Snob

Secondary nervous system tumors arise from: Primary glial cell transformation only. Congenital malformations. Electrolyte disturbances. Metastasis from tumors outside the nervous system.

According to the notes, why can large hematomas/hemorrhages worsen brain injury after trauma?. They act as a space-occupying process causing compression and perfusion disturbances. They cause immediate congenital malformations. They only affect peripheral nerves. They prevent any edema formation.

Hemineglect syndrome (hemi-inattention) is associated with lesions in which area?. L4–S3 spinal cord. Neuromuscular junction. Peripheral nerve. Prosencephalon.

Vascular neurological lesions are typically described in the notes as: Diffuse and symmetrical. Well demarcated and extremely focal. Limited to peripheral nerves. Always bilateral and progressive.

In the notes, neurological "anomalies" refer to: Peracute ischemic infarctions. Toxic disturbances without tissue change. Malformations of the brain and spinal cord. Metastatic tumors of the CNS.

Which disease is listed in the notes as an idiopathic inflammatory condition?. Intervertebral disc disease. Ischemic myelopathy. Steroid Responsive Meningitis-Arteritis (SRMA). Portosystemic shunt.

Hyperthyroidism is associated in the notes with which neurological signs?. Only decreased menace response with normal vision. Pure cerebellar intention tremor only. Flaccid paralysis with severe muscle atrophy. Behavioral changes (hyperactivity), pacing, circling and seizures.

According to the notes, infectious agents may reach the nervous system via which routes?. Only after cranial surgery. Only via CSF circulation. Only via lymphatic vessels. Blood, nerves, or direct extension from surrounding tissues.

In the notes, toxic neurological disease is defined as: A space-occupying mass lesion. congenital malformation present at birth. A progressive inherited neuronal degeneration. A disturbance of neurological function without observable CNS tissue morphological changes.

Which combination is listed as typical for Cannabis sativa intoxication in dogs?. Head pressing and seizures only. Pure intention tremor with normal mentation. Absent reflexes with rapid generalized atrophy. Altered mental status, ataxia and dilated pupils.

Hypothyroidism causing facial paralysis, megaesophagus or vestibular syndrome should be classified under which VITAMIN D category?. Idiopathic. Neoplastic. Metabolic. Degenerative.

Demyelinating diseases are described in the notes as: Diseases limited to skeletal muscle fibers. Diseases caused exclusively by vascular emboli. Diseases that primarily compress the spinal cord externally. Diseases that destroy the myelin sheath while the axon remains intact.

Chronic, symmetrical and progressive brain signs are most suggestive of which category?. Idiopathic vestibular disease. Peracute vascular infarction. Degenerative or metabolic/nutritional. Acute trauma only.

The ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) is responsible for which function according to the notes?. Peripheral proprioception. Regulation of the state of consciousness. Primary control of muscle contraction at the neuromuscular junction. Coordination of fine motor movement.

Which consequence of head trauma is emphasized in the notes as a key concern due to the closed space of the skull?. Immediate chronic neurodegeneration. Exclusive congenital malformations. Increased intracranial pressure. Electrolyte imbalance as the primary issue.

In the VITAMIN D acronym, what does the first "I" represent?. Idiopathic. Inflammatory/Infectious. Ischemic only. Inherited exclusively.

Thiamine deficiency is classified in the notes under which VITAMIN D category?. Nutritional. Traumatic. Vascular. Idiopathic.

Which finding is typical of lower motor neuron (LMN) dysfunction?. Head tremor with normal strength. Muscle atrophy with decreased tone and decreased reflexes. Compulsive circling toward the lesion. Increased extensor tone and hyperreflexia.

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) exposure can result in serotonin syndrome. Which set of signs is listed in the notes?. Only polyuria and polydipsia without neurological involvement. Cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological signs (e.g., tachycardia; vomiting/diarrhea; sedation/agitation/ataxia/tremors/seizures). Only dermatological pruritus and otitis. Only orthopedic pain and lameness.

