ssa final written

1. What type of turbine engine is fitted to the Cessna Grand Caravan? (POH 1‐6). A) Turbojet engine. B) Piston engine. C) Ramjet engine. D) Free turbine, twin shaft turbo propeller engine.

2. An inertial separator system in the engine air inlet duct: (POH 7‐52). A) Increases compressor efficiency. B) Diverts exhaust gases. C) Prevents moisture and other particles from entering the compressor air inlet plenum when in bypass mode. D) Adds thrust to the engine.

3. The fuel in the aircraft is stored in: (POH 7‐62). A) External fuel tanks. B) Fuel bladders. C) Pressurized cylinders. D) Two vented, integral fuel tanks (one in each wing).

4. How many landing lights are installed on the Cessna Grand Caravan? (POH 7‐80). A) 1. B) 3. C) 4. D) 2.

5. The exhaust system of the Cessna Grand Caravan consists of a primary exhaust pipe: (POH 7‐54). A) Attached to the left side of the engine. B) Attached to the right side of the engine just aft of the propeller reduction gearbox. C) Located under the wings. D) Absent in this model.

6. When starting the engine using the airplane battery: (POH 2‐7). A) The starter shall be engaged for as long as needed. B) The starter shall not be engaged. C) The starter shall not be engaged for more than 60 seconds. D) The starter shall not be engaged for more than 30 seconds, followed by a starter rest period of 60 seconds.

7. When using the emergency power lever in flight, what is the minimum gas generator speed you have to maintain?. A) 50%. B) 55%. C) 60%. D) 65%.

8. A fuel filter bypass flag (red in color) on top of the fuel filter is: (POH 4‐16). A) An indication that the filter is clean. B) An indication that the fuel flow is normal. C) An indication that the filter has become blocked and is in bypass mode, airplane is grounded until further inspection. D) An indication of low fuel pressure.

9. How many vortex generators are to be counted on EACH horizontal stabilizer? (POH 4‐12). A) 10. B) 15. C) 18. D) 20.

10. When illuminated red, the voltage high CAS message indicates; (POH 7‐20). A) Normal operation. B) Low battery voltage. C) Alternator failure. D) Bus voltage is greater than 32 volts.

11. Propeller RPM is measured: (POH 7‐47). A) Mechanically. B) Hydraulically. C) Electronically from the propeller tachometer‐generator. D) Manually.

12. What does the CAS message ‘STALL HEAT (AMBER)’ mean? (POH 7‐21). A) Stall heat is turned off. B) Stall heat is functioning properly. C) Stall heat is overheating. D) Stall heat system has malfunctioned.

13. If PFD1 fails, the following will occur. A) PFD2 will display engine instruments. B) MFD will go reversionary mode. C) NAV 1 and COM 1 will be available. D) None of the above.

14. The ignition system has two positions, ON and NORMAL. The ON position is used: (POH 7‐50). A) Only during engine start. B) During flight through heavy precipitation. C) For normal operation. D) During flight through heavy precipitation, and in the SOP, for landing and take‐off.

15. When the battery switch is in the OFF position: (POH 7‐72). A) All electrical systems are powered. B) Power is cut off to all buses except the battery bus. C) Power is cut off to the battery bus. D) None of the above.

16. What is NOT true about the RAIM check?. A) RAIM check must be done on both GPS1 and GPS2 receiver. B) RAIM check is only necessary during instrument approaches. C) RAIM check verifies the integrity of the GPS signal. D) RAIM check ensures accurate GPS navigation.

17. Engine compressor stall can be somewhat eliminated by use of: (POH 4‐54). A) Increasing throttle abruptly. B) Turning on the air conditioning. C) Turning on the bleed air heat. D) Deploying flaps.

18. Spoilers are mounted above the outboard ends of the flap and are moved: (POH 7‐9). A) Manually by the pilot. "B) Automatically by means of push rods and spoiler travel is proportional to aileron travel for aileron deflections in excess of 5 degrees up". C) By hydraulic actuators. D) By electric motors.

19. DOOR UNLATCHED CAS message indicates that: A) All doors are securely closed. B) Upper cargo and/or passenger door is not latched. C) Emergency exits are obstructed. D) Cargo door is open during flight.

20. What does the CAS message ‘OIL PRESS LOW (RED)’ mean? (POH 7‐20). A) Engine oil pressure is normal. B) Engine oil pressure is high. C) Indicated engine oil pressure is less than 40 psi. D) Oil pressure sensor is malfunctioning.

21. With the STARTER switch positioned to MOTOR: A) Engine starts automatically. B) Engine cranks but does not start. C) The ignition circuit is not energized. D) The engine will not start.

