………. (a) (i) Warnings (ii) a nominal 3 degree glideslope. (b) (i) Warnings (ii) the actual ILS glideslope in use. (c) (i) Alerts (ii) a nominal 3 degree glideslope. (d) (i) Alerts (ii) the actual ILS glideslope in use.

Areas of severe turbulence produce the strongest radar reflections on AWR because the strongest (i) …….. In CB cloud contains the (ii) ……………… in the greatest concentration. (a) (i) vertical currents (ii) largest water droplets. (b) (i) horizontal windshear (ii) largest water droplets. (c) (i) horizontal windshear (ii) greatest vertical currents. (d) (i) vertical currents (ii) greatest windshear.

In which frequency band does the GPS system provide position information to civil aircraft?. (a) VHF. (b) SHF. (c) LHF. (d) UHF.

Which of the following is true of the GPS?. (a) It is approved by ICAO as a precision approach aid. (b) In the event of satellite malfunction, warnings flash on the CDU. (c) neither.

An aircraft is heading 021M at a range of15nm from a VOR. With 180 set on the OBS of the 5 dot deviation indicator, the needle indicates 3 dots to the right and TO in the TO/FROM window. The aircraft is located on the (i) …………. Radial and in order to make a continuous turn on the selected track a turn to the (ii) …………… will be required. (a) (i) 017 (ii) Left. (b) (i) 006 (ii) Left. (c) (i) 003 (ii) Right. (d) (i) 024 (ii) Right.

What is the major operational error in GPS?. (a) Atmosphere. (b) Ephemeris. (c) Clock. (d) Instrument.

SSR will not reflect storm clutter because. (a) Air-Ground and Ground-Air frequency are different. (b) Frequency are too low. (c) Frequency are too high. (d) Because of jittering the PRF.

Which of the following are advantages of MLS compared to ILS? 1. Full Azimuth and Elevation Coverage is available for back-course 2. Continuously available distance-to-go information. (a) both. (b) (1) only. (c) (2) only. (d) Neither.

Mode S Data-link system: (a) Will not suffer the same interference as VHF systems. (b) Is able to transfer all messages from ATC. (c) Can transfer limited data to Mode A/C transponders. (d) Can receive data from mode A/C transponders for the purpose of collision avoidance.

GPS assumes that the earth is a perfect sphere, this is the cause of a major source of error. (a) True. (b) False.

Radio waves that are vertically polarized are emitted by ……………….. Antennas and such transmissions experience …………. Surface wave attenuation than horizontally polarised signals. (a) Vertical More. (b) Horizontal More. (c) Vertical Less. (d) Horizontal Less.

Radio altimeter allows for pitch and roll. (a) By transmitting a narrow vertical beam. (b) By gyro stabilisation. (c) By limiting aerial movement to 10 degrees in both planes. (d) By using a wide conical beam.

Maximum surface wave range by HF is approximately: (a) 100 nm. (b) 300 nm. (c) 500 nm. (d) 4000 nm.

ADF sky-wave interference is likely to start at ranges of …………. From the transmitter. (a) 10 – 30 nm. (b) 70 – 100 nm. (c) 300 – 500 nm. (d) In excess of 500 nm.

Rain (i) …………… produce serious attenuation and distortion for primary radar operating in the SHF band such as (ii) …………. (a) (i) can (ii) centrimetric radar. (b) (i) does not (ii) centrimetric radar. (c) (i) can (ii) DME. (d) (i) does not (ii) DME.

Mode S transponder data link. (a) Does not reduce ATC R/T traffic. (b) Means all ATC messages can be up-linked. (c) Suffers similar interference levels as VHF. (d) Mode A/C equipped aircraft can use it.

What is true for AWR?. (a) Gyro stabilised in pitch but not roll. (b) MAN is operative for both WX and MAN modes. (c) The power level in the mapping beam follows a cosecant law. (d) Target alert exists at all ranges and bearing it operates for.

An example of primary radar operating in the SHF band is (i) …….. And it (ii) ……………….. Suffer from severe rain attenuation. (a) (i) DME (ii) does. (b) (i) DME (ii) does not. (c) (i) Centrimetric Radar (ii) does. (d) (i) Centrimetric Radar (ii) Does not.

