Recetas

1. With both ECAM screens operative (dual ECAM display), which screen displays the engine primary parameters, slats/flaps position, fuel on board, etc, and also failure messages: a. Upper ECAM (Engine/Warning Display). b. Lower ECAM System pages. c. Lower ECAM Status page.

2. When there is a failure in DMC 1 (Display Management Computer 1) what action must be performed to recover the three display units normally supplied by it: a. Automatic switching to DMC 2. b. Automatic switching to DMC 3. c. Manual switching to DMC 3.

3. What kind of failures are those having operational consequences on the aircraft and also have failure messages (ECAM indications, local lights and attention getters) in the cockpit, MEL reference must be made to dispatch the aircraft. a. Class I. b. Class 2. c. Class 3.

4. In what moment is the Current Leg Report transferred to the Last Leg Report. a. During touchdown. b. After touchdown, when the speed of the aircraft is less than 80 Knots for 30 seconds. c. 5 minutes after the last engine shutdown.

5. What does the Post Flight Report PFR consist of: a. Failure messages presented to the crew on ECAM during last flight and sent to the CFDIU (centralized fault display interface unit). b. Failure messages detected by the aircraft computers during their BITE in the last flight and sent to the CFDIU. c. The sum of failure messages presented on ECAM during last flight and the failure messages detected by the aircraft computers and sent to the CFDIU.

6. Where is the location of the IDG’s (Integrated Drive Generator): a. In the avionics compartment. b. On the engines. c. In the main landing gear bay.

7. What happens if there is a fault on the AC BUS 1?. a. The AC ESS BUS is lost and can not be energized. b. The AC ESS BUS can be re-energized setting the AC ESS FEED PB in ALT position. c. The AC ESS BUS is lost momentarily, but can be re-energized starting the APU GEN.

8. With the aircraft flying in emergency configuration, which of the following components generates 115 VAC voltage, 3 phase, 400 Hz to feed directly the AC ESS BUS and the DC ESS BUS through the ESS TR: a. The CSM/G (constant speed motor/generator). b. The TR (transformer rectifier). c. The static inverter.

9. From which ADIRU can the DDRMI receive information?. a. ADIRU 1 or 2. b. ADIRU 2 or 3. c. ADIRU 1 or 3.

10. How do pitot and static probes supply the ADIRUS?. a. Using ADMs, which convert pressure into digital format. b. Directly with total and static pressures. c. Directly with digital format.

11. Which pressures line(s) need(s) to be drained?. a. All pilot lines. b. All static lines. c. Only the standby static line.

12. Where does ADIRU 3 receive TAT information from?. a. Captain TAT sensor. b. First officer TAT sensor. c. Standby TAT sensor.

13. What must be done in case of ADR 1 failure?. a. Set AIR DATA switch to CAPT3 position. b. Set ATT HDG switch to CAPT3 position. c. Leave AIR DATA HDG switches on NORM position.

14. When does the ALIGN light flash?. a. Within five minutes of NAV mode selection when present position has not been entered. b. During the alignment phase in case of IRS alignment error. c. When alignment has been completed.

15. What information is displayed on the airspeed scale?. a. CAS from ADR. b. CAS from ADR mixed with inertial speed. c. CAS from ADR, inertial speed if ADR failure.

16. A heading discrepancy between the NDs is detected by: a. FWCs. b. DMCs. c. ADIRS.

17. The TAT and SAT data is provided by: a. ADR 1 or ADR3. b. ADR 2 or ADR 3. c. ADR 1 or ADR 2.

18. What are the functions of the FACs?. a. Yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limitation, and flight envelope protection. b. Yaw damper, pitch trim, rudder trim, and flight envelope protection. c. Yaw damper, rudder trim, pitch trim.

19. Where are the FMGC functions controlled from?. a. The MCDUs and rudder trim control panel. b. The FCU and rudder trim control panel. c. The FCU and MCDUs.

20. The yaw damper provides: a. Dutch roll damping and yaw guidance order execution. b. Turn coordination and engine failure compensation. c. A and B are right.

21. In cruise, the autopilot lateral mode orders are executed by: a. The ailerons and the rudder. b. The ailerons and the spoilers. c. The spoilers and the rudder.

22. The aircraft is in cruise with AP 1 engaged. What happens when AP 2 is engaged?. a. AP 1 remains active, AP 2 is in standby. b. AP 2 becomes active with AP 1 in standby. c. AP 2 becomes active, AP 1 is disengaged.

23. The aircraft is on ground: a. It is impossible to engage the autopilot. b. Engines running, it is impossible to engage the autopilot. c. Engines shut down, it is impossible to engage the autopilot.

24. What is the purpose of the AMU?. a. To centralize all the audio signals and the frequencies of the communication systems. b. To act as an interface between the users and the various radio communication and radio navigation systems. c. To receive audio signals only.

25. Which RMP can control the VHF 1 transceiver?. a. RMP1. b. RMP 1 and RMP 2. c. RMP 1, RMP 2 and RMP 3.

26. When is the muting circuit operative?. a. The muting circuit always mutes the audio output. b. The muting circuit is operative only with the hand microphone selection. c. The muting circuit is operative when any microphone is keyed to transmit.

27. The KEY INTERLOCK red light (LED) on the face of the HF Transceiver comes on when a failure es detected in the : a. HF Coupler. b. RMP. c. HF Transceiver.

