SSA inicial

Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause. A. the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal. B. the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal. C. drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff.

On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the. A. flightpath. B. longitudinal axis. C. chord line.

Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by. A. Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper. B. bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper. C. pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become. A. twice as great. B. half as great. C. four times greater.

A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream that tends to rotate the airplane to the. A. left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis. B. left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis. C. right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

An airplane leaving ground effect will. A. experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction. B. require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient. C. experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.

What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum. A. coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag. B. gain in altitude over a given distance. C. range and maximum distance glide.

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's. A. lift, airspeed, and drag. B. lift, airspeed, and CG. C. lift and airspeed, but not drag.

One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to. A. decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. B. decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made. C. provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed.

A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of. A. airspeed and altitude. B. airspeed and RPM. C. altitude and RPM.

The purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease. A. the lift of the wing. B. landing speed. C. the drag.

Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?. A) Tabs. B) Flaps. C) Outboard ailerons.

An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the. A. higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface. B. negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface. C. vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface.

If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will. A. increase, and induced drag will decrease. B. increase, and induced drag will increase. C. decrease, and parasite drag will increase.

Propeller efficiency is the. A. ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower. B. ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch. C. actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.

In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be. A. four times greater than at the lower speed. B. the same as at the lower speed. C. two times greater than at the lower speed.

A swept wing airplane with weak static directional stability and increased dihedral causes an increase in. A. Dutch roll tendency. B. Mach tuck tendency. C. longitudinal stability.

If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays. A. positive dynamic stability. B. positive static stability. C. neutral dynamic stability.

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane. A. increases because of increased parasite drag. B. increases because of increased induced drag. C. decreases because of lower parasite drag.

Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?. A. The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed. B. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed. C. Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.

Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated during. A. normal operations. B. abrupt maneuvers. C. flight in smooth air.

Stall speed is affected by. A. weight, load factor, and power. B. angle of attack, weight, and air density. C. load factor, angle of attack, and power.

A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple?. A. Maintain altitude and airspeed. B. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C. Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed.

Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time. A. divided by the total weight of the aircraft. B. multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft. C. divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.

If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor will. A. remain the same but the radius of turn will increase. B. decrease and the stall speed will increase. C. increase as well as the stall speed.

Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the. A. loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force. B. rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn. C. loss of the vertical component of lift.

Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot in command required to hold a type rating?. C) When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. andasa.

How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?. B) 60 days. andasa.

Baggage weighing 90 pounds is placed in a normal category airplane's baggage compartment which is placarded at 100 pounds. If this airplane is subjected to a positive load factor of 3.5 G's, the total load of the baggage would be. A. 315 pounds and would be excessive. B. 350 pounds and would not be excessive. C. 315 pounds and would not be excessive.

If the airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The angle of attack. A. and angle of bank must be decreased. B. must be decreased or angle of bank increased. C. must be increased or angle of bank decreased.

The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon: A. Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed. B. High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed. C. Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.

Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?. A. Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude. "B. Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude. ". C. Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed.

During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift. A. is momentarily increased. B. is momentarily decreased. C. remains the same.

While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will. A. decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. B. increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. C. decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.

In small airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the. A. CG is too far rearward, and rotation is around the CG. B. spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. C. CG is too far rearward, and rotation is around the longitudinal ax.

The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by. A. changes in air density. B. variations in airplane loading. C. variations in flight altitude.

To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should. A. maintain the bank and decrease airspeed. B. increase the bank and increase airspeed. C. increase the bank and decrease airspeed.

The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of. A. weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude. B. weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle. C. dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude.

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be. A. 12,000 pounds. B. 3,000 pounds. C. 4,000 pounds.

Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation Choose one answer. A. varies over time as the agonic line shifts. B. varies for different headings of the same aircraft. C. is the same for all aircraft in the same locality.

In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being Choose one answer. A. increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure. B. decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure. C. increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure.

Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator? Choose one answer. A. The never-exceed speed. B. The power-off stall speed. C. The maneuvering speed.

Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The engine continues to run with no interruption; this Choose one answer. A. is normal because the engine is usually stopped by moving the mixture to idle cut-off. B. is an undesirable practice, but indicates that nothing is wrong. C. should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position.

The mixture control can be adjusted, which Choose one answer. A. regulates the amount of air flow through the carburetor's venturi. B. prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming too rich at higher altitudes. C. prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming lean as the airplane climbs.