22. The fireproof fuel drain can should be drained: (POH 7‐69). A) Before every flight. B) Once a week. C) Once a day or at an interval not to exceed six engine shutdowns. D) When the fuel level is low.

23. When using the fuel control manual override system: (POH 7‐44). A) Engine response may be slower. B) Engine response may be more rapid than when using the power level and additional care is required to avoid engine limitations. C) Fuel consumption decreases. D) No effect on engine performance.

24. When the External Power Switch is in the BUS position: (POH 7‐78). A) External power is applied to the main bus and no power is available to the starter. B) External power is applied to the avionics bus. C) External power is applied to the battery. D) No external power is supplied.

25. As per POH, what is the stall speed with flaps retracted at 8750 lbs with most forward C.G (Vs) (POH 5‐15). A) 60 kts. B) 63 kts. C) 65 kts. D) 68 kts.

26. Fuel flows from the wing tanks to the reservoir tank by: A) Siphoning action. B) Gravity. C) Fuel pump pressure. D) Fuel injectors.

27. What is the total oil capacity in quarts? (POH v/iv). A) 10. B) 12. C) 14. D) 16.

28. Fuel is injected into the combustion chamber liner of the PT6A‐114A engine by _____ simplex nozzles supplied by a dual manifold. (POH 7‐41). A) 8. B) 10. C) 12. D) 14.

29. What is the meaning of BETA Mode relating to the control of propeller blade pitch? (POH 1‐11). A) Propeller blade pitch is controlled by the porpeller lever. B) Propeller blade pitch is controlled by the power lever. C) Propeller blade pitch is controlled by the mixture lever. D) Propeller blade pitch is controlled by the landing gear lever.

30. The terrain warning system as installed in the caravan is based on: A) Radar technology. B) Sonar technology. C) GPS database. D) Magnetic compass.

31. As per SOPs, what is the configuration and minimum speed for holding? (SOP’s 7‐2). A) Landing configuration and 120 knots. B) Clean configuration and 100 knots. C) Approach configuration and 90 knots. D) Cruise configuration and 150 knots.

32. During approach, when should the taxi lights be on? (SOP 3‐8). A) When within 10 nm from the landing facility. B) When within 15 nm from the landing facility. C) When within 5 nm from the landing facility. D) During final approach only.

33. As per SOPs, the start should be aborted when the ITT: (SOP 4‐11). A) Approaches 800 degrees C. B) Approaches 850 degrees C. C) Approaches 900 degrees C. D) Approaches 950 degrees C.

34. Before flight, fuel drains should be witnessed by: (SOP 4‐8). A) A mechanic. B) A flight attendant. C) A pilot. D) A marshaller.

35. Whenever passengers are carried the rate of climb must not exceed: (SOP 5‐29). A) 500 fpm. B) 600 fpm. C) 700 fpm. D) 800 fpm.

36. When leaving the aircraft after the last flight of the day, who is responsible for securing the aircraft? (SOP 8‐2). A) Maintenance crew. B) Ground crew. C) The PIC. D) Flight attendants.

37. Speed deviations during a stable approach are within: (SOP 7‐11). A) Vref +10 knots, Vref ‐5 knots. B) Vref +15 knots, Vref ‐10 knots. C) Vref +20 knots, Vref ‐5 knots. D) Vref +25 knots, Vref ‐15 knots.

38. What fuel must be carried if your flight is scheduled to arrive 25 minutes before sunset (official night)? (SOP 2‐5). A) VFR fuel requirements. B) IFR fuel requirements. C) Day VFR fuel requirements. D) Night VFR fuel requirements.

39. When cleared to intercept the LOCALIZER only, while flying an ILS approach using the autopilot, the crew: (SOP 7‐14). A) Must select NAV mode only, as APR also arms the GS. B) Must select APR mode. C) Must select HDG mode. D) Must select ALT mode.

40. In an emergency situation with the Quick Position button activated, is it possible to send / receive Bluesky messages or calls? (SOP A‐3). A) Yes, immediately. B) No, not until after landing. "C) No, you have to de‐activate the Quick Position button by pressing it again before being able to send/receive any messages or make/receive calls via the Bluesky unit". D) Yes, but only to pre-programmed emergency contacts.

41. As per SOPs, what is the maximum floor loading for the cargo pod? (SOP’s App. B‐1). A) 20 lbs/sq ft. B) 25 lbs/sq ft. C) 30 lbs/sq ft. D) 35 lbs/sq ft.