What is true of the DME?. (a) The ground transponder frequency is always 63MHz higher than the aircraft’s interrogator frequency. (b) There is a constant time interval between pulse pairs. (c) The DME Ident, consisting of a series of paired pulses, is included in the return transmission. (d) In mountainous terrain, DME may experience inaccuracies due to reflections of the transmissions.

In an ILS, the LOC and the GS signals are of ……….. Frequencies and both are ………………. modulated. (a) Different amplitude. (b) Same amplitude. (c) Same frequency. (d) Different frequency.

What is true of GPS?. (a) There should be at least 4 satellites in radio sight at all times. (b) 2 satellites are required for a low grade fix. (c) The biggest error is due to the fact that the earth is not a perfect sphere. (d) The ephemeris error is +/- 4 metres.

Which of the following is/are true of the GPWS. (a) It is inhibited below 50 feet. (b) All modes operate simultaneously. (c) Modes 3 and 4 are mutually exclusive. (d) Barometric aiding is mandatory.

Maximum length of an airway 10nm wide which can be defined by 2 VORs with a maximum error of 5.5 degrees each?. (a) 50 nm. (b) 54 nm. (c) 105 nm. (d) 112 nm.

What is the frequency of a 3.2 cm wavelength. (a) 93.75 KHz. (b) 9.375 MHz. (c) 93.75 GHz. (d) 9375 MHz.

Direction finding techniques include. (a) Timing the receipt of radio signals to determine range. (b) Triangulation using one ground station to establish latitude and longitude of the transmitter. (c) Using a ring of vertical static aerials from which the received frequency is sampled in turn. (d) Using a rotating receiving aerial to frequency modulate the incoming signal.

With reference to GPS. (a) 3 satellites can provide a low grade fix. (b) A minimum of 4 satellites are required to provide a 3D position fix with RAIM. (c) A minimum of 4 satellites are always in view. (d) Accuracy does not vary diurnally.

How many degrees (of beam width) is half scale and full scale deflection below the glideslope?. (a) 0.14 degrees. (b) 0.35 degrees and 0.70 degrees. (c) 1.25 degrees and 2.5 degrees. (d) 2 ½ dots and 5 dots.

GPWS warnings for excessive sinkrate occur in what mode/s?. (a) 2. (b) 1. (c) 5. (d) 6.

What freq. is available for civilian GPS users?. (a) 2 GHz. (b) 1,575.42 MHz. (c) 1,375.46 MHz. (d) 1,375.42 KHz.

What freq. reflects off the E layer. (a) VLF, LF and MF at night. (b) VLF, LF and MF at day. (c) VLF and MF only. (d) SHF and HF.

On AWR where is the worst turbulence?. (a) red. (b) orange. (c) Colour contour bands close and narrow. (d) Heavy rain returns.

What does a black hole in iso contour radar show?. (a) Windshear via dopplar shift. (b) Greatest potential turbulence. (c) No cloud. (d) birds.

If you received and NDB station from over 1000 nm away what is the likely cause?. (a) Super refraction. (b) Duct propagation. (c) Sky waves. (d) Co channel interference.

Greatest GPS error?. (a) Time refraction. (b) atmospheric. (c) ephemeris. (d) Co channel interference.

Best target definition using primary radar techniques?. (a) Wide beam, high power. (b) Short pulse, narrow beam. (c) Long pulse, narrow beam. (d) Short pulse, wide beam.

Most accurate position fix with RNAV?. (a) DME + VOR. (b) DME + DME. (c) VOR + VOR. (d) TACAN + VOR. NOTE: If it says “you are unsure of your aircrafts position” then the best answer is VOR + VOR to ensure there is absolutely no ambiguity (A. Hicks).

How many satellites for a low grade GNSS fix?. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5.

If a GNSS satellite fails, are you provided with a warning on your CDU?. (a) NO. (b) YES. (c) Only if due to orbital plane dislodgement.

How does VOR provide the aircraft radial. (a) Comparing DDM. (b) Time delay. (c) Comparing AM and FM signals. (d) Side Lobe suppression.

GPS orbital error. (a) 1m. (b) 2m. (c) 4m. (d) 0.5m.

What is true of the Radar ALT?. (a) It uses amplitude comparison. (b) It can be used in auto land. (c) It is error free. (d) It is accurate regardless of aircrafts bank angle.