Which cause of thiamine deficiency in cats is explicitly mentioned in the notes?. Chronic hypertension only. Intervertebral disc herniation. Excessive exercise. Diets containing certain fish products (e.g., herring and mackerel) with thiaminase.

Multifocal neurological deficits combined with inflammatory CSF findings most strongly suggest which category?. Metabolic. Inflammatory/Infectious. Purely traumatic. Congenital anomaly.

What is the main purpose of using the VITAMIN D acronym in neurological case work-up, as described in the notes?. To decide the surgical approach without localisation. To replace the neurological examination. To structure and broaden the differential diagnosis list after localisation. To select the anesthetic protocol before examination.

According to the notes, intoxications often produce neurological signs together with: Only unilateral blindness. Extraneuronal (systemic) symptoms. Only seizures without any other signs. Only spinal pain.

Decreased spinal reflexes are indicative of dysfunction at which level?. Forebrain. Lower motor neuron. Cerebellum. Upper motor neuron.

According to the notes, an atlanto-occipital (AO) CSF tap should NOT be performed until what has been investigated?. A coagulopathy has been investigated. The patient has been fasted for 24 hours. A urine culture is negative. Thoracic radiographs are normal.

Which pattern is most consistent with an L4–S3 (lumbosacral intumescence) lesion?. Only altered mentation and seizures. Hyperreflexia and increased extensor tone in pelvic limbs. Wide-based stance and intention tremor only. Pelvic limb hyporeflexia with decreased tone and possible atrophy.

Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison) is associated in the notes with: Hyperactivity and seizures as the typical pattern. Hyperreflexia and increased tone. Static deficits from birth. Depression and hyponatremia.

The notes emphasize that VITAMIN D should be used after: Starting treatment. Choosing a vaccine protocol. Completing surgery. Defining the problem and localizing the lesion.

Which descriptor for ischemic myelopathy is explicitly stated in the notes?. Chronic and progressive. Acute and non-progressive. Congenital and static. Intermittent only during exercise.

According to the notes, CSF in ischemic vascular lesions is most commonly: Normal to mildly inflammatory. Always hemorrhagic. Severely affected with very high protein and cell content in all cases. Always acellular and hypoproteinemic.

The notes describe vascular neurological disease as typically having onset: Only after months of progression. Only present at birth. Within minutes (peracute). Over weeks (slowly progressive).

Which statement is correct regarding meningiomas in small animals?. They are secondary metastatic tumors more common in dogs. They originate from glial cells and are most common in brachycephalic dogs. They are exclusively spinal tumors in young animals. They are primary meningeal tumors more common in cats than dogs.

Which description best matches the onset and evolution of vascular neurological disease described in the notes?. Peracute onset with stabilization and possible partial improvement over days to weeks. Intermittent episodes only during exercise. Chronic, slowly progressive signs over months. Always rapidly progressive and fatal within hours.

Why can spinal cord disease be painful even though the spinal cord itself has no pain receptors?. Because the conus medullaris is highly sensitive. Because the meninges surrounding the spinal cord have pain receptors. Because motor neurons transmit pain. Because the white matter contains nociceptors.

Inflammatory CNS diseases are generally associated with which CSF pattern?. Only decreased glucose. Always normal CSF. Inflammatory changes in CSF. Marked hypoproteinemia only.

Which condition is listed in the notes as an endogenous spinal cord compression considered a special form of trauma?. Intervertebral disc herniation. Addison disease. Thiamine deficiency. Hypoglycemia.

Which distinction is made in the notes regarding neoplastic disease affecting the nervous system?. Acute versus chronic only. Primary versus secondary (metastatic) tumors. Benign versus infectious. Central versus peripheral only.

According to the notes, why is the optic nerve considered part of the central nervous system (CNS)?. It is surrounded by skeletal muscle. It is innervated by Schwann cells exclusively. It is myelinated by oligodendrocytes and is a tract of the diencephalon. It only carries motor fibers.

