Regulations

Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot- in-command required to hold a type rating?. When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.

The second-in-command of an aircraft in domestic operation under 14 CFR 121 must hold. an airline transport pilot certificate and a first class medical. an airline transport pilot certificate with an SIC aircraft type rating. a commercial pilot certificate with instrument rating, a second-class medical, and a type rating appropriate for the aircraft being flown.

A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?. Commercial – B-737; ATP – B-727 and B-747. ATP – B-747; Commercial – B-727 and B-737. ATP – B-747, B-727, and B-737.

The lowest authorized ILS minimums associ- ated with CAT II approaches are. Decision Height (DH) 200 feet and Runway Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet (with touchdown zone and centerline lighting, RVR 1,800 feet). DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. No DH or DH below 50 feet and RVR less than 700 feet but not less than 150 feet.

A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type rat- ings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?. ATP – B-727 and DC-3; Commercial – DC-9. ATP – B-727 only; Commercial – DC-9 and DC 3. ATP – B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?. 6 hours. 8 hours. 10 hours.

The lowest CAT II minimums are. DH 100 and RVR 1200. DH 150 and RVR 1600. DH 50 and RVR 1200.

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to. 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman’s medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

Which is a definition of the term “crewmember”?. Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is sched- uled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is. required to have a least a current third-class medical certificate. required to have a current first-class medical certificate. not required to hold a medical certificate.

An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is. required to have a first-class medical certificate. required to have a second-class medical certificate. not required to have a medical certificate.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is. required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a first-class medical certificate.

When a type rating is to be added to an air- line transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is. required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. is not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a first-class medical certificate.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs. a first-class medical certificate. at least a current third-class medical certificate. a second-class medical certificate.

The “age 65 rule” of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to. any required pilot crewmember. any flight crewmember. the pilot in command only.

Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations?. If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. If required by the airplane’s type certificate.

When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?. 80,000 pounds. more than 80,000 pounds. 300,000 pounds.

n air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engi- neer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated,. at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for. one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer’s duties?. The second in command only. Any flight crewmember, if qualified. Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.

An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?. Four. Three. Two.

When an air carrier airplane with a seating capac- ity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?. Five. Four. Three.

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?. Five. Four. Three.

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capac- ity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?. Seven. Six. Five.

A pilot, acting as second-in-command, success- fully completes the instrument competency check speci- fied in 14 CFR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?. 12 months. 90 days. 6 months.

To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least. six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/ simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.

What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?. All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.

An example of air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as PIC in Part 121 is flight time as an SIC. in Part 121 operations. in Part 91, subpart K operations. in Part 135 operations.

The holder of an ATP certificate with restricted privileges or an ATP certificate who also holds an aircraft type rating for the aircraft to be flown may act as. a PIC for a Part 121 supplemental air carrier. a PIC for a Part 121 air carrier with 500 hours as a Part 121 SIC. an SIC for a Part 121 air carrier.

What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

An example of air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as PIC in Part 121 is flight time as an SIC. in Part 121 operations. in Part 91, subpart K operations. in Part 135 operations.

To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?. When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. 120 days after issue or renewal.

A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to. Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.

What is the lowest decision height for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization?. 100 feet AGL. 150 feet AGL. 200 feet AGL.

The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is. upgrade training. transition training. initial training.

A crewmember who has served as second-in- command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?. Upgrade training. Recurrent training. Initial training.

The training required for crewmembers or dis- patchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is. difference training. transition training. upgrade training.

A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.

If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2010 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter check is considered to have been taken in. November 2010. December 2011. January 2011.

Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?. At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.

What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?. At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. At least one full stop landing must be made. At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.

When a pilot’s flight time consists of 80 hours’ pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?. Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.

Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has. logged 90 hours’ flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. logged 100 hours’ flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.

To remain current as an aircraft dispatcher, a person must, in addition to other requirements,. within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend 2.5 hours observing flight deck operations, plus two additional takeoff and landings, in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatch. within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/ she is to dispatch. within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations in each type of airplane, in each group that he/ she is to dispatch.

What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot in command of a multiengine airplane being operated by a commuter air carrier?. Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class. Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; instrument rating; airplane type rating, if required. Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; airplane type rating, if required.

What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot-in-command of a multiengine airplane in commuter air carrier service under IFR?. Airline transport pilot of any category; multiengine class rating. Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class rating; airplane type rating, if required. Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class and instrument rating.

Which takeoff computation must not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of the stopway for a turbine-engine-powered small transport category airplane?. Takeoff distance. Acceleration-stop distance. Acceleration-climb distance.

A person is assigned as pilot in command to fly both single-engine and multiengine airplanes and has passed the initial instrument proficiency check in a multiengine airplane. Which requirement applies regarding each succeeding instrument check?. The instrument check must be taken every 6 calendar months in both a single-engine and a multiengine airplane. The instrument check must be taken alternately in single-engine and multiengine airplanes every 6 calendar months. The instrument check may be taken in either a single-engine or multiengine airplane if taken at intervals of 6 calendar months.

A person is acting as pilot in command of a multiengine, turboprop-powered airplane operated in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If eight takeoffs and landings are accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-com- mand experience meets the requirement for designation as pilot in command?. 7 hours, and two takeoffs and landing. 10 hours, and three takeoffs and landings. 10 hours, and two takeoffs and one landings.

What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot in command of a turbojet airplane with two engines being operated by a Com- muter Air Carrier?. Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class rating; airplane type rating, if required. Airline transport pilot of any category; multiengine class rating; airplane type rating. Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class rating; instrument rating; airplane type rating.

A person is acting as pilot in command of a multi- engine, reciprocating engine powered airplane operated in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If five takeoffs and landings have been accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot- in-command experience meets the requirement for designation as the pilot in command?. Two takeoffs and landings, and 8 hours. Five takeoffs and landings, and 5 hours. Three takeoffs and landings, and 7 hours.

A person is acting as pilot in command of a turbojet powered airplane operated in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If 10 takeoffs and landings have been accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirement for designation as pilot in command?. 10 hours. 15 hours. 10 hours, and five takeoffs and landings.