On what pressure reference are mode C outputs based on?. (a) Subscale setting. (b) QFE. (c) QNH. (d) 1013.

Advantage of DVOR over CVOR?. (a) Faster radial reading. (b) Reduced site error. (c) No inference from other VOR’s. (d) Less complex reciever.

Where would you find a ‘locator’. (a) At ARP. (b) OM or MM. (c) IRP. (d) IRD.

Severe turbulence is reflected from a Cb cloud due to: (a) Vertical movement of air. (b) Vertical movemet of water droplets. (c) lightning. (d) Ice returns.

MLS differs from ILS in that: (a) It is a precision approach. (b) It is not effected by terrain reflection. (c) It doesn’t provide azimuth. (d) It doesn’t provide vertical approach guidance.

What produces the CW in a radio Tx. (a) modulator. (b) Diode director. (c) Master oscillator. (d) Dither beacon.

Which statement is true of GPS: (a) Satellite positions are held in the receiver memory and fixing is based on the time interval between satellite TX and receiver RX. (b) Satellite positions are transmitted with the Pseudo code and are never held in the receiver memory and fixing is based on the time interval between satellite TX and receiver RX. (c) Satellite positions are held in the receiver memory and fixing is based on the time interval between satellite TX and satellite RX. (d) Satellite positions are held in the receiver memory and fixing is based on the time interval between receiver TX and receiver RX.

Max SFC wave range of HF?. (a) 75 nm. (b) 100 nm. (c) 150 nm. (d) 200 nm.

Radio ALT allows for limited bank using: (a) Narrow beam. (b) Wide cosecant beam. (c) Wide conical beam. (d) Short PRF.

SATCOM virtually unaffected by weather because: (a) Speech digitised. (b) There is no weather between satellites and aircraft. (c) The frequency is horizontally polarised. (d) The frequency employs circular polarisation.

At what range from and NDB will you begin to experience night effect, what can you do to minimize this?. (a) 700 to 1000 nm, tune a closer NDB. (b) 70 to 100 nm, tune a closer NDB. (c) 700 to 1000 nm tune a more distant NDB. (d) 70 to 100 nm tune a more distant NDB.

What is true of a VOR/DME RNAV system?. (a) It is accurate to 3%. (b) All VOR and DME ground stations can be used. (c) The pilot must confirm that each station is within DOC. (d) It will not take inputs from a co located VOR DME.

An aircraft DME equipment is able to distinguish between replies meant for it and those for other RX by: (a) DME using unique pulse pairs. (b) TX and RX freq being different. (c) Each aircraft using a unique PRF via jittering. (d) Each aircraft has its own unique transponder code.

ILS MM?. (a) Blue light, dots and dashes, 75 Mhz. (b) Amber light, dots and dashes, 75 Mhz. (c) White light, dots, 150 Mhz. (d) White light, dots, 75Mhz.

What is true of PRNAV fixes?. (a) More accurate than current VOR/DME equipment. (b) Less accurate than current VOR/DME equipment. (c) Just as accurate than current VOR/DME equipment. (d) Sometimes less accurate than current VOR/DME equipment.

HDG 040 On the 030R from a VOR What OBS setting to centre needle and show TO?. (a) 040. (b) 030. (c) 220. (d) 210.

How many degress is full and half scale GP deviation?. (a) .34 and 2. (b) .35 and 1.75. (c) .45 and 1.75. (d) .35 and .7.

Wavelength of 3.2cm is what freq?. (a) 9123 mhz. (b) 2.123 Ghz. (c) 7.8 Khz. (d) 9375 MHz.

VDF greatest error?. (a) Doppler shift. (b) terrain. (c) quadrantal. (d) Duct propigation.

What is true of Mode S data link. (a) It is effected by same interference as VHF, and can provide over the horizon service. (b) No interference as speech form digitised and can provide over the horizon service. (c) It provides position fix to aircraft systems. (d) It uses the LF band.

What dimensions does RNAV operate in. (a) LAT LONG and ALT. (b) LAT TIME and ALT. (c) LAT LONG and TIME. (d) LAT and LONG only.

What is true of mode S transponders? i) Can receive data from mode A/C transponders for collision avoidance ii) Are often used inn data link systems. (a) i. (b) ii. (c) both.

