Repaso Semana 3 General

(ATA 26) How do we check that the APU or engine fire bottles have been discharged?. The APU bottle discharge light comes on when Halon goes out of the bottle. Advisory and status messages also show. ..

(ATA 26) How do we know if there is an overheat or a fire?. If the fire detection loops find an overheat condition, the fire detection card sends a signal to AIMS through the ASG cards. An EICAS caution message shows. The master caution light and caution aural come on. When the overheat condition is gone, the indications go away. ....

(ATA 26) What happens if one engine fire detection loop fails?. A status message for the failed loop appears and the system changes to single-loop operation. The fire detection card sends the data to AIMS. ...

(ATA 26) How many fire detection cards are there and what are they dedicated to?. There is a fire detection card for each engine. The card monitors the two loops and their wiring for defects. ...

(ATA 26) What occurs if there is an engine fire?. The fire detection card sends a signal to AIMS and to the warning electronics unit. A warning message shows. ...

(ATA 26) How many fire detection loops does each engine have?. Two loops (Loop 1 and Loop 2). They operate by a decrease in resistance. ...

(ATA 26) Where are the engine fire extinguishing bottles located?. Behind the right sidewall lining of the forward cargo compartment, aft of the cargo door. ...

(ATA 26) How is bottle pressure monitored?. A pressure switch monitors the pressure in each bottle. The switch turns on the discharge indicator light when bottle pressure decreases and also causes advisory and status messages. ...

(ATA 26) When is the fire switch solenoid released so the switch can be pulled?. The solenoid energizes only if an engine has a fire. This releases the fire switch. The engine fire warning lights help identify the correct switch. ...

(ATA 26) What happens on a cold airplane (no ground power, battery off) if the fire handle is pulled and rotated?. The fire extinguisher bottle will discharge because the engine fire switch supplies power from the hot battery bus to the bottle squibs. ...

(ATA 26) What material are the engine fire detectors made of?. An Inconel tube filled with a thermistor core material. ...

(ATA 26) Where is the APU fire extinguisher bottle located?. Stabilizer compartment, left side. ...

(ATA 26) Where do we monitor aircraft structure overheat?. APU ducts – duct leak and overheat detection system. ..

(ATA 26) How is the fire extinguishing squib test performed?. ELMS does an automatic squib test when it first gets power and at engine shutdown with the airplane on the ground. A manual squib test can also be done from the MAT. ...

(ATA 26) What happens if there is an APU fire on the ground and no action is taken?. If a fire occurs on the ground and the engines are not running, the APU fire extinguisher discharges automatically (unattended operation). ....

(ATA 26) How does fire detection logic work in Attended vs Unattended mode?. Attended mode: dual-loop AND logic (Loop 1 AND Loop 2 must detect fire). Unattended mode: dual-loop OR logic (Loop 1 OR Loop 2 must detect fire). ...

(ATA 26) How does the APU fire detection system detect a fire?. Either of the two loops can detect a fire. The APU fire detection card continuously monitors both loops for faults and, if no faults, monitors both for fire (dual-loop operation). ....

(ATA 26) How many fire detection loops does the APU have and where are the detectors located?. Two loops. Upper forward detector on the forward support and vibration isolation mount; upper aft detector on the left side of the APU compartment; lower detector on the left APU access door. ...

(ATA 26) What do the cargo smoke detector fans do during cargo handling?. They stop operation to keep contamination of the detectors to a minimum. ....

(ATA 26) What fuselage areas do the body duct leak detectors monitor?. APU compartment, fuselage from aft pressure bulkhead to APU firewall. Main wheel wells and RAT compartment. Air drive pumps area and main wheel wells.

(ATA 26) How does engine fire detection operate in normal mode to generate fire alarms?. Both Loop 1 and Loop 2 must have a fire. Either Loop 1 or Loop 2 must have a fire. Only Loop 1 must have a fire.

(ATA 26) An automatic test of all the fire extinguishing squibs is done by: The Maintenance Access Terminal (MAT). The Electrical Load Management System (ELMS). The fire and overheat test switch (FIRE/OVHT TEST).