A pilot’s experience includes 8 hours in a particular make and basic model multiengine, turboprop airplane while acting as pilot-in-command. Which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirements for designation as pilot in command of that airplane when operated by a commuter air carrier in passenger- carrying service?. Twelve takeoffs and landings. Five takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours. Ten takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours.

A person is acting as pilot in command of a single- engine airplane operated in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If six takeoffs and landings have been accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirement for designation as pilot in command?. 4 hours. 5 hours. 6 hours.

Which person, other than the second in com- mand, may the pilot in command permit to manipulate the flight controls?. A member of the National Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot certificate appropriate for the aircraft. An authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations. A pilot employed by an engineering firm who is authorized by the certificate holder to conduct flight tests.

A flight attendant crewmember is required on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of. 15 or more. 19 or more. 20 or more.

Before each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all pas- sengers have been orally briefed on the. location of normal and emergency exits, oxygen masks, and life preservers. use of safety belts, location and operation of fire extinguishers, and smoking. use of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use of survival equipment.

Before takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the normal and emergency use of oxygen. if the flight involves operations above 12,000 feet MSL. regardless of the altitude at which the flight will operate. if the flight involves operations at or above 12,000 feet MSL for more than 30 minutes.

The oral before flight briefing required on pas- senger-carrying aircraft shall be. supplemented by an actual demonstration of emergency exit door operation by a crewmember. presented by the pilot in command or another flight crewmember, as a crewmember demonstrates the operation of the emergency equipment. conducted by a crewmember or the pilot in command and supplemented by printed cards for the use of each passenger.

A commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to assign a pilot as pilot in command of an aircraft having eight passenger seats to be used in passenger-carrying operations. Which experience requirement must that pilot meet if the aircraft is to be flown with an operative approved autopilot and no second in command?. 100 hours as pilot in command in the category, class, and type. 50 hours and 10 landings as pilot in command in the make and model. 100 hours as pilot in command in the make and model.

Which is a condition that must be met by a com- muter air carrier certificate holder to have an aircraft approved for operation with an autopilot system and no second in command?. The passenger seating configuration is 10 or more, including any pilot seat. The autopilot system is capable of operating the controls to maintain flight and to maneuver the aircraft about the three axes. The operation is restricted to VFR or VFR over- the-top.

An autopilot may not be used in place of a second in command in any aircraft. being operated in commuter air carrier service. having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot’s seat, of 10 seats or more. having a total seating capacity of 10 or more seats and being operated in commuter air service.

When is a pilot not required to keep the shoulder harness fastened during takeoff and landing while at a pilot station?. When operating an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or less. When the pilot cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened. When serving as pilot in command or second in command of an aircraft having a total seating capacity of eight seats or less.

To serve as pilot in command in an IFR operation, a person must have passed a line check. consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, with at least three instrument approaches at representative airports, within the past 12 calendar months, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. within the past 12 months, which include a portion of a civil airway and one instrument approach at one representative airport, in one of the types of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, which included at least one flight over a civil airway, or approved off-airway route, or any portion of either, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.

What are the minimum requirements for the line check required of each pilot in command authorized for IFR air taxi operations? The line check shall be given over. one route segment in each type of airplane the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landings at one or more representative airports. a civil airway or an approved off-airway route, or a portion of either of them, in one type of airplane the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landings at one or more representative airports. a civil airway or an approved off-airway route in each make and model airplane the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landings at one or more representative airports.

No certificate holder may use a person as pilot in command unless that person has passed a line check. since the beginning of the 12th month before serving as pilot in command. since the beginning of the 6th month before serving as pilot in command. within the past 6 months.

A person may act as pilot in command of both type A and type B aircraft under IFR, if an instrument proficiency check has been passed in. either type A or B since the beginning of the 12th month before time to serve. type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and in type B since the beginning of the 6th month before time to serve. type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and in type B since the beginning of the 24th month before time to serve.

A pilot in command is authorized to use an autopi- lot system in place of a second in command. During the instrument proficiency check, that person is required to demonstrate (without a second in command) the ability to. comply with complex ATC instructions with, but not without, the autopilot. properly conduct air-ground communications with, but not without, the autopilot. properly conduct instrument operations competently both with, and without, the autopilot.

A person may not serve as pilot in command in an IFR operation unless that person has passed an. aircraft competency, an instrument proficiency, and autopilot check within the previous 6 calendar months prior to the date to serve. instrument proficiency check in the airplane in which to serve, or in an approved aircraft simulator, within the previous 12 calendar months. instrument proficiency check under actual or simulated IFR conditions, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month prior to the date to serve.

A pilot in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a second in command, may take the autopilot check. concurrently with the instrument proficiency check, but at 12 month intervals. in any aircraft appropriately equipped, providing the check is taken at 6 month intervals. concurrently with the competency check, providing the check is taken at 12 month intervals.

Pilot flight time limitations under 14 CFR Part 135 are based. on the flight time accumulated in any commercial flying. solely on flight time accumulated in air taxi operations. solely on flight time accumulated during commercial flying, in the last 30 day and/or 12 month period.

No person may serve, as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a com- mercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under IFR, that person must have accomplished within the last 6 months, the recent instrument requirements of. using the navigation systems for interception and tracking of courses, 6 instrument low approaches and holding. using the navigation systems to intercept and track 3 inbound/3 outbound courses, 6 holding patterns and 6 instrument approaches. holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6 instrument approaches.

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which operations are considered to be in the “critical phase of flight”?. All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.

Other than in cruise flight, below what altitude are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew- members prohibited?. 12,000 feet. 10,000 feet. 8,000 feet.

No person may serve, as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a com- mercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under IFR, that person must have accomplished within the last 6 months, the recent instrument requirements of. using the navigation systems for interception and tracking of courses, 6 instrument low approaches and holding. using the navigation systems to intercept and track 3 inbound/3 outbound courses, 6 holding patterns and 6 instrument approaches. holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6 instrument approaches.

Fatigue can be evident in others if they. talk more than usual. yawn excessively. are overly helpful.