Degenerative neurological diseases are typically characterized by which clinical course?. Peracute and static. Immediate full recovery. Progressive worsening over time. Intermittent only during exercise.

According to the notes, infectious agents can penetrate the nervous system via which routes?. Only via cerebrospinal fluid circulation. Blood, nerves, or direct expansion from surrounding tissues. Only after trauma. Only via lymphatics.

An acute and painful spinal cord syndrome should strongly raise suspicion for which category?. Traumatic. Degenerative storage disease. Idiopathic epilepsy. Peripheral neuropathy only.

Diffuse bilateral cerebral dysfunction without marked lateralization should first suggest which type of disorder?. Localized spinal compression. Focal traumatic lesion. Metabolic or toxic disorder. Peripheral neuropathy.

In dogs intoxicated with Cannabis sativa, which additional sign may occur besides altered mentation, ataxia and dilated pupils?. Hyperreflexia as the only sign. Static deficits from birth. Chronic progressive neurogenic atrophy. Seizures.

Which group of infectious agents is listed in the notes as potential causes of inflammatory/infectious neurological disease?. Only viruses. Only protozoa and parasites. Viruses, bacteria, protozoa, rickettsia, fungi and parasites. Only bacteria and fungi.

Which pattern is typical of a C6–T2 (cervical intumescence) lesion?. Decreased thoracic limb reflexes with normal/increased pelvic limb reflexes. Normal reflexes in thoracic limbs and decreased in pelvic limbs only. Only behavioral changes. Only intention tremor and wide-based stance.

Marked lateralization of neurological signs strongly supports which differential category?. Nutritional. Metabolic. Diffuse degenerative. Vascular.

A peracute onset of neurological signs that remain stable over time is most suggestive of which category?. Degenerative. Congenital anomaly. Nutritional deficiency. Vascular.

When considering vascular neurological disease, what should you “not forget” according to the notes?. Reproductive diseases. Dental diseases. Dermatological diseases. Cardiovascular diseases.

Which condition is listed in the notes as an example of a nutritional neurological disorder?. Thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Granulomatous meningoencephalitis (GME). Intervertebral disc herniation. Ischemic myelopathy.

What does the acronym VITAMIN D represent in the classification of neurological diseases?. Vascular, Inflammation/Infection, Trauma/Toxicity, Anomalies, Metabolic, Idiopathic, Neoplasia/Nutritional and Degenerative diseases. .

Lysosomal storage diseases are characterized in the notes by which mechanism?. Acute inflammatory infiltration with neutrophils. External mechanical compression. Enzyme defect causing substrate accumulation and cellular degeneration. Primary vascular occlusion.

In cerebellar disease, muscle strength is typically: Absent with rapid atrophy. Severely decreased in all limbs. Normal or preserved. Only decreased in thoracic limbs.

After a vascular event, the notes describe neurological signs as often remaining stable and then: Never improving at any time. Progressively worsening until death within hours. Immediately resolving within minutes. Partially regressing over the next days or weeks.

Which combination of signs is typical of cerebellar dysfunction?. Head pressing with compulsive circling. Depression with hyponatremia. Intention tremor, wide-based stance and ipsilateral menace deficit with normal vision. Flaccid paralysis with muscle atrophy.

Which combination best matches ischemic myelopathy as described in the notes?. Exercise-induced weakness only. Chronic progressive with severe spinal pain. Acute onset, non-progressive and non-painful. Diffuse symmetrical signs over months.

Lysosomal storage diseases are classified in the notes under which category?. Vascular. Idiopathic. Traumatic. Degenerative.

Congenital anomalies typically present with neurological signs that are: Only after trauma. Peracute in geriatric patients. Present early in life. Always exercise-induced.

Disc herniation and vertebral instability are classified in the notes as: Degenerative lysosomal storage diseases. Purely metabolic disorders. Primary inflammatory meningomyelitis. Special forms of trauma causing endogenous spinal cord compression.