What is true of RNAV. (a) It uses some point source navaids. (b) It uses NDB DME fixes. (c) It uses the L band of radar freqs. (d) It is not possible to uses 2x DME’s for a fix.

What is true of AWR?. (a) It can display CAT. (b) Map mode is used for ranges in excess of 70 nm. (c) Map beam follows cosecant law. (d) WX beam follows cosecant law.

Large objects infront of the Localiser TX will. (a) Not effect the Localiser. (b) Cause bending and reduced accuracy. (c) Dopplar shift the signal causing the freq to change. (d) Create false GP indications.

What is a limitation of centimetric radar?. (a) Weather clutter. (b) scalloping. (c) Very large wavelengths. (d) Very large transmitter req.

In order to double the range of an NDB you will have to increase the power of the transmitter by. (a) 2. (b) 4. (c) 8. (d) 16.

The greatest turbulence on an Airborne Weather Radar display will be coloured. (a) green. (b) amber. (c) Red or magenta. (d) white.

Dead space increases with. (a) Increased skip distance. (b) Decreased skip distance. (c) A decrease in critical angle. (d) A reduction in frequency.

Ionospheric attenuation is greatest at. (a) Midnight. (b) Before dawn. (c) After sunset. (d) Midday.

You are on the 180 radial of a VOR you wish to track to the VOR what should you set on top of the OBS?. (a) 180. (b) 360. (c) 080. (d) 036.

In area navigation (RNAV). (a) You have to fly over pre selected navaids. (b) ATC workload is decreased. (c) You do not have to fly over navaids. (d) You have to fly approved airways.

area navigation (RNAV) is. (a) The use of VOR/DME to position fix. (b) The use of approved airways routes. (c) The longest route to a destination. (d) The use of DF Doppler ranging to position fix.

GPWS mode 3 is active until. (a) 700ft. (b) 500ft. (c) 790ft. (d) 1800ft.

TCAS 2 has. (a) TA s only. (b) Terrain clearance. (c) RAs. (d) Informational advisories only.

What are the distances between an associated VOR and DME. (a) 1000ft inside a TMA and 2000ft outside a TMA. (b) 7nm. (c) 100ft. (d) 100ft inside a TMA and 2000ft outside a TMA.

The angle where quadrangle effect is the worst is. (a) 45, 135, 225, 315 true bearing. (b) 45, 135, 225, 315 magnetic bearing. (c) 45, 135, 225, 315 relative bearing. (d) 45, 135, 225, 315 aircraft magnetic heading.

Dead space is increased with. (a) higher frequency that leads to greater attenuation of surface wave. (b) Lower frequency that leads to greater attenuation of a surface wave. (c) A decrease in critical angle. (d) A shortening of the skip distance.

You must conduct a go around when you are.... which will be indicated at ...... (a) 0.25 degrees below glide slope 0.25 fly up. (b) Only when reaching full scale deflection full scale fly up or down. (c) 0.5 degrees below glideslope 0.5 fly up. (d) 0.35 degrees below glideslope 0.35 fly up.

Some areas of the world only use VORs due high number of thunderstorms. This area is most likely to be in. A. Central America. B.Middle East. C.Antarctica. D.Artic Circle.

Order these in reference to longest to shortest wavelength. A. HF UHF SHF EHF. B. VLF MF EHF UHF. C.GF PF MF CF. D.HF UHF SHF MF.

The new European GNSS system is called. A. GAGAN. B. SKYNET. C.GALLILEO. D.GLOWNAS.

Dots below the ILS glide path represent. A. 0.4 Degress. B. 1.4 Degress. C.0.14 Degress. D.0.44 Degress.

FM Transmitter is……… And AM Receiver is …….. A. Simpler / Simpler. B. Complex / Simpler. C.Simpler / Complex. D.Complex / Complex.

Diffraction means….. A. Internalisation of the complex radian curves. B. Bending waves and in not common in VHF and above. C.Scattering of waves in the Ionosphere. D.Refraction of sky wave of F Layer.

Cardiod has a. A. Penis Shape. B. Heart Shape. C.Limacon Shape. D.Two Lobes with no Null Zone.

VOR Emission is. A. A8W. B. J3E. C.A9W. D.A1A.

The width of half a UK airway is. A. 5nm. B. 7.5nm. C.10nm. D.12.5nm.