You did not get a good night’s rest and have been on duty for several hours. A sign you may be fatigued is. improved dexterity. decreased short term memory. mental acuteness.

Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive day period?. 48. 52. 32.

Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a one calendar month period?. 120. 100. 80.

How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is. considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots. considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. not considered to be part of a rest period.

Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to. 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 180 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to. 180 hours in any 28 consecutive days. 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

“Window of circadian low” means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between. 0100 – 0500. 1200 – 0459. 0200 – 0559.

For a short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed. 12 hours. 14 hours. 16 hours.

If the crew van breaks down en route to the rest facility and delays arrival for nearly 2 hours, does the flightcrew member need to notify the certificate holder?. No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 9 hours of uninterrupted rest. No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 8 hours rest. Yes, if the flightcrew member does not have the opportunity for 10 hours of uninterrupted hours free from duty.

“Airport standby reserve” means. a specified 15-hour period of reserve in close proximity of assignment being available for flight duty assignments in less than 2 hours. being within 90 minutes of the airport and available for immediate flight duty assignments of 8 hours duration. a defined duty period during which a flight crewmember is required by the certificate holder to be available for possible assignment.

Each flightcrew member must report. in uniform and properly prepared to accomplish all assignments. to the airport on time and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duty. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his duty.

You are on the last day of a four day trip and haven’t slept well. What is a warning sign that you are fatigued?. Improved dexterity. Head bobbing. Mental acuteness.

No flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flight crew member is given. 10 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. 12 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. 8 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period.

You are a pilot operating under 14 CFR Part 121 and are in a required rest period. When can you be contacted about your next day duty assignment?. At any time during your required rest period. At the end of your required rest period. No earlier than 1 hour before the end of your required rest period.

“Rest period” means. an 8-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. a 12-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.

“Theater” means. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 90 degrees longitude. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 75 degrees longitude. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees longitude.

“Physiological night’s rest” means. 9 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base. 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base. 12 hours of rest that encompasses any continuous 8 hour period for uninterrupted or disturbed rest.

In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew member must report. on time, in uniform, and properly prepared to accomplish all assigned duties. to the airport on time, after the designated rest period and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duties. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties.

Flightcrew members must receive fatigue educa- tion and awareness training. with all required air carrier dispatcher and every flightcrew member training activity. annually for flightcrew members and every 24 months for dispatchers, flightcrew member schedulers, and operational control individuals. annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals and flightcrew members and dispatchers.

In an airplane assigned with a minimum flight crew of two, your flight time may not exceed. 9 hours if assigned to report at 0330. 9 hours if assigned to report at 0500. 9 hours if assigned to report at 2030.

For unaugmented flightcrew operations, your maximum flight duty period limit is. 13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight segments. 13 hours if assigned to report at 2030 for 3 flight segments. 10.5 hours if assigned to report at 1730 for 6 flight segments.

In an airplane with an augmented crew of three flightcrew members assigned, the maximum flight duty period is. 17 hours if assigned to report at 1200 with a Class 3 rest facility available. 16 hours if assigned to report at 0630 with a Class 1 rest facility available. 15 hours if assigned to report at 1730 with a Class 2 rest facility available.

The time spent resting during unaugmented operations will not be counted towards the flight duty period limitation if the rest period is at least. 3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. 4 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. 4 hours long which can include transportation to suitable accommodations.

Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be. given before the next to last flight segment. given before the beginning of the flight duty period. provided no later than after the first flight segment offered after the first flight segment is completed.

If the augmented flightcrew member is not accli- mated, the. maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes. flight duty period assignment must be reduced 15 minutes by each 15 degrees of longitude difference from the previous rest location. minimum rest period must be extended by 3 hours.

The flight duty period may be extended due to unforeseen circumstances before takeoff by as much as. 2 hours. 1 hour. 30 minutes.

After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise. In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by as much as. 2 hours. necessary to reach the closest suitable alternate crew base airport. necessary to land at the next destination airport or alternate airport.

“Unforeseen operational circumstance” means an. unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for adjustments to schedules. unforecast weather and expected ATC delays. event of sufficient duration to create increased flight times for the certificate holder’s operation.

For passenger operations under Part 121, a flightcrew member may exceed maximum flight time limitations if. immediately followed by 11 hours of rest. unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff. known ATC delays do not exceed 30 minutes.

For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in airport/standby reserve time is. not part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period. part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period. part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period after being alerted for flight assignment.

Limiting flight time for all flightcrew members will include. instruction flight hours, commercial flying, and flying for any certificate holder. any flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager. flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager and any other commercial flight time.

Flightcrew member’s flight duty periods are limited to. 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. 70 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. 60 hours in any 7 days.

A flightcrew member must be given a rest period before beginning any reserve or flight duty period of. 24 consecutive hours free from any duty in the past 7 consecutive calendar days. 36 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours. 30 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours.

No flightcrew member may accept an assignment without scheduled rest opportunities for. more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low. more than 4 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low in a 168 hour period. consecutive nighttime flights beginning after 0001 hours local home base time.

Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag opera- tions should be scheduled for no more than. 10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours. 8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours. 10 consecutive hours of duty.

What is the minimum rest period required before a flight or reserve duty period?. 8 consecutive hours rest. 10 consecutive hours rest. 12 consecutive hours rest.

“Operational control” of a flight refers to. the specific duties of any required crewmember. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.

Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?. Operations Specifications. Operating Certificate. Dispatch Release.

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved operator’s manual available. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19(b).

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: destination airport. provisional airport. alternate airport.

A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of. obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. com- mercial operator, will be issued. an Air Carrier Certificate. a Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate. an Operating Certificate.

The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the. certificate holder’s operations specifications. application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.

All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report. accident and incident data annually. noise complaint statistics for each departure procedure or runway. declared distances for each runway.

The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supple- mental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the. pilot in command and chief pilot. pilot in command and director of operations. pilot in command and the flight follower.

Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?. Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.

What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?. Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. Minimum fuel supply and trip number. Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.

A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it. minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. trip number and weight and balance data. weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.