In the notes, "coup" and "countercoup" lesions are used to explain injury from: Inherited degenerative storage disease. Chronic metabolic encephalopathy. Sudden acceleration/deceleration with brain displacement in the skull. Only direct penetrating traum.

According to the notes, diffuse and symmetrical brain signs are most suggestive of which broad differential group?. Localized traumatic fracture only. Metabolic/Nutritional disorders. Strictly focal vascular infarction. Single peripheral nerve lesion.

Chronic, progressive and symmetrical brain signs are most consistent with which categories?. Idiopathic epilepsy exclusively. Degenerative (storage diseases), metabolic/nutritional and congenital anomalies. Acute vascular accidents only. Trauma exclusively.

If a prosencephalic lesion affects the thalamus, which additional sign may be observed?. Selective demyelination of peripheral nerves. Isolated myalgia. Vestibular signs. Pure LMN paresis in thoracic limbs.

Loss of vision ipsilateral and rostral to the optic chiasm, and contralateral and caudal to the optic chiasm, is associated with lesions in which region?. Prosencephalon (cerebrum/diencephalon). Lumbosacral intumescence. Peripheral nerve. Cervical spinal cord.

Which finding is most consistent with a T3–L3 myelopathy?. Pure cranial nerve deficits. Thoracic limb LMN signs only. Exercise-induced weakness with normal reflexes. Paraparesis with normal or increased pelvic limb reflexes.

Which clinical course for ischemic myelopathy is stated in the notes?. Intermittent episodes only during exercise. Chronic and progressively worsening. Static deficits from birth. Acute and non-progressive.

Which statement about vascular neurological disease is explicitly listed as a key point in the notes?. Vascular diseases are quite rare in animals. Vascular diseases only occur in geriatric dogs. Vascular diseases are always bilateral and symmetrical. Vascular diseases only affect peripheral nerves.

Which set of signs is characteristic of prosencephalon (cerebrum + diencephalon) dysfunction according to the notes?. Altered mentation, seizures, contralateral postural deficits and circling toward the lesion. Flaccid tetraparesis with decreased spinal reflexes in all limbs. Pure exercise-induced weakness with normal proprioception. Wide-based stance with intention tremor only.

Increased extensor tone with hyperreflexia suggests dysfunction of: Peripheral nerve. Upper motor neuron. Primary muscle disease. Neuromuscular junction.

Which CSF pattern is most consistent with inflammatory CNS disease?. Always completely normal CSF. Increased cells and protein in CSF. Only decreased glucose. Low protein and acellular CSF.

Which CSF change is described in the notes for subarachnoid hemorrhage?. Only decreased glucose. Always normal CSF. Increased protein and increased cell content. Low protein with no cells.

The notes state that intoxications may show neurological signs together with: No systemic signs ever. Only seizures without other signs. Only unilateral blindness. Extraneuronal systemic symptoms.

According to the notes, lysosomal storage diseases typically affect the brain in which pattern?. Diffuse pattern of brain involvement. Only peripheral nerve involvement. Only spinal gray matter. Strictly unilateral focal lesion.

Which finding strongly supports a brainstem localization?. Pure behavioral hyperactivity without neurological deficits. Only lower motor neuron signs in pelvic limbs. Normal mentation with isolated menace deficit and intention tremor. Altered mentation with cranial nerve III–XII deficits.

Which pattern is most consistent with a C1–C5 myelopathy?. Tetraparesis with normal or increased spinal reflexes in all limbs. Pelvic limb hyporeflexia with thoracic limb hyperreflexia. Exercise-induced weakness only. Pure cranial nerve deficits without gait abnormality.

Porencephaly is classified under which VITAMIN D category in the notes?. Anomalies. Degenerative. Vascular. Idiopathic.

Gradually progressive focal neurological signs are most consistent with which mechanism?. Neoplastic mass effect. Acute vascular infarction. Metabolic encephalopathy. Idiopathic vestibular disease.

