sistemas electronicos

1. Each radio transmitter installed in an aircraft used for international flights must have an FCC-issued_________lisence. Station. radio. frecuence.

2. To perform certain tuning operations on radio transmitters, technicians must hold the appropriate license issued by the_______. FCC. VHF. HF.

3. The radio-frequency carrier used in a radio transmitter is produced by a/an_________ controler oscillator. Crystal. Metal. Paper.

4. A superheterodyne circuit is used in a radio__________(receiver or transmitter). receiver. transmitter.

5. Most communication between civilian aircraft and ground facilities is in the__________(HF,VHF,UHF) frequency band. HF. VHF. UHF.

6. Most radio communication by aircraft operating over the oceans is done in the___________(HF,VHF,UHF)frequency band. HF. VHF. UHF.

7. SSB is the primary type of transmission for communication in the________(HF,VHF,UHF)band. HF. VHF. UHF.

8. One difference between AM and SSB radio communication is that SSB communication requires a_________(wider or narrower) band of frequencies for its transmission. wider. narrower.

9. The two fields that exist in a radio antenna are the: electric. magnetic. sinetic.

10. Radio waves travel through space at a speed of_________miles per second, or_________meters per second. 180.000. 300.000. 500.000.

11. Radio waves emitted from a vertical whip antenna are best picked up by a _________ (vertical or horizontal) antenna. vertical. horizontal.

12. A radio wave with a frequency of 136 MHz has a wavelength of _________meters. 2.21. 3.21. 5.21.

13. VHF radio communication travel primarily by the__________(ground, sky, or space) waves. space. sky. ground.

14.Three critical characteristics of a radio antenna are: Length. Polarization. Directiuyty. Segurity.

15. For an antenna to be most effective, its length should be__________(1½ or 1½) of a wavelength. 1/2. 1½.

16. A loop antenna________(is or is not) directional. is. is not.

17. An antenna is connected to a transmitter with a _________cable. coaxial. LAN. Single.

18. The system that allows an airline ground facility to monitor conditions existing in an aircraft in flight is called the_______. ACARS. MCUD.

19. When an airline ground facility wishes to contact one of its aircraft in flight the ______system is used. SELCAL. MCUD. ACAS.

20. A prerecorded emergency announcement in flight may be automatically initiated over a large aircraft's passenger address system in the event of a ___________. rapid descompressión. lower descompression. medium descompression.

21. Emergency locator transmitters operate on one or more frequencies. These are 121.5 MHz, 243 MHz and _________ MHz. 406 MHz. 205 MHz. 301 MHz.

22. Most ELTs are powered by a self-contained battery a_______(the aircraft electrical system or self contained battery). self contained battery. the aircraft electrical system.

23. An ELT is activated by an inertial switch that senses impact forces that are parallel to the _______(lateral or longitudinal) axis to the aircraft. longitudinal. lateral.

24. An ELT is normally installed in the aircraft as far ___________(aft or forward) as possible. aft. foward.

25. When activated, the battery installed in an ELT must be capable of furnishing power for signal transmis-sion for at least_______hours. 48. 24. 72.

26. An ELT battery must be replaced when it has been installed for_________percent of its rated usable life. 50. 75. 25.

27. The replacement date for an ELT battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the___________. transmiter case. innividor case. retransmisor.

28. Operation of an analog ELT may be verified by tuning the VHF receiver to _______MHz and activating the transmitter momentarily. 121,5. 125,6. 108,5.

29. If you are going to operationally check an analog ELT, the test should be performed within_________minutes after any hour. 5. 10. 15.

30. The old four-course radio range operated in the _________(low or high) -frequency range. low. high.

31. The Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) operates in the_____ and _________bands. low. high. medium.

32. An ADF system requires two antenna. These are a/an________and a/an________antenna. sense. loop. navegation.

33. The loop antenna used with an ADF system_________(is or is not) a directional antenna. is. is not.

34. The indication on an ADF indicator ________(does or does not) change as the heading of the aircraft change. does. does not.

35. VOR navigation equipment operates in the ____________(VHF or UHF) band. VHF. UHF.

36. The antenna used with a VOR system is__________horizontally or vertically) polarized. horizontally. vertically.

37. The antenna and receiver used for VOR are also used for the_________ (glide slope or localizer) portion of the instrument landing system. glide sople. localizer.

The indication on a VOR Course Deviation Indicator ____________(does or does not) change as the aircraft heading changes. does. does not.

39. When a Radio Magnetic Indicator is driven by a VOR, the needle points to the________(TO or FROM) bearing. to. from.

40. The dial of an RMI indicates the_________ (true or magnetic) heading of the aircraft. magnetic. true.

41. Compass locators used with an ILS operate in the_________(LF, VHF, or UHF) band. LF. VHF. UHF.

42. The signals from the compass locators are received by the ____________(ADF or VOR) receiver. ADF. VOR.

43. The portion of an ILS that provides guidance down the center line of the instrument runway is the __________. localizer. navegation.