By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane informa- tion concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?. The aircraft dispatcher. Air route traffic control center. Director of operations.

Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMs?. Any company dispatch facility. Notices To Airmen publication. Chart Supplements U.S.

Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?. Company meteorologist. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations.

A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?. Not more than 1 hour. Not more than 2 hours. More than 6 hours.

A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is. 1945Z. 1915Z. 1845Z.

A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is. 2005Z. 1905Z. 0005Z.

When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?. 1922Z. 1952Z. 0022Z.

If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?. 1945Z. 2015Z. 0045Z.

What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?. Cargo and passenger distribution information. Copy of the flight plan. Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?. Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. Dispatch release and weight and balance release. Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.

A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least. 3 months. 6 months. 30 days.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?. Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.

How long shall a supplemental air carrier or com- mercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?. 1 month. 3 months. 12 months.

The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are. supplemental and commercial. supplemental and domestic. flag and commercial.

The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the. weather reports and forecasts. names of all crewmembers. minimum fuel supply.

Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS. preflight check must be conducted by a certified A&P and signed off in the logbook. pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory Person. pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight.

An ETOPS entry point means. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 200 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having more than two engines. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 90 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines.

For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS Alternate Airport. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 3, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.

What is considered “north polar”?. north of 60° N latitude. north of 68° N latitude. north of 78° N latitude.

What is considered “south polar”?. south of 60° S latitude. south of 68° S latitude. south of 78° S latitude.

Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations or flight follower. Pilot in command.

During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?. Aircraft dispatcher. Pilot in command. Director of operations or flight follower.

The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.

The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.

For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not avail- able, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. back to the departure airport.

An alternate airport is not required for a supple- mental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered air- plane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United States, if enough fuel. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.

A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.

The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine- powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alter- nate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.

What is the fuel reserve requirement for a com- mercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered air- plane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the alternate. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating- engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the 48 contiguous United States is. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. the fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane?. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. 45 minutes at holding altitude. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.

The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is. 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

A certificate holder is notified that a person specifi- cally authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?. Notification is not required, if the certificate holder has a security coordinator. A minimum of 1 hour. A minimum of 2 hours.

When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage?. The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew com- partment, provided the baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command. The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember.

What is meant by “sterile cockpit”?. All preflight checks are complete and the aircraft is ready for engine starting. Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities during critical phases of flight. Crewmembers are seated and buckled at their required stations.

When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort?. They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft. They shall be boarded after all other passengers board, and deplaned before all the other passengers leave the aircraft. They shall board and depart before the other passengers.

Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel?. The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages to the person in custody or the law enforcement escort. No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts. The person in custody must be seated between the escort and the aisle.

Which announcement must be made if the seat belt sign will be turned off during flight?. Clearly explain the location of the fire extinguishers and emergency exits. Passenger should keep their seat belts fastened while seated. Passengers are free to leave their seats once the seat belt sign is turned off.

A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above. FL 200. FL 240. FL 250.

When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?. When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age. Only during the en route flight. During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.

The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. in the interest of safety. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.

If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within. 7 days. 5 days. 48 hours.

When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.

What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.

Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a pas- senger compartment? The bin. may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.

What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121?. All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses. All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

Where must a certificate holder keep copies of completed load manifests and for what period of time?. 1 month at its principal operations base, or at a location approved by the Administrator. 30 days at its principal operations base, or another location used by it and approved by the Administrator. 30 days, at the flight’s destination.

Which is NOT a required item on the load mani- fest?. List of passenger names and the weight of each. Aircraft registration number or flight number. Identification of crewmembers and their crew position.

Who is responsible for the preparation of a required load manifest?. PIC or the Dispatcher. Company official designated by the Administrator. The certificate holder.

Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment?. It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants. All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure of the aircraft. Cargo carried in passenger seats must be forward of all passengers.

A person whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized mate- rials must have satisfactorily completed an approved training program established by the certificate holder within the previous. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

In a cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded. so that it does not obstruct the aisle between the crew and cargo compartments. in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all occupants. in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all crewmembers, if an emergency occurs.

Which is a requirement governing the carriage of cargo, on a scheduled passenger flight?. Cargo must be carried in an approved rack, bin, or compartment. Cargo not stowed in an approved bin must be secured by a safety belt or approved tiedown device. All cargo carried in the passenger compartment must be packaged and stowed ahead of the foremost seated passenger.

Which is a requirement governing the carriage of carry-on baggage?. All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during air turbulence. Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the seat in front of the owner. Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in an approved rack or bin.

If carry-on baggage or cargo is carried in the passenger compartment, it must be. stowed ahead of the foremost seated passengers and secured by approved means. placed in an approved rack, bin, or compartment installed in the aircraft. so located that it does not obstruct the access to, or the use of, any required emergency or regular exit.

The load manifest must be prepared prior to each takeoff for. any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 10 seats or more. any aircraft with more than one engine. all helicopters and large aircraft operated by a commuter air carrier.

During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?. To the manager of the General Aviation District Office within 10 days. To the manager of the facility in control within 10 days. Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?. When priority has been given. Anytime an emergency occurs. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

Which requirement applies to emergency equip- ment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?. All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers. Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121?. Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard. Number of passenger cabin occupants. Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane?. The most forward location in the passenger cabin. In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

How many portable battery-powered mega- phones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried?. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin.

How many portable battery-powered mega- phones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried?. Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.

The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during. taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing. taxiing, takeoff, and landing. takeoff, cruise, and landing.

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must. operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger compartment. be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?. For taxi, takeoff, and landing. Only for takeoff and landing. During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be. unlocked during takeoff and landing. locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. latched open during takeoff and landing.

A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?. A large airplane. A turbojet airplane. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it. has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. weighs more than 12,500 pounds.

Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a. key to the flight deck door. certificate holder’s manual. flashlight in good working order.

How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?. A minimum of 2-hours’ supply. Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.

Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes. of FL 260. of FL 250. above FL 250.

A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within. 5 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds.

If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot. and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.

If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?. FL 200. FL 300. FL 250.

What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?. FL 240. FL 250. Above FL 250.