42. During downwind in the traffic pattern during a normal visual approach, the SOP states that the altitude should be: (SOP 7‐26). A) 500' AAE. B) 750' AAE. C) 1000' AAE. D) 1250' AAE.

43. For an IFR flight to an airport with no reliable weather report available, the minimum fuel to be carried is? (SOP 2‐5). A) Fuel to destination only. B) Fuel to destination, then alternate. C) Fuel to destination, then alternate, plus 200 lbs reserve. D) Fuel to destination, then alternate, plus 400 lbs reserve.

44. When taxiing on a long, straight taxiway, maximum taxi speed can be? (SOP 5‐3). A) 20 knots. B) 25 knots. C) 30 knots. D) 35 knots.

45. Bank angle should be limited to ____ degrees when passengers are carried (SOP); (SOP 5‐32). A) 20. B) 25. C) 30. D) 35.

46. What is the job description for a captain? (COM‐05 12‐3). A) Responsible for the safe conduct of company flights. B) Responsible for loading the aircraft. C) Responsible for scheduling flights. D) Responsible for passenger service.

47. What is the monthly flight time limit? (COM‐05 13‐4). A) 80 hours. B) 90 hours. C) 100 hours. D) 110 hours.

48. Duty time for flights is defined to; (COM‐05 13‐2). A) Start 30 minutes before the first scheduled departure and end 10 minutes after the last aircraft engine shutdown. B) Start 40 minutes before the first scheduled departure and end 20 minutes after the last aircraft engine shutdown. C) Start 50 minutes before the first scheduled departure and end 30 minutes after the last aircraft engine shutdown. D) Start 60 minutes before the first scheduled departure and end 40 minutes after the last aircraft engine shutdown.

"49. When your duty time is being extended passed the usual 12 hour limit, what will be the minimum rest period required to extend the duty time? (COM‐05 13‐2)". A) Two hours. B) Three hours. C) Four hours. D) Five hours.

50. What does Minimum En‐Route Altitude (MEA) guarantee? (COM‐05 21‐4). A) Terrain clearance. B) Reception of navigational signal. C) Both A and B. D) None of the above.

51. What is the extended weekly flight time limit for an aircraft 12500 lbs or less? (COM‐05 13‐5). A) 40 hours. B) 45 hours. C) 50 hours. D) 55 hours.

"52. When common carriage (commercial flight) is not involved, company aircraft may be operated under rules in CASR 91, instead of the Company Operating Manual(COM) and CASR 135, for the following flights: (COM‐05 1‐1)". A) Charter flights only. B) Ferry or training flights, or transportation of guests when no charge, assessment or fee is made for the transportation. C) Scheduled passenger flights. D) Cargo flights only.

53. When can a required flight crewmember leave his/her assigned seat? (COM‐05 9‐4). A) Anytime during flight. B) During climb or descent. C) If the aircraft is flying above 10,000 feet, or in steady cruise flight, with the autopilot engaged. D) Only during emergencies.

"54. The Operational flight plan is flight documentation which needs to be filed and retained for _____ after the date of the flight, along with the filled out weight & balance form and the passenger manifest. (COM‐05 4‐2)". A) 1 month. B) 2 months. C) 3 months. D) 6 months.

55. Are we allowed to operate IFR? (COM‐05 4‐10). A) No. B) Yes, only in certain weather conditions. C) Yes, if the aircraft is turbine powered and carrying cargo only. D) Yes, for all flights.

56. According to the Company Operations Manual, what is the minimum in-flight separation from other aircraft during formation flights? (COM‐05 4‐11). A) 100 feet horizontally and 1000 feet vertically. B) ¼ mile horizontally and 500 feet vertically. C) 500 feet horizontally and 1000 feet vertically. D) 1 mile horizontally and 2000 feet vertically.

57. According to Company Operations Manual, what is the fuel final reserve requirement for VFR Fixed wing? (COM‐05 6‐2). A) 30 min. B) 45 min. C) 60 min. D) 90 min.

58. According to regulations, a handicapped passenger shall: (COM‐05 11‐2). A) Be seated next to an aircraft door or emergency exit. B) Not be seated next to an aircraft door or emergency exit. C) Be provided with priority boarding. D) Be seated in the first row.

59. What is the weekly flight time limit for an aircraft 12500 lbs or less? (COM‐05 13‐4). A) 30 hours. B) 40 hours. C) 50 hours. D) 60 hours.

"60. If a flight was canceled, the flight plan for that flight has to be properly canceled or closed within ____ after the flight’s planned ETA or Search and Rescue procedures may be initiated. (COM‐05 8‐3)". A) 15 minutes. B) 30 minutes. C) 1 hour. D) 2 hours.