(ATA 26) What will happen if you pull and rotate the fire switch on a cold airplane (no ground power and battery off)?. Fire extinguisher bottle will discharge. Nothing – fire switch cannot be pulled due to locking solenoid. Nothing – due to no power.

(ATA 26) (RR RB211 Trent 800) In the event of an engine turbine overheat, what indications appear in the flight deck?. Engine Fire warning. Caution messages and aural. Advisory messages only.

(ATA 26). (RR RB211 Trent 800) Flight-deck fire warnings may be initiated by: IP turbine overheat thermocouples. LP turbine overheat thermocouples. T30 thermocouples.

(ATA 26) (PW 4000) What is the access to the strut overheat detectors?. Through two panels on the bottom of the fixed leading edge. Through the pressure relief door in the forward strut fairing. Through the pressure relief door in the right side of the strut.

(ATA 26) (GE 90) What is the access to the strut overheat detectors?. Through two panels on the bottom of the fixed leading edge. Through the pressure relief door in the right side of the strut. Through the forward strut fairing.

(ATA 26) How is nacelle temperature indication calculated?. By measuring individual loops and adding the loops together. By measuring spikes of temperature of the fire elements. By measuring the average temperature of the fire elements.

(ATA 26) Which of the following statements is correct? Engine fire detection elements are: Both of the above. Gaseous-filled tubes with pressure switches. Inconel-filled tubes with thermistor core material.

(ATA 26) When will overheat detection occur?. After a 9.6-second delay to prevent error signals. As soon as a predetermined value occurs. When the element detects 80 % of an overheat condition.

(ATA 26) How long can a squib be in service?. For 10 years after the date stamped on the squib unit. For 20 years from the date of manufacture. For 5 years after the date stamped on the squib unit.

(ATA 26) Which condition energizes the fire-handle solenoid when a fire has NOT been detected?. On the ground, anti-ice selected and EPR > 1.66. Both engines shut down and the APU running. In flight with the battery ON and the fuel control lever in the cutoff position.

(ATA 26) How can the fire-bottle pressure-switch circuitry be checked?. Weighing the bottle. Pushing the test switch on the fire bottle. BITE function check from the MAT only.

(ATA 26) If one channel of the lower cargo smoke detector fails, what will occur?. A fault light appears on the P5 fire detection panel. A fault message is generated and automatic change-over occurs. A maintenance message is generated.

(ATA 26) What component acts as the interface between the OPAS system and the lower cargo smoke detectors?. The ELMS units. The DLODS cards. The ASG cards.

(ATA 26) Which component receives information from the cargo smoke airflow pressure and temperature logic?. The left ECSMC. Directly from the auxiliary static and pitot probes. Both ECSMCs.

(ATA 26) 37. In flight, the metered fire bottles discharge: 20 minutes after the dump bottles have discharged. When the fire-agent push switch is pushed a second time. Immediately after the dump bottles have discharged.

(ATA 26 If the detector reads low resistance, what will occur?. The detection cards will disregard the signal (fire-wire grounding). A dual-loop fault is signalled to EICAS. A fire warning is generated.

(ATA 26) If only ONE loop detects a fire, what will occur in the card files?. A 15-second timer is initiated awaiting a second loop signal. The squibs are energised to the arming position. A fire STBY is initiated powering the fire-switch solenoid.

(ATA 26) What solenoid is energised on fire detection?. Fire-switch unlock solenoid. The WEU inhibit relay. The squib-firing solenoid.

(ATA 26) What will generate a status message “Fire loop”?. An ACIPS card power failure. A double fire-detector element fault. A single fire-detector element fault.

(ATA 26) When will the lower cargo smoke detectors automatically change channels?. Only when a fault occurs. Every time the aircraft has a power cycle. Every 5 flights initiated by the FMS.

(ATA 26)The wheel-well and duct-overheat fire-detector elements send their signals directly to which card files?. DLODS cards. AGS cards. AFOLTS cards.