What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for. each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude. 30 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.

For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?. 15,000 feet. 16,000 feet. 14,000 feet.

For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine- powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for. 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours. each passenger for 30 minutes.

The supplemental oxygen requirements for pas- sengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is depen- dent upon the airplane’s ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of. 10,000 feet within 4 minutes. 14,000 feet within 4 minutes. 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occu- pants who might require undiluted oxygen for physi- ological reasons?. Two. Four. Three.

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft. A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival- type emergency locator transmitter for each required liferaft.

Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each. aircraft occupant. seat on the aircraft. passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored. within easy reach of each passenger. under each occupant seat. within easy reach of each seated occupant.

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for. all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. all aircraft occupants. all passenger seats.

When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?. One for each passenger seat. One for each passenger, plus 10 percent. One for each occupant of the aircraft.

An airplane operated by a supplemental air car- rier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Survival kit for each passenger. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.

An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emer- gency equipment?. A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. Survival kit for each passenger. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

An airplane operated by a flag air carrier opera- tor flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. Survival kit for each passenger.

If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should. take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. comply with the company’s lost aircraft plan. phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.

Which 14 CFR Part 121 required document includes descriptions of the required crewmember func- tions to be performed in the event of an emergency?. Airplane Flight Manual. Certificate holder’s manual. Pilot’s Emergency Procedures Handbook.

The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the. pilot in command. air carrier’s chief pilot. certificate holder.

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above. FL 180. FL 200. FL 250.

How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

If an engine’s rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the. appropriate ground radio station. nearest FAA district office. operations manager (or director of operations).

If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flightcrew is. encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.

When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within. 10 days after the deviation. 10 days after returning home. 10 days after returning to home base.

Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?. Pilot in command. Dispatcher. Person who declares the emergency.

An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be sent through the air carrier’s operations manager by the. dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event. certificate holder to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event. pilot in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.

Bird strikes in flight will be reported to the. nearest state or federal wildlife office on company letterhead. FAA on an FAA form 5200-7. nearest FSS via telephone.

Which is a requirement for flightcrew use of oxy- gen masks in a pressurized cabin airplane?. Both pilots at the controls shall use oxygen masks above FL 350. At altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, if one pilot leaves the pilot duty station, the remaining pilot at the controls shall use an oxygen mask. At altitudes above FL 250, one of the two pilots at the controls shall use an oxygen mask continuously.

Which is a requirement for pilot use of oxygen in a pressurized airplane?. The pilot at the controls shall use oxygen continuously any time the cabin pressure altitude is more than 12,000 feet MSL. At FL 250 and above, each pilot shall have an approved quick-donning oxygen mask. At FL 250 and above, the pilot at the controls must have an approved oxygen mask any time the other pilot is away from the duty station.

The two pilot stations of a pressurized aircraft are equipped with approved quick-donning oxygen masks. What is the maximum altitude authorized if one pilot is not wearing an oxygen mask and breathing oxygen?. 41,000 feet MSL. 35,000 feet MSL. 25,000 feet MSL.

At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet MSL, each pilot of an unpressurized airplane must use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that is of a duration of more than. 20 minutes. 30 minutes. 45 minutes.

A pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330 can descend safely to 15,000 feet MSL in 3.5 minutes. What oxygen supply must be carried for all occupants other than the pilots?. 60 minutes. 45 minutes. 30 minutes.

At what altitude, in an unpressurized airplane, must all passengers be supplied oxygen?. Above 12,000 feet MSL. Above 14,000 feet MSL. Above 15,000 feet MSL.

Between what altitudes must oxygen be available to at least 10 percent of the occupants, in an unpres- surized airplane, other than the pilots?. Above 12,000 feet through 16,000 feet MSL, for any time period. Above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet MSL, if flight at those altitudes is of more than a 30-minute duration. 10,000 feet to 15,000 feet MSL, if flight at those altitudes is of more than a 30-minute duration.

The oxygen requirements for occupants of a pressurized airplane operated at altitudes above FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane’s ability to descend safely to an altitude of. 10,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes. 12,000 feet MSL at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min. 15,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes.

Above which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the controls of a pressurized aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured and sealed oxygen mask?. FL 300. FL 350. FL 250.

Which is a pilot requirement for oxygen?. Each pilot of a pressurized aircraft operating at FL 180 and above shall have an approved quick- donning type oxygen mask. On pressurized aircraft requiring a flightcrew of two pilots, both shall continuously wear oxygen masks whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 feet MSL. On unpressurized aircraft, flying above 12,000 feet MSL, pilots shall use oxygen continuously.

Which requirement applies when oxygen is stored in liquid form?. Smoking is not permitted within 50 feet of stored liquid oxygen. Liquefied oxygen is a hazardous material and must be kept in an isolated storage facility. The equipment used to store liquid oxygen must be covered in the certificate holder’s approved maintenance program.

Which is a condition that must be met when a person is administered medical oxygen in flight?. The distance between a person using medical oxygen and any electrical unit must not be less than 5 feet. A person using oxygen equipment must be seated to avoid restricting access to, or use of, any required exit. A person being administered oxygen must be monitored by equipment that displays and records pulse and respiration.

Which is a requirement regarding the carriage and operation of oxygen equipment for medical use by passengers?. No person may smoke within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment. When oxygen equipment is used for the medical treatment of a patient, the rules pertaining to emergency exit access are waived. No person may connect oxygen bottles or any other ancillary equipment until all passengers are aboard the aircraft and seated.

If a certificate holder deviates from the provisions of regulations which pertain to medical use of oxygen by passengers, a complete report of the incident shall be sent to the FAA within. 7 working days. 10 working days. 10 days of the deviation.

An unpressurized aircraft with 20 occupants other than the pilots will be cruising at 14,000 feet MSL for 25 minutes. For how many, if any, of these occupants must there be an oxygen supply?. Five. Two. None.

What are the oxygen requirements for passengers if operating at 14,000 feet?. 30 minutes for each passenger. available for 10% of the occupants. available for 10% of the occupants other than the pilots.