HF RTF freq is….. at night than day?. A. The Same. B. Higher. C.Less than. D.Higher or Lower.

Doppler VOR reference signal is …… modulated, and variable signal is…. Modulated?. A. Amplitude, Frequency. B. Frequency, amplitude. C. Frequency, frequency. D. Amplitude, amplitude.

What is true of DME?. Does not suffer from Scalloping. la de arriba.

GPS satellites orbit the earth in … hrs at ….. NM?. A. 12 hr, 11000 Nm. B. 24 hr, 5500 Nm. C. 12 hr, 5500 Nm. D. 24 hr, 11000 Nm.

The frequency of a radio wave with a wavelength of 2.4 cm is?. A. 12,500 mhz. B. 12,500 hz. C. 2500 mhz. D. 6750 mhz.

If an NDB with a power output of 1 KW has a range of 100 Nm, what will its range be if power is reduced to 250 W?. A. 40 nm. B. 60 nm. C. 50 nm. D. 100 nm.

AE20 Feedback. DOC (designated operational coverage of the VOR, question asked about the reason for having this). WX radar, tops of cloud, (the beam width and tilt values changed. EHF wavelength. Error associated with the VOR (answer is all except thunderstorms). Principle of radio altimeter (answer is SHF frequency modulated).

A VDF uses the following? A. QDR, QDM B. QTE, QUJ. (a) A only. (b) A + B. (c) B only.

What is the wavelength band for EHF?. (a) 0.1cm – 0.5cm. (b) 10mm – 20mm. (c) 1cm - 0.1cm. (d) 10cm.

You are tracking towards VOR Y (single arrow) and have VOR X tuned (double headed arrow). Which details are correct: A) TRACK 140 DRIFT 10S RADIAL FROM X 270. B) TRACK 320 DRIFT 10S RADIAL FROM X 090. C) TRACK 320 DRIFT 10P RADIAL FROM X 090. D) TRACK 140 DRIFT 10P RADIAL FROM X 270.

What is the cause of the ephemeris error in GPS systems?. (a) Satellites not being in the correct position. (b) The earth not being a perfect sphere. (c) Diffraction in the upper atmosphere. (d) An autotransformer has only one coil.

Which of the following waves travels the furthest?. VLF over sea. VLF over land. HF over land. HF over sea.

How does the range of HF transmissions differ from day to night?. (a) More,. (b) Less,. (c) Or the same.

Weather beam question- the cloud tops are now at 7600ft. Cheers dits…. x.

If you receive simultaneous and opposite commands from the TCAS RA and also ATC what should you do?. (a) Contact ATC and ask for further advice. (b) Follow the commands from the TCAS RA. (c) Follow ATC instructions. (d) Close your eyes and kiss your ass goodbye!.

You are tracking outbound from VOR X (thin needle) and crossing a radial from VOR Y (Thick needle). Which is true of your position? (The figures aren’t given you have to work them out during the exam. (a) 322R from X - 7deg S drift - 231R from Y. (b) 142R from X - 3deg S drift - 231R from Y. (c) 322R from X - 5deg S drift - 051R from Y. (d) 167R from X - 7deg S drift - 231R from Y.

From the following figure, which is true of the position in the ILS?. (a) 0.7 below GS left of Centreline. (b) 0.35 below GS left of Centreline. (c) 0.35 above GS right of Centreline. (a) 0.35 above GS left of Centreline.

At what maximum range would you expect to receive a DME at FL200 and arial ht 1500’?. (a) 200. (b) 160. (c) 225. (d) 135.

RNAV • Duct Propagation – Most likely in low latitudes • Advantage of SSB – Reduced Bandwidth, Reduced Power • Doppler VOR – Suffers from Static Interference Error • ILS Localiser – 1 Frequency (VHF) – 2 different modulations (90Hz and 150 Hz) • AWR – SHF Band, Primary Radar • GPWS – Frequency Modulated, Continuous Wave Radar (Radar Altimter) • Satellite Orbit – 12 Hours, Altitude: 10,900 nm • GPWS ‘SINK RATE’ – Mode 1 • GPS Civilian Frequency – 1575.42 MHz (L1) • E Layer Reflections – VLF (LF and MF at Night) • Night effect – Sky wave interference from the tuned station • Greatest GPS Error – Atmospheric Propagation Error (Ionospheric) • Best Radar Target Definition – Short Pulse, Narrow Beam • RNAV Most Accurate Position Fix - DME/DME • Centrimetric Radar – Weather DOES affect it • GPS orbital error – 0.5m. notes. yes.