For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a Choose one answer. A. small angle of attack and high RPM. B. large angle of attack and high RPM. C. large angle of attack and low RPM.

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°? Choose one answer. A. 1 minute. B. 3 minutes. C. 2 minutes.

Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor heat? Choose one answer. A. It leans the fuel/air mixture. B. It has no effect on the fuel/air mixture. C. It enriches the fuel/air mixture.

At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed Choose one answer. A. will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster. B. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air. C. will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged.

What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator Choose one answer. A. indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination. B. is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-driven. C. indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.

To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and. A. decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle. B. decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. C. increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.

Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for. A. installation and instrument error. andasa.

What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight altitude increases?. A. The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel increases. B. The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant. C. The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases.

True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for. A. altitude and non-standard temperature. B. installation or instrument error. C. non-standard temperature.

What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments?. A. It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators. B. It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators. C. It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure.

Detonation can be caused by. A. using a lower grade of fuel than recommended. B. low engine temperature. C. a “rich” mixture.

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as. A. detonation. B. pre-ignition. C. instantaneous combustion.

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?. A. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM. B. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for takeoffs. C. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged.

Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft. A. throttle is advanced very abruptly. B. descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment. C. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment.

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by. A. water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land. B. land absorbing and radiating heat faster than the water. C. cool and less dense air moving inland from over the water, causing it to rise.

Which is true regarding the development of convective circulation?. A. Warm air is less dense and rises on its own accord. B. Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward. C. Warmer air covers a larger surface area than the cool air; therefore, the warmer air is less dense and rises.

Advection fog has drifted over a coastal airport during the day. What may tend to dissipate or lift this fog into low stratus clouds?. A. Nighttime cooling. B. Wind 15 knots or stronger. C. Surface radiation.

"Refer to the excerpt from the following METAR report: KTUS 08004KT 4SM HZ 26/04 A2995 RMK RAE36 At approximately what altitude AGL should bases of convective-type cumuliform clouds be expected?". A. 4,400 feet. B. 8,800 feet. C. 17,600 feet.

The strength and location of the jet stream is normally. A. weaker and farther north in the summer. B. stronger and farther north in the summer. C. stronger and farther north in the winter.

From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?. A. Atmospheric pressure. B. The ambient lapse rate. C. The dry adiabatic lapse rate.

Ice pellets encountered during flight normally are evidence that Choose one answer. A. there are thunderstorms in the area. B. a warm front has passed. C. a warm front is about to pass.

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion?. A. Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface. B. Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind. C. Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude.

Which statement is true regarding squall lines?. A. They are slow in forming, but rapid in movement. B. They are nonfrontal and often contain severe, steady-state thunderstorms. C. They are always associated with cold fronts.

Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts?. A. Radiation fog. B. Precipitation-induced fog. C. Advection fog.

During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the Choose one answer. A. south and speed increases. B. north and speed increases. C. north and speed decreases.

Which is true with respect to a high- or low-pressure system?. A. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air. B. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. C. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of Choose one answer. A. a pressure differential. B. a heat exchange. C. the movement of air.

One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and Choose one answer. A. below rotor clouds. B. below lenticular clouds. C. above rotor clouds.

What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?. A. The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs. B. The method by which the air is lifted. C. The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the Choose one answer. A. right by surface friction. B. right by Coriolis force. C. left by Coriolis force.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. A. It is present at any level and exists in only a vertical direction. B. It is present at only lower levels and exists in a horizontal direction. C. It can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction.

Hail is most likely to be associated with Choose one answer. A. cumulus clouds. B. cumulonimbus clouds. C. stratocumulus clouds.

"If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to Choose one answer.". A. strong surface winds. B. wind shear. C. strong convective currents.

The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of. A. stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge. B. moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge. C. unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

Virga is best described as Choose one answer. A. wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground. B. streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground. C. turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.

A common location of clear air turbulence is. A. near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow. B. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream. C. south of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage.

What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms? Choose one answer. A. 40 miles. B. 30 miles. C. 20 miles.

When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the Choose one answer. A. windward side when flying into the wind. B. leeward side when flying into the wind. C. leeward side when flying with a tailwind.

A strong wind shear can be expected Choose one answer. A. on the low-pressure side of a jetstream core where the speed at the core is stronger than 110 knots. B. in the jetstream front above a core having a speed of 60 to 90 knots. C. if the 5 °C isotherms are spaced between 7° to 10° of latitude.