Which condition is highlighted as a special case of vascular disease affecting the spinal cord?. Thiamine deficiency. Idiopathic epilepsy. Hydrocephalus. Spinal cord infarction caused by fibro-cartilaginous emboli.

Large hematomas and hemorrhages secondary to trauma are described as causing which effect?. Space-occupying effect with compression, perfusion disturbances, edema and increased ICP. Exclusive metabolic encephalopathy. Selective lower motor neuron degeneration only. Primary demyelination without compression.

Which set of electrolyte abnormalities is explicitly listed in the notes as potentially causing neurological signs?. Hypercholesterolemia, hypertriglyceridemia and hyperbilirubinemia. Only hyperkalemia. Only hypocalcemia. Hypo-/hypernatremia, hypo-/hyperkalemia, hypo-/hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia.

Chronic, progressive and painful myelopathy is most consistent with which differentials according to the table?. Ischemic myelopathy only. Metabolic encephalopathy. Idiopathic vestibular disease. Intervertebral disc disease, neoplasia, congenital/anomaly and lumbosacral stenosis.

Absent spinal reflexes with rapid neurogenic atrophy are most consistent with: Forebrain lesion. Upper motor neuron lesion. Peripheral nerve disease. Cerebellar disease.

Which clinical picture is described for thiamine deficiency in cats?. Only lower motor neuron signs with neurogenic atrophy. Central vestibular dysfunction, head tremor, mydriasis and cervical ventroflexion. Pure cerebellar ataxia with normal mentation and no other signs. Peracute focal deficits with marked lateralization and rapid stabilization.

In the notes, brain injury related to sudden acceleration or deceleration is explained by: Exclusive vascular embolism from the heart. Brain displacement producing coup and countercoup lesions. Primary autoimmune inflammation. Thiamine deficiency.

How are congenital anomalies described in relation to neuromuscular diseases?. They exclusively affect the cerebellum. They are infrequent causes of neuromuscular disease. They are the most common cause of neuromuscular disease. They always present with seizures.

Ischemic myelopathy is described in the notes as typically being: Congenital and static. Non-painful. Severely painful in all cases. Chronic and progressive.

Hypoglycemia is noted as especially relevant in which context?. Only cats with cerebellar hypoplasia. Young miniature-breed animals and insulinoma. Only dogs with vestibular disease. Only geriatric large-breed dogs.

Postural reaction deficits contralateral to the lesion are most consistent with dysfunction of which region?. Prosencephalon. Peripheral nerve. L4–S3 spinal cord. Cerebellum.

Which condition is listed under anomalies (malformations) in the notes?. Porencephaly. Granulomatous meningoencephalitis. Fibrocartilaginous embolism. Insulinoma.

Rapid and severe muscle atrophy is most characteristic of which mechanism?. Forebrain lesion. Cerebellar dysfunction. Neurogenic (LMN/peripheral nerve) disease. Metabolic encephalopathy.

In the notes, “coup” and “countercoup” injuries are associated with which mechanism?. Sudden acceleration/braking causing the brain to move within the skull. Congenital malformation of the cerebellum. Exclusive peripheral nerve demyelination. Primary metabolic failure due to hypoglycemia.

According to the notes, vascular neurological diseases can occur in which age group?. Only in geriatric patients. Only in neonatal patients. At every age. Only in young animals under 1 year.

Which finding defines upper motor neuron (UMN) dysfunction?. Loss of consciousness only. Normal or increased reflexes with increased tone. Pure intention tremor. Decreased reflexes with rapid atrophy.

Symmetrical neurological deficits affecting multiple regions should first raise suspicion for: Focal vascular infarction. Localized trauma. Metabolic/Nutritional disease. Peripheral nerve transection.

In vascular ischemic lesions, what CSF description is given in the notes?. Severely affected CSF with marked increases in protein and cells. Normal to mildly inflammatory CSF. Always purulent CSF with bacteria visible. CSF is never useful in vascular disease.