(ATA 26) DLODS signals interface with airframe components through the: AIMS units. ELMS units. ACIPS cards.

(ATA 26) How do the DLODS cards detect overheat?. By comparing temperatures between the pack flow valves and the duct sensors. By comparing temperatures to preset temperatures. By comparing temperatures from the FWD and AFT duct heat sensors.

(ATA 35) The amount of oxygen provided to the flight crew is regulated by: Oxygen bottle regulator. Diluter/demand valve. Oxygen pressure regulator in the cockpit.

(ATA 35) What is the indication of flight-crew oxygen-cylinder overpressure?. Green indication disc is not visible on the right of the nose wheel well. Green indication disc is not visible on the left of the nose wheel well. Yellow indication disc is not visible on the right of the nose wheel well.

(ATA 35) Which fixed oxygen system can be used by a flight attendant?. Both systems available. Passenger oxygen system only. Crew oxygen system only.

(ATA 35) What is the cockpit indication of low oxygen pressure?. Advisory message if pressure is below 1000 psi. Advisory message if pressure is below 500 psi. Caution message if pressure below 1000 psi.

(ATA 35) What is the indication of an unserviceable oxygen generator?. Red light comes on the oxygen-generator relative PCU. Pressure-gauge indicator shows lower pressure. Expended indicator turns to a dark colour.

(ATA 35) What warning will be on the LLAR in case of decompression?. Red light is flashing and warning horn sounds. Warning horn sounds only. Red light flashing only.

(ATA 35) What condition is necessary for the passenger oxygen masks to drop?. When the airplane is in the air with an airspeed of more than 80 knots, or when the cabin altitude goes above 13 500 ft. ....

(ATA 35) What happens if the crew oxygen bottle is found empty in the main equipment centre?. The overboard discharge indicator shows when overpressure causes an oxygen release from the flight-crew oxygen cylinder. ......

ATA 35) How do we know an oxygen generator is unserviceable?. The expended indicator turns a dark colour because of the heat of the reaction. ...

(ATA 35) How is low oxygen pressure indicated?. An EICAS advisory message (CREW OXYGEN LOW) shows if the average pressure is 500 psi or less. ....

(ATA 35) The passenger oxygen system comprises of which of the following?. Chemical generators. O2 bottles stored in the AFT cargo compartment. O2 bottles stored in the FWD cargo compartment.

(ATA 35) Automatic O2 deployment can ONLY be initiated when?. When cabin differential pressure exceeds 4.6 psi in a 10-second period. Altitude is above 13 500 ft and airspeed > 80 knots. Cabin pressure is reduced to < 0.05 psi.

(ATA 35) When selecting O2 deployment from the flight-deck switch, the signal passes through: OPAS, O2 monitors and CAS. ELMS only. OPAS to ELMS and the CSS.

(ATA 28)What controls the fuel-pump low-pressure light?. Fuel Quantity Processor Unit (FQPU). Low-pressure switch. Electrical Load Management System (ELMS).

(ATA 28) Where can you see operation of the APU fuel-feed system?. Fuel-management maintenance page only. Fuel synoptic display only. On both the fuel synoptic display and the fuel-management maintenance page.

(ATA 28) What is the operation of the engine/APU fuel-spar-valve battery power supply?. Opens the shut-off valves with no power available. Opens and closes shut-off valves for normal operation. Closes the shut-off valves with no power available.

(ATA 28) What statement about fuel-tank temperature indication is true?. Three sensors – measures each main tank. Five sensors – measures each fuel tank. One sensor – measures only the left fuel tank.

(ATA 28) Where does the APU DC pump take fuel from?. Right main tank. Left main tank. Left side of the centre tank.

(ATA 28) During inspection you found fuel-tank pressure-relief valves open. What do you have to check?. Fuel-tank vent scoop and flame arrestor for blockage. Surge-tank flame arrestor for blockage only. Fuel-tank vent scoop for blockage only.