28. Where is located the INTEG LT knob to adjust the brightness of Main Instrument Panel Integral Lighting?. a. At Main Panel. b. At Overhead Panel. c. At Center Pedestal.

29. Dual navigation lights are located at each wing tip and in the APU tail cone, if the NAV Switch is set to 2 position. a. The six NAV lights are activated. b. Circuit for second set of navigation lights is activated. c. Only the logo lights are activated.

30. With the Emergency Lights armed. When do the EPSUs integrated Batteries supply the Emergency Lighting system?. a. When the EMER EXIT LT selector is in the ON position. b. When the 28 VDC ESS BUS is lost. c. When Main Lighting System has failed.

31. What lights go off automatically when landing gear is retracted?. a. Taxi, Take off and runway turn off lights. b. Taxi and take off only. c. Runway turn off only.

32. The service compartment light system provides illumination of: a. Nose wheel well. b. MLG wheel well. c. The air conditioning duct/accessory compartment.

33. The EMER LIGHT pushbutton located on the FAP allows the Emergency Lighting System to be switched on. The EMER LIGHT pushbutton has the same function as the ON position of the EMER EXIT LT selector on panel 25VU. a. True. b. False.

34. In case of failure of the 28VDC essential busbar, batteries in each EPSU continue to supply the emergency lighting system for at least …. a. 6 minutes. b. 8 minutes. c. 12 minutes.

35. Before activating a BATTERY CAPACITY TEST using PTP, it is necessary to set the NO SMOKING and the EMERGENCY LIGHTING switches to the OFF position. The battery capacity test indicates the battery capacity condition of the Emergency Power Supply Units. The duration of the test will be up to two hours. a. True. b. False.

36. What kind of test is required manually by the mechanic through CFDS, to check the integrity of an aircraft system, specially after the replacement of an LRU or for troubleshooting purposes: a. Power-up test. b. In-operation test. c. System test.

37. Which of the following computers generates (produces) the information displayed on EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) and ECAM screens: a. SDAC (System Data Acquisition Concentrator). b. DMC (Display Management Computer). c. FWC (Flight Warning Computer).

38. What happens when there is a simultaneous failure of both FWC’s (FWC 1 + 2 failure): a. The generation of red and amber warnings is lost. b. The generation of red and amber warnings is does not lose. c. Nothing happens, this failure does not affect the warning generation.

39. In the cabin pressurization system, what happens if the outflow valve begins to close?. a. Cabin altitude increases and its differential pressure decreases. b. Cabin altitude decreases and its differential pressure decreases. c. Cabin altitude decreases and its differential pressure increases.

40. Which component monitors the smoke detectors installed in the lavatories air extraction duct. a. FDU (fire detection unit). b. SDCU (smoke detection control unit). c. AEVC (avionics equipment ventilation computer).

41. What result is obtained if any of the FDU (engines or APU) senses a Loop A & Loop B FAULT condition (failure of both loops) with the failures of the loops occurring within a time frame of less than 5 seconds. a. Fire warnings (Fire PB ON, Master warning, Continuous repetitive chime, ECAM warning, etc.). b. Loop fault (only ECAM amber message). c. There are no consequences in the cockpit.

42. What condition will cause that safety valves indication on ECAM CAB PRESS page stays green. a. Both safety valves completely closed. b. Both safety valves not in completely closed position (partially open). c. Any of the safety valves not in completely closed position (partially open).

43. Which computer normally controls the aircraft pitch movement (elevators and THS). a. ELAC 1. b. ELAC 2. c. SEC 1.

44. When performing a landing gear gravity extension, why is it necessary to operate first the vent valves in the hydraulic system by turning the gravity extension crank handle. a. To pressurize the extension line of the gear actuators. b. To prevent hydraulic block of the actuators when releasing the gears. c. To mechanically release the gears and doors from the uplock boxes.

45. Where is the DME system information shown?. a. Only in the PFDs. b. In the PFDs, NDs and DDRMI. c. In the ECAM displays only.

46. CIDS – When is the PA audio level increased automatically?. a. All the time while there is some noise in the cabin. b. At engine start or cabin depressurization. c. Only when the airplane is in flight.

47. The coaxial suppressor cable installed between the DME, ATC and TCAS is used…. a. To prevent simultaneous transmition of those units. b. To intercept the ATC reply when the DME is in standby. c. To allow the DME, ATC and TCAS simultaneous operation.

48. Under normal operating conditions, with the engines shutdown (GEN 1 & GEN 2 PB in AUTO position), APU running (APU GEN PB in AUTO position) and external power available (EXT PWR PB in ON position), which source has the priority to feed aircraft electrical network busses: a. GEN 1. b. APU GEN. c. EXTERNAL POWER.

49. In normal operating conditions which of the following components converts the 115 VAC voltage, 400 Hz from the AC BUS 1 & 2 into 28 VDC to feed the DC BUS 1 & 2 : a. The CSM/G (Constant Speed Motor/Generator). b. The TR (Transformer Rectifier). c. The static inverter.

50. What is the function of the GPCU (ground power control unit): a. Monitor and control the main parameters of GEN 1 & GEN 2. b. Monitor and control the main parameters of GEN 1, GEN 2 & APU GEN. c. Monitor the main parameters of External Power.