RNAV • ILS Max Safe Deviation – 2.5 dots • Advantage of DVOR – Site Error reduced • MLS vs ILS – MLS not affected by Terrain • Master Oscillator – Produces carrier waves • Max Surface Wave Range by HF – 70 – 100nm • Radio Altimeter compensation for pitch and roll – Wide conical beam • SATCOM – virtually unaffected by met conditions because the speech waveform is digitised • GPWS Below Glideslope – ALERT ONLY, “GLIDESLOPE” – no associated warning • Vertical Polarisation – Suffers Less Surface Wave Attenuation than Horizontal Polar. • FM Transmitter – Less Complicated • FM Receiver – More Complicated • VDF Greatest Error – Terrain • Mode S Data Link – Suffers similar interference levels as VHF • Mode S – Over-the-Horizon service • RNAV – 3 Dimensions (LNAV, VNAV). notes. yes.

RNAV • Large object in path of LOC signal – Will bend signal and reduce accuracy of course guidance (affects localiser but not glideslope!!) • Centrimetric Radar – Suffers from severe rain attenuation • Doppler VOR – Reference Phase AM, Vari-Phase FM • Satellites for Low-Grade Fix – 3 • Satellites for a Position Fix – 4 • Max Ionospheric Attenuation – Midday • VOR Full Scale Deflection (FSD) = 10 Degrees Either Side • ILS LOC FSD – 2.5 Degrees • ILS GS FSD – 0.7 Degrees • ILS CAT I – Capable of 200ft Above ILS Reference Point • ILS CAT II – Capable of 50ft Above ILS Reference Point • ILS CAT III – Capable of Coverage down to runway surface. notes. yes.

RNAV • Question about GPWS – below glideslope with excessive sink rate – Glideslope is ALERT only – Excessive descent rate with respect to terrain is an ALERT and WARNING – Should both occur, then Excessive sink rate Warning has priority over the Glideslope Alert – The resulting warning will be “Whoop Whoop Pull Up” • GPS – In case of malfunction, CDU DOES NOT give a warning • GPS – Greatest Error is Atmospheric Propagation (<4m) • GPS – NON PRECISION Approach Aid • GPS – Ephemeris Error – Error in Position Data of Satellite (0.5m) • Double Range of Transmitter requires 4 Times the Power • Double Range of Radar requires 16 times the Power • GPWS Mode 1 – 50-2450ft “SINK RATE” • GPWS Mode 3 – 50-700ft “DON’T SINK” - 10% Altitude Loss. notes. yes.

RNAV • DME – Does not suffer from scalloping • Maximum Useable Frequency – Freq where skip distance is just short of aircraft • Emissions to Know: – ILS A8W – VOR A9W – HF SSB J3E • ADF Static interference – Precipitation BETWEEN aircraft and NDB has NO EFFECT – Precipitation FALLING ON THE AIRCRAFT has AN EFFECT – Dust and Charged particles on the aircraft have an affect • Decrease NDB Night Effect – Select Closer NDB or Stronger Signal • 21 Satellites, 3 operational spares, 24 total (HKCAD is outdated). notes. yes.

RNAV • MLS – Time referenced scanning beam • ILS – Left/UP is 90 HZ, Right/DOWN is 150 Hz • LOC – VHF G/S – UHF • Coverage of Glideslope = 0.45 x GPA (Below), 1.75 x GPA (Above) • DME Accuracy: – Least Accurate – Overhead the Station – Most Accurate Distance – Low Altitude, Far Away (within coverage) – Most Accurate Groundspeed – Tracking Away from Station (G/S 0 if tracking perpendicular) • Pulse Radar: – Min Range – Pulse Length (1/2 Pulse Length) – Max Range – PRF • Ground use of AWR: Clear of Personnel, WX (Conical), Full Tilt Up • Ducting: – Temperature Inversion – RH Decrease with Height – Low Latitudes (Tropics and Sub-Tropics). notes. yes.

RNAV • DME – Does NOT suffer from scalloping • Most accurate position fix in RNAV – DME/DME. notes. yes.