Which electrolyte abnormality listed in the notes can produce neurological signs?. Elevated liver enzymes without electrolyte change. Hypo- or hypercalcemia. Hypercholesterolemia only. Hypertriglyceridemia exclusively.

Which statement best describes degenerative neurological diseases in the notes?. Peracute onset with marked lateralization and rapid stabilization. Progressive neuronal tissue destruction, often inheritable and breed-associated. Always caused by bacterial infection. Disturbance without observable morphological CNS changes.

Which electrolyte abnormality is specifically listed in the notes as a potential cause of neurological signs?. Elevated creatinine without electrolyte change. Hypophosphatemia. Hypertriglyceridemia. Hypercholesterolemia.

According to the notes, what is the correct order for approaching a neurological case before building a VITAMIN D differential list?. Localize → treat → define the problem. Generate VITAMIN D list → localize → examine. Choose treatment → take history → localize. Define the problem → localize neuroanatomically → generate differentials (VITAMIN D).

Cerebellar lesions cause incoordination but typically do not cause: True muscle weakness. Intention tremor. Hypermetria. Wide-based stance.

Hemineglect syndrome (hemi-inattention) is associated with lesions in which area?. Neuromuscular junction. Peripheral nerve. L4–S3 spinal cord. Prosencephalon.

Cerebellar hypoplasia in cats is associated in the notes with: Metaldehyde intoxication. Panleucopenia infection in utero or early neonatal life. Hyperthyroidism. Thiamine deficiency.

Lower motor neuron signs in the thoracic limbs with upper motor neuron signs in pelvic limbs localize the lesion to which region?. T3–L3 spinal cord segment. C1–C5 spinal cord segment. Peripheral nerve. C6–T2 spinal cord segment.

An acute, non-progressive and non-painful myelopathy is most consistent with which diagnosis listed in the table?. Lumbosacral stenosis. Neoplasia with gray matter involvement. Ischemic myelopathy. Meningomyelitis.

Hypoglycemia can cause neurological dysfunction primarily because the brain: Stores large glucose reserves. Functions independently of energy supply. Depends on glucose as a primary energy source. Uses calcium as its only fuel.

In dogs with suspected Cannabis sativa (marijuana) intoxication, what does the notes state about over-the-counter urinary tests?. They are the most reliable diagnostic test available. They are unreliable for diagnosis. They are reliable only in cats. They confirm the diagnosis when pupils are dilated.

Loss of vision ipsilateral and rostral to the optic chiasm, and contralateral and caudal to the optic chiasm, is associated with lesions in which region?. Lumbosacral intumescence. Peripheral nerve. Prosencephalon (cerebrum/diencephalon). Cervical spinal cord.

In a suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage of vascular origin, what CSF finding is expected?. Only decreased protein concentration. Severe hypoglycorrhachia without pleocytosis. Completely normal CSF. Marked increase in protein and cell content.

Which finding is associated with skeletal muscle dysfunction according to the notes?. Pure cranial nerve III deficit. Increased postural reactions in all limbs. Compulsive circling toward the lesion. Reduced withdrawal reflex and generalized exercise-induced weakness.

In ischemic vascular lesions, CSF findings are typically: Severely purulent. Markedly hypoproteinemic. Normal to mildly inflammatory. Always hemorrhagic.

Simultaneous deficits of several cranial nerves (III–XII) strongly suggest a lesion in which area?. Neuromuscular junction. Lumbosacral spinal cord. Forebrain cortex only. Brainstem.

Multifocal neurological deficits with inflammatory CSF changes most strongly suggest: Metabolic disorder. Inflammatory/Infectious disease. Peripheral nerve transection. Degenerative storage disease.

The notes include an MRI example showing a wedge-shaped cerebellar infarct in which breed?. Cavalier King Charles Spaniel (CKCS). Beagle. German Shepherd Dog. Boxer.

