Regulaciones C

When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?. All solo flights. On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector. On flights when carrying another person.

In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command and receive compensation for services?. Part-time contract pilot. Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an airport to carry persons for intentional parachute jumps. Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an airport to carry cargo only.

In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command and receive compensation for services?. Aerial application and bird chasing. On-demand, nine or less passenger, charter flights. On-demand cargo flights.

Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date?. No, it is issued without a specific expiration date. Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was issued. No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months.

Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when. piloting for hire only. carrying passengers only. acting as pilot in command.

No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the. other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated commercial pilot. pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance. other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.

A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that person. holds appropriate category, class ratings, and meets the recent flight experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61. is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation. is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and has passed a pilot competency check given by an authorized check pilot.

Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any. aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight. multiengine airplane having a gross weight of more than 12,000 pounds.

What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial pilot–airplane, if that person does not hold an instrument rating? The carriage of passengers. for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights. or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM. for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or for hire at night is prohibited.

Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?. Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. Single-engine land, multiengine land, singleengine sea, and multiengine sea.

In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command of a helicopter and receive compensation for services?. Military contract rescue flights. On-demand charter flights. Carriage of candidates in a Federal election.

In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command of a helicopter and receive compensation for services?. On-demand charter flights. Helicopter flights with two passengers or less, within 25 SM radius of the departure heliport. Military contract rescue flights.

A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?. Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year. Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later. Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.

What flight time must be documented and recorded, by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?. Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review. All flight time flown for compensation or hire. Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.

What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?. All flight time while acting as second in command in aircraft configured for more than one pilot. All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot. Only that flight time during which the second in command is the sole manipulator of the controls.

To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to. make at least six takeoffs and landings in such an airplane within the preceding 6 months. receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency. hold a multiengine airplane class rating.

To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to. receive and log ground and flight training from a qualified pilot in such an airplane. obtain an endorsement from a qualified pilot stating that the person is proficient to operate such an airplane. receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane.

To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must. complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months. receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor. complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.

To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must. receive and log flight training from an authorized flight instructor in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested. hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category rating. within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.

To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must. log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor. pass a competency check and receive an endorsement from an authorized instructor. receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person proficient in a tailwheel airplane.

If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is. 1959 CST. 1900 CST. 1800 CST.

Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in. any category aircraft. the same category and class of aircraft to be used. the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the past 6 months, performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions, at least. six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses, or passed an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category. three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours of instruments. six instrument flights and six approaches.

Pilots who change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period of. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91?. Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office. Advise ATC of the pilot-in-command’s intentions. Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight. if it creates a hazard to persons and property. unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private property. unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury to property.

Regulations which refer to operate relate to that person who. acts as pilot in command of the aircraft. is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls. causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.

Regulations which refer to the operational control of a flight are in relation to. the specific duties of any required crewmember. acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

Regulations which refer to “commercial operators” relate to that person who. is the owner of a small scheduled airline. for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, as an air carrier. for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.

What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane?. Certificate holder. Pilot in command. Airplane owner/operator.

A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a. written report to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the motor vehicle action. written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction. notification of the conviction to an FAA Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the. nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days after such action. FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction. FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.

A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for. a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction. notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction. suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.

A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person’s faculties, is grounds for a. written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 day after the conviction. written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction. denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?. A certificated aircraft mechanic. The pilot in command. The owner or operator.

When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft, which document is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft?. A manufacturer’s Operations Manual. A current, approved Airplane (or Rotorcraft) Flight Manual. An Owner’s Manual.

Which of the following preflight actions is the pilot in command required to take in order to comply with the United States Code of Federal Regulations regarding day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?. File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station. Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers. Verify approved position lights are not burned out.

You are taking a 123 nautical mile VFR flight from one airport to another. Which of the following actions must the pilot in command take?. Ensure each passenger has a legible photo identification. Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers. File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.

When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?. IFR flights only. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. any flight conducted for compensation or hire.

The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to. any flight conducted for compensation or hire. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. IFR flights only.

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport. list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.

Which list accurately reflects some of the documents required to be current and carried in a U.S. registered civil airplane flying in the United States under day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?. Proof of insurance certificate, VFR flight plan or flight itinerary, and the aircraft logbook. VFR sectional(s) chart(s) for the area in which the flight occurs, aircraft logbook, and engine logbook. Airworthiness certificate, approved airplane flight manual, and aircraft registration certificate.

Required flight crewmembers’ safety belts must be fastened. only during takeoff and landing. while the crewmembers are at their stations. only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the aircraft.

Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened. during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft. while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties. during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.

With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is required during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings for. safe operating practice, but not required by regulations. each person over 2 years of age on board. commercial passenger operations only.

Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each. flight crewmember only. person on board. flight and cabin crewmembers.

Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil helicopters require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each. person on board. flight and cabin crewmembers. flight crew member only.

Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flown. along Federal airways. within the U.S. in air carrier operations.

Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil aircraft being operated. under IFR. in passenger carrying operations. along Federal airways.

If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for. 30 minutes at slow cruising speed. 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. 1 hour at normal cruising speed.

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for 1. Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas. 2. all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface). 1. 2. Both 1 and 2.

What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder. with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability. with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement. is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.

In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above. 10,000 feet MSL. 12,500 feet MSL. 14,500 feet MSL.

In accordance with 14 CFR Part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of. 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL. 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL. 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.

What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL?. Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew. Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon. The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.

Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water,. in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore. beyond power-off gliding distance from shore. more than 50 statute miles from shore.

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?. Flashlight with red lens if the flight is for hire. An electric landing light if the flight is for hire. Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.

The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is. not authorized in a “utility” category aircraft. not authorized in a “limited” category aircraft. authorized in “restricted” category aircraft.

No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate. under instrument flight rules (IFR). when carrying property for hire. when carrying persons or property for hire.

Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a “restricted’’ category airplane?. A pilot of a “restricted” category airplane is required to hold a commercial pilot certificate. A “restricted” category airplane is limited to an operating radius of 25 miles from its home base. No person may operate a “restricted” category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.

Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a “primary’’ category airplane?. A “primary” category airplane is limited to a specified operating radius from its home base. No person may operate a “primary” category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire. A pilot of a “primary” category airplane must hold a commercial pilot certificate when carrying passengers for compensation or hire.

The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is. 30 minutes. 45 minutes. 60 minutes.

No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Technical Section, Oklahoma City, OK within how many hours of its execution?. 24. 48. 72.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are. authorized when carrying passengers for hire with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM. not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.

Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are. not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are. not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft. at the higher altitude. at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft. that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft.

While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the rightof-way, and why?. The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane. The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over airplanes. The airplane, because airplanes have the rightof-way over helicopters.

Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?. Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right to pass. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?. Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass. Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft. #2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1. #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1. #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?. The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right. The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left. Each pilot should alter course to the right.

If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91, the. operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the controlling agency. aircraft may be operated at that speed. operator must have a Letter of Agreement with ATC.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?. 156 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is. 180 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.

If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system, no person may operate that aircraft. after sunset to sunrise. after dark. 1 hour after sunset.

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?. Anticollision light system. Gyroscopic direction indicator. Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.

Operation of a balloon, during the period of sunset to sunrise, requires that it be equipped and lighted with. red and green position lights. approved aviation red and white lights. a steady aviation white position light and a red or white anticollision light.

Operation of a lighter-than-air airship, during the period of sunset to sunrise, requires it be equipped and lighted with. position lights and aviation red or white anticollision light system. approved aviation red and white lights. position lights.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is. 2,000 feet over all terrain. 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

Minimum safe altitude rules require that helicopter pilots. not fly lower than 500 feet, except when necessary for takeoff or landing. comply with routes and altitudes prescribed by the FAA. not fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Minimum safe altitude rules authorize helicopter pilots to. fly at less than 500 feet. fly at less than 500 feet if they do not create a hazard to persons or property on the surface. fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vehicle, vessel, or structure on the surface.

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?. The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft. Pilot in command or operator. Owner or operator of the aircraft.

If an aircraft’s operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated. under VFR or IFR rules. with passengers aboard. for compensation or hire.

A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives. required maintenance and inspections. an annual inspection. an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.

What regulations are in the terms and conditions of a Standard Airworthiness Certificate?. Parts 21, 31, 43, and 91. Parts 21, 61, and 91. Parts 21, 43, and 91.

An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection?. The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long as the time in service has not exceeded 110 hours. The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as 100 hours has not been exceeded at the time it departs. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.

Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections?. A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection. An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection. An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been approved.

An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding. 30 days. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?. Its use is not permitted. It may be used when in Class G airspace. It may be used for VFR flight only.

A transponder will become unserviceable when it is off by more than. 125 feet. 50 feet. 20 feet.

After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made. on the airworthiness certificate. in the aircraft maintenance records. in the FAA-approved flight manual.

Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the. applicable airworthiness certificate. life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe. life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previous. operating hours of the engine. annual inspections performed on the engine. changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.

For the purpose of airworthiness, a dealer registration certificate is the same as the owner’s certificate when. the aircraft is old and moved. traveling more than 150 NM. required for flight testing.

Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?. A record of preventive maintenance is not required. A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records. Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight manual.

Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the. pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft. pilot in command of that aircraft. owner or operator of that aircraft.

Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?. ADs are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately. Noncompliance with ADs renders an aircraft unairworthy. Compliance with ADs is the responsibility of maintenance personnel.

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a “serious injury”?. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of the injury.

Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage. which requires repairs to landing gear. to an engine caused by engine failure in flight. which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.

NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of which incident?. Engine failure for any reason during flight. Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard landing. Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of illness.

Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately?. In-flight fire. Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch. Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar which results in damage to other property of more than $25,000.

Which airborne incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately?. Cargo compartment door malfunction or failure. Cabin door opened in-flight. Flight control system malfunction or failure.

While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?. No notification or report is required. A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA field office within 48 hours. An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office.

While taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing gear, wheel, and tire are damaged by striking ground equipment. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?. An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office. A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field office within 7 days. No notification or report is required.

During flight a fire which was extinguished burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action is required by regulations?. No notification or report is required. A report must be filed with the avionics inspectorat the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office within 48 hours. An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office.

When should notification of an aircraft accident be made to the NTSB if there was substantial damage and no injuries?. Immediately. Within 10 days. Within 30 days.

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB. within 7 days. within 10 days. only if requested to do so.

How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office?. 2. 7. 10.

Pilots and/or flight crew members involved in near midair collision (NMAC) occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately. by cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards District Office, as this is an emergency. to local law enforcement. by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.

Who is responsible for filing a Near Midair Collision (NMAC) Report?. A passenger on board the involved aircraft. Local law enforcement. Pilot and/or Flight Crew of the aircraft involved in the incident.