(ATA 28) When does the fuel jet pump operate automatically?. When the boost pumps are on. When the refuelling valves are opened. When the defuel switch is in the ON position.

(ATA 28) Which of the following controls the cross-feed?. Electrical Load Management System (ELMS). Cross-feed valve switches. Fuel Quantity Processor Unit (FQPU).

ATA 28)What indication is there of fuel in the surge tank?. An FQIS fault indication on the P5 panel. A red overfill indicator light on the IRP (Integrated Refuel Panel). An EICAS OF (overfill) message.

(ATA 28) Under what conditions will the APU DC fuel pump run and the APU fuel SOV open?. Only when the APU is selected to RUN and the cross-feed valves are closed. With the APU selected ON and insufficient pressure in the centre main fuel-feed manifold. With the APU selected ON and insufficient pressure in the left-engine fuel-feed manifold.

(ATA 28) Where is the location of the fuel-jettison nozzle valve?. Outboard of the surge tanks. In the centre drain-cavity tanks. In the main tanks.

(ATA 28) What is the difference in the fuel pumps on the -300?. There are two additional fuel pumps installed on the -300 for jettison only. They have lower flow rates than the -200 fuel pumps. They have higher flow rates than the -200 fuel pumps.

(ATA 28) From where is the fuel temperature measured?. The APU fuel-feeder line. The left main tank. The right main tank.

(ATA 28) The EICAS display shows fuel-quantity indication: Only if a critical fuel-low-quantity condition exists. Always. Only if a normal fuel condition exists.

(ATA 28) Which of the following is NOT a function of the FQPU?. Overfill protection. Calculates total fuel weight. Fault monitoring of the FQIS.

ATA 28) What tanks will feed the engines when the override/jettison pumps are ON?. The surge tanks. The main fuel tanks. The centre fuel tank.

(ATA 28) What prevents over-pressurisation of the fuel tanks?. The vent-line pressure-regulating valve. A pressure-relief valve in each surge-tank access panel. A pressure-relief valve on the rear spar.

(ATA 28) What provides power to open the APU fuel SOV and the APU isolation valve?. Either the hot-battery bus or the engine fuel-spar-valve battery. Any main AC bus if no external power is supplied. The ground-handling bus.

(ATA 28) During fuel jettison with the fuel-remain switch IN, what controls the fuel-jettison load?. AIMS. The FQIS processor. ELMS (Electrical Load Management System).

(ATA 28) With the IRP power switch in the NORM position, what provides power to the refuel system?. The standby power system. The ground-handling bus. The hot-battery bus.

(ATA 47) Through which of the following can the NGS test be done on the ground?. NGS controller. MAT (Maintenance Access Terminal). BDU (BITE display unit).

(ATA 47) Which NGS sensor monitors system health and performance?. Differential-pressure sensor. Oxygen sensor. Temperature sensor.

(ATA 47) What is the correct statement about how the NGS shut-off valve functions?. The shut-off valve is a pneumatically operated pressure-regulating and shut-off valve. The butterfly is spring-loaded to the closed position. The valve operates as an over-pressure regulator upstream of the heat exchanger if there is a failure of the upstream bleed-pressure regulator. The valve has a visual position indicator that can be moved and locked in the closed position. .....

(ATA 47) Which sensor monitors the performance and health of the NGS?. The oxygen sensor is used for system performance and health monitoring only. ....

(ATA 23)The HF couplers receive single-phase power from: The AIMS power modulators. The transceivers. The battery buses.

(ATA 23)What is the purpose of the CSS ALL TEST?. Does a full BITE of the CSS (Cabin Service System). Lets you do special tests for detailed troubleshooting. Collects real-time failures for 20 seconds and shows them.

(ATA 23) In what format is the SELCAL code provided?. Jumpers in the rear of the decoder. Coding switches with 16 switches in groups of four. Programming module on the ET.

(ATA 23) When does the in-seat power-supply master control unit (MCU) enter standby mode?. If the system is overloaded. During critical flight phases. On the ground.