Pelvic limb hyporeflexia with decreased tone and muscle atrophy localizes to: Prosencephalon. T3–L3 spinal cord segment. Cerebellum. L4–S3 spinal cord segment.

According to the notes, why can brain trauma occur even without direct penetration of the skull?. Because trauma always produces infectious inflammation. Because the brain is firmly attached to the skull everywhere. Because sudden acceleration or braking causes displacement of the brain within the skull (coup–countercoup mechanism). Because the skull has pain receptors.

Which option lists only inflammatory/infectious nervous system disease terms explicitly named in the notes?. Arthritis, dermatitis, pancreatitis, hepatitis, cystitis. Neoplasia, anomalies, metabolic disease, trauma, vascular disease. Myopathy, cardiomyopathy, nephropathy, hepatopathy, enteropathy. Encephalitis, Myelitis, Neuritis, Meningitis, Ependymitis.

After a vascular event, neurological deficits may: Always worsen progressively. Remain static for life without change. Resolve immediately within minutes. Partially regress over days to weeks.

Which description corresponds to upper motor neuron (UMN) dysfunction?. Paresis/paralysis with normal or increased reflexes and increased tone. Normal neurological examination. Decreased reflexes, decreased tone and rapid neurogenic atrophy. Pure intention tremor without weakness.

Hypoglycemia as a metabolic cause of neurological signs is especially mentioned in which group?. Young animals of miniature breeds. Dogs with cervical disc disease. Cats with panleucopenia. Geriatric large-breed dogs only.

Paraparesis with increased pelvic limb reflexes and normal thoracic limbs localizes most likely to: Peripheral nerve. L4–S3 spinal cord segment. Brainstem. T3–L3 spinal cord segment.

Which primary brain tumor is described as more common in dogs, especially Boxer, Boston Terriers and English Bulldogs?. Meningiomas. Schwannomas. Gliomas. Pituitary adenomas (sellar region).

Which clinical picture is described for neuromuscular junction dysfunction?. Exercise-induced weakness with normal proprioception. Marked unilateral postural reaction deficits only. Severe hyperreflexia and increased extensor tone. Central vestibular ataxia with altered mentation.

According to the IVETF outcome proposal, outcome assessment in epilepsy should be based on: ERR Single postictal examination. ERR MRI findings alone. ERR Standardized definitions such as seizure freedom and partial success. ERR Subjective impression only.

EEG contributes most strongly to which diagnostic tier?. ERR Metabolic seizure confirmation. ERR Reactive seizure diagnosis. ERR Tier I only. ERR Tier III confidence.

Dogs with cluster seizures are at increased risk of: ERR Reactive seizures only. ERR Permanent seizure remission. ERR Progression to status epilepticus. ERR Immediate cure.

The purpose of the minimum database in seizure evaluation is to: ERR Diagnose intracranial tumors. ERR Determine seizure classification. ERR Exclude metabolic and toxic causes. ERR Replace MRI.

Status epilepticus is diagnosed when a seizure lasts: ERR More than 1 hour only. ERR Exactly 2 minutes. ERR 5 minutes or longer. ERR More than 30 seconds.

In refractory status epilepticus, phenobarbital may be administered as a loading strategy in order to: ERR Prevent future structural epilepsy. ERR Avoid monitoring serum levels. ERR Eliminate need for airway support. ERR Rapidly achieve therapeutic serum concentrations.

In the review article on management of refractory epilepsy, refractory epilepsy in veterinary medicine generally refers to: ERR Seizures that stop without treatment within 24 hours. ERR Frequent/severe seizures or intolerable side effects despite appropriate antiepileptic drug therapy. ERR Only seizures caused by transient metabolic disturbances. ERR Any dog that has ever had a single seizure.

Which metabolic disturbance is commonly associated with reactive seizures?. ERR Hypertension. ERR Hypoglycaemia. ERR Osteopenia. ERR Hypercalcaemia only.