What period of time must a person be hospital- ized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a “serious injury”?. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.

Which of the following constitutes “substantial damage” according to NTSB Part 830?. Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires. Damage to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case of a helicopter). Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement.

Which of the following meets the requirements of a “serious injury” as defined by the NTSB?. A simple fracture of the nose or other extremity. An injury which caused severe tendon damage. First-degree burns over 5 percent of the body.

Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?. Immediately. 7 calendar days. 10 days.

Which incident requires an immediate notifica- tion to NTSB?. Aircraft colliding on the ground. Flight control system malfunction. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $10,000.

Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?. 3 days. 7 days. 10 days.

When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?. Within 7 days. Within 10 days. Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

Pilots and/or flightcrew members involved in near midair collision (NMAC) occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately. by cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards District Office, as this is an emergency. to local law enforcement. by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.

What aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 135 are required to have a third gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator installed?. All airplanes that are turbojet powered. All multiengine airplanes that require a two pilot flightcrew. All turbine powered aircraft having a passenger seating capacity of 30 seats or more.

In airplanes where a third gyroscopic bank-and- pitch indicator is required, that instrument must. continue reliable operation for at least 30 minutes after the output of the airplane’s electrical generating system falls below an optimum level. be operable by a selector switch which may be actuated from either pilot station. continue reliable operation for a minimum of 30 minutes after total failure of the electrical generating system.

In which airplanes is a Class A TAWS required?. All airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. Turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. Turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, including any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.

Which airplanes must have a shoulder harness installed at each flight crewmember station?. All airplanes used in commuter air service, having a passenger seating configuration of 9, excluding any pilot seat. All airplanes operating under 14 CFR Part 135, having a seating configuration for 10 persons. All turbojet-powered airplanes.

What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations?. A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each liferaft. A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserver. A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

If the weather forecasts do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport and. make one missed approach and thereafter have a 45-minute reserve at normal cruising speed. fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. fly for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise climb speed.

If the weather forecasts require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must carry enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, then to the alternate, and fly thereafter for a minimum of. 45 minutes at normal holding speed. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed and then complete an approach and landing. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.

When computing the takeoff data for reciprocat- ing powered airplanes, what is the percentage of the reported headwind component that may be applied to the “still air” data?. Not more than 150 percent. Not more than 100 percent. Not more than 50 percent.

When computing takeoff data, what is the per- centage of the effective tailwind component which may be applied to the “still air” data?. Not less than 150 percent. Not less than 100 percent. Not more than 50 percent.

Which performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being operated over water?. Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 ft/min at 1,500 feet above the surface. Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an altitude that will allow them to reach land in case of engine failure. Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 100 ft/min at 1,000 feet above the surface.

What performance is required of a multiengine airplane with the critical engine inoperative, while car- rying passengers for hire in IFR weather conditions?. Climb at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher. Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA’s of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher. Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA’s of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher.

The crewmember interphone system on a large turbojet-powered airplane provides a means of two-way communications between ground personnel and at least one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on the ground. The interphone sta- tion for use by ground personnel must be located so that those using the system from that station. are always visible, from within the airplane. are able to avoid the intake areas of the engines. may avoid visible detection from within the airplane.

For which of these aircraft may part of the “clear- way” distance, for a particular runway, be considered in computing the takeoff distance?. Passenger-carrying transport aircraft. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes, certificated after September 30, 1958. U.S. certified transport airplane, certificated before August 26, 1957.

What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of a commuter air carrier airplane?. Cargo may not be carried anywhere in the rear of the passenger compartment. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of the aisle between the crew and the passenger compartment. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.

Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a multiengine turbine powered airplane. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. may all be erased, prior to each flight, unless the NTSB has requested that it be kept for 60 days.

An airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, flying in extended overwater operations must carry enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and buoy- ancy to accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. Each liferaft must be equipped with. one approved pyrotechnic signaling device. colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. one fishing kit for each person the raft is rated to carry.

A certificate holder must have “exclusive use” of. at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of each kind of operation authorized in the Operations Specifications. at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of at least one kind of operation authorized in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications. at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of the specific operations authorized in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications.

Where is the certificate holder required to list the name and title of each person authorized to exercise operational control for a particular flight?. Operations Specifications. Attached to the load manifest. Certificate holder’s manual.

An aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign country, by a 14 CFR part 135 operator must comply with. the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Annex 3, Rules of the Air. regulations of the foreign country. rules of the U.S. State Department and the foreign country.

Who is responsible for keeping copies of the certificate holder’s manual up to date with approved changes or additions?. Each of the certificate holder’s employees who are furnished a manual. An employee designated by the certificate holder. A representative of the certificate holder approved by the Administrator.

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved operator’s manual available. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19(b).

What is the lowest altitude above the terrain that an autopilot may be used during en route operations, if the Airplane Flight Manual specifies a malfunction under cruise conditions?. 1,000 feet. 500 feet. 100 feet.

Who may be allowed to carry a deadly weapon on board an aircraft operated under 14 CFR Part 135?. Official bodyguards attached to foreign legations. Crewmembers and/or others authorized by the certificate holder. Employees of a municipality or a state, or of the United States.

Which person may be carried aboard an aircraft without complying with the passenger-carrying require- ments of 14 CFR Part 135?. An individual who is necessary for the safe handling of hazardous material on the aircraft. A representative of the Administrator, traveling to attend a meeting. A member of the United States diplomatic corps on an official courier mission.

If previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, where can the procedures for servicing the aircraft be found?. Certificate holder’s maintenance manual. Certificate holder’s manual. Pilot’s Handbook.

Who is directly responsible for determining the status of each mechanical irregularity previously entered in the aircraft maintenance log?. Aircraft dispatcher. Line maintenance supervisor. The next pilot in command.

What document contains procedures that explain how the required return-to-service conditions have been met?. Maintenance manual. Pilot’s Handbook. Certificate holder’s manual.

Procedures for keeping copies of the aircraft maintenance log in the aircraft and available to appro- priate personnel shall be set forth in. the certificate holder’s manual. the maintenance procedures handbook. the Operations Specifications.