(ATA 23) What conditions must be met to allow you to erase the cockpit voice recorder?. Aircraft on ground and both engines off. Parking brake released and aircraft on ground. Aircraft on ground and parking brake ON.

(ATA 23) The ground-crew call horn sounds for 3 seconds. What does this signify?. The AC power is off and the ADIRUs are on. The equipment-cooling system has failed. The flight deck is calling the ground.

(ATA 23) Panel switches on the P5 & P61 panels directly interface with: OPCF units. OPBC units. PDCU units.

(ATA 23) How is the service interphone connected to the flight interphone?. Through the AIMS. Through the AMU. Through the RTPs.

(ATA 23) What is the benefit of a low-frequency underwater locator device (LF-ULD) compared with an underwater locator beacon (ULB)?. The LF-ULD operates in fresh and salt water. The LF-ULD does not require a battery. The LF-ULD has a longer range.

(ATA 23) Where can ACARS frequencies and scan rate be selected in the DCMF?. The front face of the ACARS control unit. ACARS function on the CDU. Manager ACARS pages of the FDCF.

(ATA 23) When you select an offside radio, offside-tuning lights come on: Both RTPs (radio tuning panels). Onside RTF of the selected radio only. RTF that the crew uses to make the selection only.

(ATA 23) To make direct-access announcements, flight attendants use cabin attendant handsets (CAHs) at: Doors 1 left and 3 left. Door 1 left only. Any door.

(ATA 23) What should you do on the radio-tuning panel to reset a SELCAL call received on the right HF radio?. Reselect the HF MIC switch. Push the cancel switch. Push the right HF MIC switch.

(ATA 23) What type of cameras are fitted to the Flight Deck Entry video-surveillance system?. High-resolution optical. Infrared. Ultraviolet.

(ATA 23) The passenger-address system accepts and sends announcements at these levels of priority: Direct access and Cabin interphone; Flight interphone; Recorded announcements, Video audio and Boarding music. Boarding music, Recorded announcements and Video-system audio; Direct access and Cabin interphone; Flight interphone. Flight interphone; Direct access and Cabin interphone; Recorded announcements, Video audio and Boarding music.

(ATA 23) What is the first test you should run if there is a CSS problem on a turn-around?. Engineering test. All test. Quick test.

(ATA 23) In the event of an ACP or AMU station-card failure the crew may recover audio control by: Using the flight-deck handset. Deselecting the Data Mode on the FDCF. Using the Observer’s audio selector.

(ATA 23) How long does the cockpit voice recorder record?. 25 hours. 2 hours. 30 minutes.

(ATA 23) The cabin-attendant handsets connect to the PA/CI controller via the: AMU. SDMs. ZMUs.

(ATA 23) Position and frequency data for each satellite is contained within the: HGA. BSU. SDU.

(ATA 23) What type of connection to the PMAT ports does the B-router have?. 10 Base-T interface. ARINC 818 bus. ARINC 629 bus.

(ATA 23) What is the purpose of the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) cross-talk tuning bus?. Allows AIMS to control the RTP data. Allows any RTP to tune any receiver. Allows fault data to be displayed on the panel.

(ATA 23) During a cabin PA test it is found that the normal PA controller is inoperative. To restore PA you need to select the alternate PA controller at the: CSCP. ASP. CACP.

(ATA 23) 24. The operator can transmit on: Both HF systems at one time, but at different frequencies. Both HF systems at one time, at the same frequencies. Only one HF system at a time.

(ATA 23) Any ELT of the correct type may be fitted to any aircraft. What makes this possible?. The ELT must be pre-programmed prior to fitting with the code switches on the unit. The mount/programming module automatically sends user-identification data on connection. Pins must be shorted at the plug connectors to the aircraft wiring.

(ATA 23) How may the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be switched on before flight?. CVR always operates when the airplane is electrically supplied (power available on AC STBY bus. Either automatically when engines are running or manually with a switch on the overhead panel. Only manually from a switch located on the CVR control panel.