According to the consensus recommendations, why is periodic liver monitoring recommended in dogs receiving phenobarbital?. ERR Because phenobarbital causes universal liver failure. ERR Due to risk of hepatotoxicity associated with phenobarbital. ERR Because liver enzymes always decrease. ERR Only to diagnose reactive seizures.

Cluster seizures are best defined as: ERR Three seizures in one month. ERR Continuous seizure activity without recovery. ERR Two or more seizures within 24 hours with recovery between seizures. ERR One seizure lasting more than 5 minutes.

According to the IVETF consensus, phenobarbital is known to: ERR Be eliminated unchanged exclusively in feces. ERR Have no interaction with other drugs. ERR Induce hepatic microsomal enzymes. ERR Completely inhibit hepatic metabolism.

According to the IVETF classification, structural epilepsy refers to: ERR Epilepsy caused by an identifiable intracranial structural lesion. ERR Epilepsy occurring only during sleep. ERR Epilepsy without any brain abnormality. ERR Epilepsy triggered by transient hypoglycaemia.

The interictal period refers to: ERR The prodromal phase only. ERR Status epilepticus. ERR The time between seizures. ERR The active seizure phase.

According to the ACVIM statement, after a first unprovoked seizure, the risk of recurrence in dogs is approximately: ERR Less than 5%. ERR More than 95%. ERR Exactly 10%. ERR Approximately 50% or higher.

Higher phenobarbital serum concentrations are associated with increased risk of: ERR Hepatotoxicity. ERR Permanent blindness. ERR Hyperthyroidism. ERR Renal failure in all cases.

According to IVETF terminology, Tier III confidence level for idiopathic epilepsy includes: ERR Only owner description of seizures. ERR Radiographic confirmation of vertebral lesions. ERR Presence of metabolic disease. ERR EEG findings consistent with epileptic seizure activity in addition to Tier I and II criteria.

Which of the following is listed as a differential diagnosis for episodic paroxysmal disorders?. ERR Osteoarthritis. ERR Syncope. ERR Chronic hepatitis. ERR Diabetes mellitus.

According to the IVETF classification, epileptic seizures are categorized by seizure type into: ERR Primary and secondary seizures. ERR Focal epileptic seizures and generalized epileptic seizures. ERR Reactive and metabolic seizures. ERR Acute and chronic seizures.

What therapeutic serum phenobarbital (PB) range is given in the IVETF (Europe) consensus proposal for dogs?. ERR 50–80 mg/L. ERR 1–5 mg/L. ERR 15–40 mg/L. ERR 100–300 mg/L.

According to the IVETF classification, epilepsy can be classified by etiology into which two main categories?. ERR Primary epilepsy and reactive epilepsy. ERR Genetic epilepsy and metabolic epilepsy. ERR Focal epilepsy and generalized epilepsy. ERR Idiopathic epilepsy and structural epilepsy.

According to the IVETF European consensus, imepitoin is indicated primarily for: ERR Cats with reactive seizures. ERR Dogs with structural brain tumors only. ERR Dogs with syncope. ERR Dogs with idiopathic epilepsy experiencing generalized seizures.

According to the IVETF outcome consensus, seizure freedom is defined as: ERR A 50% reduction in seizure frequency. ERR Absence of cluster seizures only. ERR No seizures for at least three times the longest pre-treatment interseizure interval and at least three months. ERR No seizures for exactly 30 days.

Drug-resistant epilepsy is diagnosed after failure of how many adequate AED trials?. ERR Five different drugs. ERR One AED trial. ERR Three emergency treatments. ERR Two adequate and tolerated AED trials.

Based on the Vet Clin N Am definition, status epilepticus is defined as: ERR Two seizures occurring within one month. ERR Three focal seizures within 24 hours with full recovery. ERR Any seizure lasting more than 30 seconds. ERR A single seizure lasting 5 minutes or two or more seizures without recovery between them.