If a certificate holder makes arrangements for another person to perform aircraft maintenance, that maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the. certificate holder’s manual and 14 CFR Parts 43, 91, and 135. provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate holder and approved by the supervising FAA district office. provisions and standards as outlined in the certificate holder’s manual.

Who is responsible for submitting a Mechanical Reliability Report?. Each certificate holder. Director of maintenance at the facility that discovers the reportable condition. Chief inspector at the facility where the condition is found.

The maximum altitude loss specified for malfunc- tion of a certain autopilot under cruise conditions is 50 feet. What is the lowest altitude this autopilot may be used en route?. 500 feet AGL. 550 feet AGL. 600 feet AGL.

The maximum altitude loss for a particular mal- functioning autopilot under approach conditions is 55 feet. If the TDZE is 571 feet and the MDA is 1,100 feet, to which minimum altitude may you use this autopilot?. 626 feet MSL. 990 feet MSL. 1,050 feet MSL.

The maximum altitude loss for a malfunctioning autopilot with an approach coupler is 40 feet. To which minimum altitude may the autopilot be used during an ILS approach in less than basic VFR conditions?. 40 feet AGL. 50 feet AGL. 80 feet AGL.

The maximum altitude loss for a malfunctioning autopilot without an approach coupler is 45 feet. If the MDA is 1,620 feet MSL and the TDZE is 1,294 feet, to which minimum altitude may you use the autopilot?. 1,510 feet MSL. 1,339 feet MSL. 1,570 feet MSL.

The altitude loss for a particular malfunctioning autopilot with an approach coupler is 60 feet. If the reported weather is below basic VFR minimums and an ILS approach using the approach coupler is to be used, what minimum altitude may be used?. 50 feet AGL. 55 feet AGL. 60 feet AGL.

During which time period must a required voice recorder of a passenger-carrying airplane be continu- ously operated?. From the beginning of taxi to the end of the landing roll. From engine start at departure airport to engine shutdown at landing airport. From the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final check at the end of the flight.

An approved cockpit voice recorder is required equipment in. large turbine-powered airplanes having a maximum passenger capacity of 20 or more seats. multiengine, turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more seats. all aircraft operated in commuter air carrier service having a passenger seating configuration of 20 seats or more.

IInformation recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large turbine powered airplane. may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.

Which aircraft must be equipped with an approved public address and crewmember interphone system?. All turbine-engine-powered aircraft having a seating configuration of more than 19 seats. Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19 seats. Multiengine aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 10 seats or more.

To operate an aircraft with certain equipment inoperative under the provisions of a minimum equip- ment list, what document authorizing it must be issued to the certificate holder?. Letter of Authorization from the Regional Airworthiness Office authorizing such an operation. Operations specifications issued by the FAA district office having certification responsibility. Letter of Authorization issued by the FAA district office having certification responsibility.

When a crash ax is required equipment on an aircraft, where should it be located?. In the flight crew compartment. At a location inaccessible to the passengers during normal operations. At a location accessible to both the crew and passengers during normal operations.

How many, if any, approved first aid kits are required on an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 20 seats and a passenger load of 14?. none. one. two.

An aircraft has a passenger seating configuration of 19 seats, excluding any pilot seats. How many, if any, approved first aid kits are required?. one. two. none.

Airborne weather radar equipment must be installed in large transport category aircraft, in the con- terminous 48 United States,. that are engaged in passenger-carrying operations. that are engaged in either cargo or passenger- carrying operations. and be fully operational, although weather forecasts indicate no hazardous conditions.

In which aircraft, or under what conditions, is airborne thunderstorm detection equipment required?. Large multiengine turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 19 seats or more being operated by a commuter air carrier. Any aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 19 seats or more that is engaged in passenger-carrying operations under IFR or at night. Small aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 10 seats or more, excluding any pilot seat, that are engaged in passenger-carrying operations.

When a ground proximity warning system is required under 14 CFR Part 135, it must. convey warnings of any deviation below glide slope and of excessive closure rate with the terrain. convey warnings for excessive closure rates with the terrain but not for deviation from an ILS glide slope. alert the pilot by an audible and visual warning signals when deviation above or below glide slope occurs.

When a ground proximity warning system is required, it must. apply corrective control pressure when deviation below glide slope occurs. incorporate a means of alerting the pilot when a system malfunction occurs. incorporate a backup feature that activates automatically upon total failure of the aircraft’s electrical generating system.

Which group of aircraft must have a shoulder harness installed at each flight crewmember station?. Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. All passenger-carrying aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 135, having a seating configuration for 10 persons. Large aircraft being operated in commuter air service, having a passenger seating configuration of 9, excluding any pilot seat.

Which is a requirement for life preservers during extended overwater operations? Each life preserver must be equipped with. a dye marker. an approved survivor locator light. one flashlight having at least two size “D” cells or equivalent.

In addition to fully-equipped liferafts and life pre- servers, what emergency equipment must be provided during extended overwater operations?. One water resistant, self-buoyant, portable survival-type emergency radio transmitter for each liferaft. Each aircraft must have at least one liferaft, equipped with a survival-type emergency locator transmitter. One pyrotechnic signaling device for each aircraft.

A pilot may make an IFR departure from an airport that does not have an approved standard instrument approach procedure if. there is a departure alternate within 60 minutes and the weather there is above landing minimums. the Administrator has issued Operations Specifications to the certificate holder approving the procedure. the departure airport is within 30 minutes flying time of another airport that has an approved standard instrument approach procedure.

Assuming the required ceiling exists, an alternate for the destination airport is not required under 14 CFR 135 if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the forecast visibility is at least. 5 miles, or 3 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater. 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater. 3 nautical miles, or 2 nautical miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the approach procedure to be used, which ever is greater.

A pilot may not designate an airport as an alter- nate unless the weather reports, or forecasts, or any combination of them indicate that it will be at or above alternate airport landing minimum at the. time of departure. estimated time of arrival, plus or minus 1 hour. estimated time of arrival.