44. The localizer used with an ILS operates in the _____________ (LF, VHF, or UHF) band. LF. VHF. UHF.

45. When the Left-Right indicator is used with a localizer signal, it is _______(more or less) sensitive than it is when it is used with a VOR signal. more. less.

46. The glide slope used with an ILS operates in the _________(LF, VHF, or UHF) band. LF. VHF. UHF.

47. The carrier transmitted by a marker beacon used with an ILS has a frequency of___________MHz. 75 MHz. 50 MHz. 25 MHz.

48. A pilot ________(does or does not) manually tune the glide slope receiver. does. does not.

49. A transponder can reply to the ground interrogator on any of_________ (how many) codes the pilot can select. 4.096. 3.132. 2.235.

50. When Mode C is selected on the transponder, the altitude data is taken from the___________. ecoding altimeter. velocimeter. tacometer.

51. When a radar controller needs to identify a particular aircraft on his radar scope, he asks the pilot to push the________button on the transponder. ident. reply.

52. The TCAS operates on signals from other airplanes in the vicinity whose transponders are operating in Mode______. C. A. B.

53. The TCAS computer builds a three-dimensional map of all the aircraft within range showing their_______,_________and_______. bearing, range and altitude. bearing, navegation and range. altitude,bearing and navegation.

54. If a Class II TCAS detects two aircraft on a potential collision course, it will warn one aircraft to__________and the other one to_________. climb and descend. descend and navegation. climb and navegation.

55. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is a_________(pulse or phase comparison) system. pulse. phase comparison.

56. DME operates in the_________(VHF or UHF) band. UHF. VHF.

57. The distance shown on a DME indicatori_________(is or is not) the actual distance over the ground from the location of the aircraft to the station. is. is not.

58. RNAV is able to direct a pilot to a way point that has been defined and entered into the equipment as the radial and distance from a/an __________. VOR station. ACAS. TCAS.

59. The deviation indicator for an RNAV receiver shows the __________from the desired course. linear. vertical. horizontal.

60. LORAN C operates in the_________(LF, MF, HF, or VHF) range. LF. MF. VHF.

61. A fully functioning GPS uses __________ (how many) satellites. 24. 46. 16.

62. To get a three dimensional fix (latitude, longitude, and altitude) a GPS receiver must be locked onto _______ or more satellites. 4. 8. 2.

63. The most popular type of display for GPS is the _________. moving map. navegation. TCAS.

64. The two main advantages of WAAS over GPS is its __________ and ____________. integrity and accuary. accuary and navegation. integrity and navegation.

65. The inertial navigation system (INS) __________ (is or is not) dependent upon ground-based electronic signals. is. is not.

66. A radar altimeter shows the pilot the actual height of the aircraft above________ (the ground or sea level). the ground. sea level.

67. The TAWS has essentially replaced the______. GPWS. PWS. GPS.

68. The TAWS receives its location data from the______. GPS. GPWS. PWS.

69. The TAWS warns the flight crew of a dangerous situation with both visual and ______ warnings. aural. audibles. visual.

70. Weather radar returns show energy that is reflected from______. percipitation. PPI.

71. An area of the heaviest precipitation shows up on a color weather radar as _____ (green, yellow,red). red. yellow. green.

72. The Stormscope system detects electrostatic discharges within a storm and it ________(dos or does not) require water for its signal. does. does not.

73. The three basic components in a digital computer are: Central Prosesing unit. memory. Imput/output Section. navegation.

74. Two types of memory in a digital computer are. ROM and RAM. ALU and CPU.

75. RAM ______ (does or does not) allow data to be written into the memory as well as read from it. does. does not.

76. RAM is normally _______ (volatile or nonvolatile). volatile. nonvolatile.

77. The self-diagnostic portion of a digital system installed in an aircraft is called______. bite. LCD. MFD.

78. A component that can be changed by the technicians on the flight line is called a/an ______. LRU. EFIS. EICAS.

79. The unit in an EFIS that receives and processes the input signals from the aircraft and engine sensors and sends it to the appropriate display is the ________. symbol generator. set of indicators.

The unit in an EFIS that allows the pilot to select the appropriate system configuration for the current flight situation is the_______. display control panel. symbol generator. set of indicators.

The two displays that are part of an EFIS are. EADI and EHSI. CRT and VOR.

82. When a warning flag appears on an EHSI or HSI for a function such as NAV, HDG, or GS, the function is. inoperative. operative.

83. Three engine primary parameters that are displayed on the upper display of an EICAS are. EGT, EPR and N1 speed. CRT, N2 and N3 speed.

84. The mode that takes priority over all of the other display modes in an ECAM is the_______mode. failure-related. after landing. approach.

85. The air data computer uses total air temperature to convert indicated airspeed into _______. true air speed. air temperature.

86. The air data computer uses altitude information to convert indicated airspeed into______. match number. fligth director.

87. Scratches, paint flakes, or any surface distortion near the_______ can cause an erroneous static pressure indication. air static pick up. statics ports.

88. A single-point system that allows a flight crew t crew to initiate and implement a flight plan and monitor its operation is the_____. flight management Computer System (FMCS). IRUs. CDUs.