Low-level wind shear may occur when Choose one answer. A. surface winds are above 15 knots and there is no change in wind direction and windspeed with height. B. surface winds are light and variable. C. there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion.

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of Choose one answer. A. lenticular ice formation in calm air. B. heavy icing conditions. C. very strong turbulence.

Which statement is true concerning the hazards of hail?. A. Hailstones may be encountered in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm. B. Rain at the surface is a reliable indication of no hail aloft. C. Hail damage in horizontal flight is minimal due to the vertical movement of hail in the clouds.

Which would increase the stability of an air mass? Choose one answer. Which would increase the stability of an air mass? Choose one answer. B. Warming from below. C. Decrease in water vapor.

A moist, unstable air mass is characterized by Choose one answer. A. stratiform clouds and continuous precipitation. B. poor visibility and smooth air. C. cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.

What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?. A. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. B. Continuous heavy precipitation. C. Fog and low stratus clouds.

When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is forecast, one can expect what type of weather?. A. Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds. B. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. C. Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area.

With respect to advection fog, which statement is true? Choose one answer. A. It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak. B. It is slow to develop, and dissipates quite rapidly. C. It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.

Of the following, which is accurate regarding turbulence associated with thunderstorms? Choose one answer. A. Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 50 miles laterally from a severe storm. B. Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm. C. Shear turbulence is encountered only inside cumulonimbus clouds or within a 5-mile radius of them.

Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dewpoint temperature spread? The temperature spread Choose one answer. A. decreases as the relative humidity increases. B. increases as the relative humidity increases. C. decreases as the relative humidity decreases.

Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered Choose one answer. A. in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms. B. when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots. C. near warm or stationary frontal activity.

Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm. Choose one answer. A. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm. B. Updrafts continue to develop throughout the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm. C. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm.

When flying into a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction and velocity will be from the Choose one answer. A. left and increasing. B. right and decreasing. C. left and decreasing.

If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be Choose one answer. A. cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence. B. stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence. C. cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence.

What are the characteristics of stable air? Choose one answer. A. Poor visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds. B. Poor visibility; intermittent precipitation; cumulus clouds. C. Good visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds.

Moisture is added to a parcel of air by Choose one answer. A. evaporation and condensation. B. evaporation and sublimation. C. sublimation and condensation.

What causes wind? Choose one answer. A. The Earth's rotation. B. Pressure differences. C. Air mass modification.

Which situation would most likely result in freezing precipitation? Rain falling from air which has a temperature of. A. 0 °C or less into air having a temperature of 0 °C or more. B. 32 °F or less into air having a temperature of more than 32 °F. C. more than 32 °F into air having a temperature of 32 °F or less.

Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?. A. Warming from below. B. Decrease in water vapor. C. Cooling from below.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?. A. Mature. B. Dissipating. C. Developing.

Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?. A. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a line connecting the highs and lows. B. Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient. C. Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.

A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is. A. a warm, moist air mass settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions. B. a light breeze moving colder air over a water surface. C. an air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter.

Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front, Choose one answer. A. is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front. B. is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front. C. has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?. A. Beginning of rain at the surface. B. Roll cloud. C. Continuous updraft.

If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least. A. 10 miles. B. 20 miles. C. 5 miles.

Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?. A. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. B. Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility. B. Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

Fog produced by frontal activity is a result of saturation due to. A. adiabatic cooling. B. nocturnal cooling. C. evaporation of precipitation.

With regard to windflow patterns shown on surface analysis charts; when the isobars are. A. close together, the pressure gradient force is slight and wind velocities are weaker. B. close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger. C. not close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.

The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with. A. squall lines. B. slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause. C. fast-moving occluded fronts.

What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?. A. Pressure gradient force. B. Coriolis force. C. Surface friction.

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000 feet MSL is 10 °C. and the dewpoint is 1 °C?. A. 4,000 feet MSL. B. 6,000 feet MSL. C. 3,000 feet MSL.

What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorms?. A. Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds. B. Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static. C. Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail.

Susi Air callsign is: A. Sky Queen. B. Susi Air. C. Registration of the aircraft.

otras mas. VMO WINDOW OPEN. RECTANGUALR WING COMAPRED FROM OTHER WINGS WHEN STALL. LOAD FACTOR C208b. V FLAPS.