A takeoff may not be made from an airport that is below the authorized IFR landing minimums unless. there is an alternate airport with the required IFR landing minimums within 60 minutes flying time, at normal cruising speed in still air. the departure airport is forecast to have the required IFR landing minimums within 1 hour. there is an alternate airport with the required IFR landing minimums within 60 minutes flying time, at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

A pilot may not begin an IFR operation unless the next airport of intended landing is forecast to be at or above authorized IFR landing minimums at. the estimated time of arrival, ±1 hour. the estimated time of arrival. the estimated time of arrival, ±30 minutes.

Which condition must be met to conduct IFR operations from an airport that is not at the location where weather observations are made?. An “Authorization Letter” permitting the procedure must be issued by the FAA district office charged with the overall inspection of the certificate holder. A “Letter of Waiver” authorizing the procedure must be issued by the Administrator, after an investigation by the U.S. National Weather Service and the FSDO which find the standard of safety to be satisfactory. The Administrator must issue Operations Specifications that permit the procedure.

Which is an operational requirement concerning ice, snow, or frost on structural surfaces?. A takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces, but polished smooth, if the anti-icing and deicing equipment is operating. If snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane’s lift or control surfaces, but polished smooth, a takeoff may be made. A takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces.

Which is one required condition for a pilot to take off under IFR with less-than-standard takeoff minimums at an airport where a straight-in instrument approach procedure is authorized and there is an approved weather reporting source?. The pilot must have at least 100 hours as pilot in command in the type airplane to be flown. The certificate holder has been approved for such operation and the visibility at the time of takeoff must be at least RVR 16. Wind direction and velocity must be such that a straight-in approach can be made to the runway served by the procedure.

After passing the final approach fix on a VOR approach, a weather report is received indicating the visibility is below prescribed minimums. In this situa- tion, the pilot. may continue the approach and land, if at the MDA, the actual weather conditions are at least equal to the minimums prescribed for the procedure. may continue the approach and land regardless of the visibility observed at the MDA, if prior to beginning the approach, the visibility was reported at or above minimums. should leveloff and continue to fly the approach to the MAP, and execute the missed approach.

An alternate for a destination airport (circling not authorized) is not required if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the required visibility exists, and the forecast ceiling is at least. 1,500 feet above the lowest published minimum, or 2,000 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is higher. 1,500 feet above the lowest MDA or 2,000 feet above the runway touchdown zone elevation, whichever is higher. 1,000 feet above the lowest published minimum, or 1,500 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is higher.

At a military airport, a pilot may not take off under IFR unless the reported weather conditions indicate that the. visibility is at least 1 mile. ceiling is at least 500 feet and the visibility is 1 mile or more. airport has landing minimums.

A pilot may not take off under IFR at a foreign airport unless the visibility is. 1/2 mile or more above landing minimums. 1 mile or more and the ceiling is 500 feet or more. at least 1 mile.

An instrument approach procedure to an airport may not be initiated unless the latest weather report issued by an authorized weather reporting facility indi- cates that weather conditions. are at or above the circling minimums for the runway the pilot intends to use. are at or above the authorized IFR landing minimums for that procedure. exceed the straight-in minimums for all nonprecision approaches.

What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for an airplane to operate under VFR in Class G airspace?. 2,000-foot ceiling; 1-mile visibility. 2,000-foot ceiling; 1-mile flight visibility. 1,000-foot ceiling; 2-miles flight visibility.

Which document would constitute an approved change to the type design without requiring a recerti- fication?. An approved Minimum Equipment List. The Operations Specifications as approved by the Administrator. A special flight permit.

No person may operate an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 135, carrying passengers under VFR at night, unless. each flight crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size “D” batteries or the equivalent. it is equipped with a flashlight having at least two size “D” cell or the equivalent. each crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size “D” cells and a spare bulb.

For operations during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise (as published in the Air Almanac), no certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers unless that person has made three takeoffs and three landings, within the preceding 90 days,. as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person is to serve. as pilot in command of an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person is to serve. as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same type in which that person is to serve.

An employee who performs safety-sensitive func- tions, for a certificate holder, who has actual knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which he or she performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time of the accident shall not use alcohol. until 4 hours after the accident. within 8 hours of the accident. until given a release by the NTSB or FAA.

What is the maximum number of hours that a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as a pilot in commercial flying and as a pilot for a commuter air carrier?. 32 hours. 34 hours. 35 hours.

What is the maximum number of hours that a commuter air carrier may schedule a flight crewmember to fly in scheduled operations and other commercial flying in any calendar month?. 100. 110. 120.

The pilot in command may deviate from 14 CFR Part 135 during an emergency involving the safety of persons or property only. after ATC is notified of the emergency and the extent of deviation required. to the extent required to meet that emergency. if required to, by the emergency cockpit checklist.

The training required for flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on an aircraft is. upgrade training. transition training. initial training.

A crewmember who has served as second in command on a particular aircraft type (e.g., BE-1900), may serve as pilot in command upon completing which training program?. Upgrade training. Transition training. Initial training.

The training required for crewmembers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft is. difference training. transition training. upgrade training.

The certificate holder must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, gas expansion, and decompression to crewmembers who serve in operations above. FL 180. FL 200. FL 250.

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as gas bubble formation, hypoxia, decompres- sion, and length of consciousness without supplemental oxygen at altitude to crewmembers serving on aircraft operated above. FL 250. FL 200. FL 180.

What is one of the requirements that must be met by a pilot in command to re-establish recency of experience?. At least one full stop landing must be made from a circling approach. Three takeoffs and landings must be made as the sole manipulator of the controls, in the type, if a type rating is required, if not in the same category and class aircraft that the person is to serve. At least one nonprecision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights, on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 20 to. operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment. be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.

What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations?. A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each life raft. A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserver. A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

Each aircraft being operated in extended over- water operations, must have a life preserver for each. aircraft occupant. seat on the aircraft. passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

Life preservers required for extended overwater operations are stored. within easy reach of each passenger. under each occupant seat. within easy access of each seated occupant.

No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport that has takeoff weather minimums but that is below landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport within. 1 hour at normal indicated airspeed of the departure airport. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air of the departure airport. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.